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  1. Dell EMC 2000 Networking Foundations (Auth ID:3171)
  2.  
  3. sfp+ modules are removable , sfp modules are not- FALSE
  4. Powerconnect 55xx series switches are can be stacked together using 10gps hdmi cable TRUE
  5. WHICH SYSTEM management functions can be performed through the switch cli - EMAIL ALETRT SNMP AND CONFIGURATION AND IMAGE FILE
  6. match definitions , default mode is exec mode , has commands to view y exec priviliged , enables you to configure is configuration mode
  7. which trouble shooting command is used to sen icmp - PING
  8. which opf the following are topologies that can be utilized on a lan network - DAISY HIERARCHY AND BUS
  9. the del force 10 e series is for costumers with large datacenters that need ery dense - TRUE
  10. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM NUMBER OS psms NEEDED FOR POWER OVER ETHERNET- 2
  11. WHICH C SERIES LINE CARD HAS PORTS THAT CAN BE OVERSUSCRIBED 46 PORT FLEX MEDIA
  12. on site engineeres are allowed to update the firmware on a force 10 FALSE
  13. what will happen if you remove or mismatch fan modules on the s55 - SYSTEM WILL SHUTDOWN IN 300 SECONDSA
  14. hoiw many physical 40gbe qsfp ports does the z9000 - 32
  15. what is the pourpose of usb type a port on force 10 switches - STORAGE
  16. how can top level commands be used within sub prompt - DO COMAMND
  17. what is the minimum number of psms needed to power a c150 - 1
  18. choose the correct answer where would you set the ip adrees on a m6220 - USING CMC GUI
  19. WHEN REPLACING A DC PEM IN A DELL FORCE 10 C300AN ONSITE ELECTRICIAN IS REQUIRED TRUE
  20. list the step in the proper order for replacing a defective powerconnect 81xx - UNBOX THEN ESTABLISH THEN UPDATE THEN RESTORE
  21. when replacing a sfm line card in a dell force 10 c300 what cli command is used to verify the new sfm - SHOW SFM X
  22. how many powerconnect 7000 series switches can be stacked to aoperate as a single unit - 12
  23. which fru exists for a powerconnect 7048br INTERNAL POWER SUPPLY AND FANS
  24. which bay must be used when installing a 10gbaset modle into a powerconnect 6224 - BAY 2
  25. what is the dafult ip address that is used to access a brocade 4016 switch - 10.77.77.77
  26. what is the port speed and duplex mode for a powerconnect 28xx switch the port led pattern shown in this image - 1000mbps half duplex
  27. a power conenct 28xx switch is replaced s a single fru - TRUE
  28. selecy all the avalable image upgrade methods for powerconnect switches - USB DRIVES - SERIAL WITH XMODEM AND TFTP
  29. when connecting to a powerconnect 28xx series switch via the serial console what are the default setting used - 9600bps /8 data bits / no partiy -/ 1 stop bit / no flo
  30. what connection methods are available with the power connect 35xx series switches - telnet console web interface
  31. which of the legacy powerconnect 28xx series switches support small form factor pluggable modules as fru - 2848 and 2824
  32. which of the following commands is used to reboot a powetrconnect switch from a priviliged exec mode - reload
  33. choose the coorect answer from the omnm 60 user interface where should you navigate to in order to begin restoring a configuration file back p managed resources portlet
  34. choose all that apply when updating a brocade switch through omnm 60 which files are reuired RELEASE.PLIST FILE FIMWARE UPDATE ZIP FILE
  35. Dell EMC 2000 Storage 2018 (Auth ID: 3251)
  36.  
  37. dell storage ps series firmware is integrated across the family of ps series storage arrays in order to virtualize san--TRUED
  38. there is a limit of four enclosures per SAS chain - FALSE
  39. iops influences throughput - TRUE
  40. which of these sc series models includes the controller and storage disks in a single chassis -
  41. what is a read hit - FINDING THE REQUEST DATA IN THE CACHE
  42. in an sc series array what does 80 in scv2080 represent - 84 DISKS
  43. which dell emc hardware option is a good match for vxflex os - POWEREDGE
  44. which storage solutio is recommended for large scale businesses -- SAN
  45. which is an open source software defined storage solution that delivers file based and block based storage services ---NEXENTA
  46. which front end cabling method protects against the failure of a switch-- DUAL FABRIC FIBER CHANNEL
  47. what type of raid writes data to at least two disks then mirrors that data to another set of disks. --- RAID 10
  48. what are the strategies used to ensure that data is recoverable in the event of a disaster -- REPLICATION AND SNAPSHOT
  49. what software is installed on every xc series system - BOTH NUTANIX
  50. on most hardware where are led indicators located -- FRONT AND BACK
  51.  
  52. creating an exact copy of the data on a different storage array to ensure business continuity in the event of disaster is called what ? - REPLICATION
  53. which compoennts make up the front end of a san - not only servers
  54. which feature provides an end to end management solution for the xc series - NUTANIX PRISM
  55. what are the types of zoning - ALL BUT SC ZONING
  56. what types of storage media are supported with vxflex os - HDD SDD PCIE
  57. A side and B sude refer to what - BACKEND SAS CABLING
  58. which components make up the back end of a san - ENCLOSURE AND DISKS
  59. of the disk technologies which provides the fastest performance - SSD
  60. which vxrail model is designed as an entry level system - E
  61. which of these are block based protocols - not all - not sas and iscsi not iscsi alone
  62. which is the entry level ps series array - PS4110
  63. which storage line is paired with nutanix software ? - XC SERIES
  64. what type of storage is file based and accessible to users with the right credential? - NAS
  65. which component of vxflex os manages the local storage that contributes to the storage pools? - not vxflex os storage data client
  66. what forms the foundation of the ps series architechture - GROUPS POOLS AND MEMBERS
  67. which are hyper converged storage platforms - XC SERIES + VXRAIL
  68. how many switches are required to support dual fabric fibre channel - 2
  69. what is cold data - DATA THAT HAS NOT BEEN ACCESSED FOR AND AMOUNT OF TIME
  70. which of these are file based protocols - NFS AND SMB CIFS
  71. which front end cabling method protects against the failure of a switch - DUAL FABRIC FIBRE CHANNEL
  72. which elements comprise the vmware software stack - VCENTER SERVER - VMWARE VSAN - VSPHERE
  73. which ps series software provides features like volume snapshots cloning and replication - PS SERIES FIRMWARE
  74. what are three basic interconnectivity options supported by fibre channel architecture - P2P FC SW AND FC AL
  75. which of hese are licensed features of the sc series storage arrays - DATA PROGRESSION FAST TRACK AND DATA PROGRESSION (BUT SOMETHING IS MISSING)
  76. the vxflex os meta data manager holds user data - FALSE
  77. a fru can be replaced by a dell emc technician or the costumer - FALSE
  78. frequently accessed data is kept on the hdd tier while cold data is migrated to the ssd tier - FALSE
  79. which virtualization product allows live migration for powered on virtual machines in the same data center VSPHERE VMOTION
  80. which component of vxflex os allows administrators to configure and monitor the os - MDM
  81. which color led may be indicating a problem - AMBER
  82. Which of sc series models is no longer being sold but still exists in many costumer environments - SC 8000
  83. which vsan feature provides data protection from dis or node failure - ERASURE CODING+
  84. what is converged storage: COLLAPSING
  85. which of these are dell emc san solutions - not all
  86. when cabling between two enclosures which is a best practices - FROM 1 TO 2
  87. which tool allows you to generate service documentation for certain legacy emc models - SOLVE
  88. What are parts that require a system outage during installation called - NON HOT SWAPABLE
  89. which of these are storage drive interfaces - SATA SAS AND NEAR LINE SAS
  90. vxflex os uses direct attached storage - TRUE
  91. what type storage networks are supported by nexentastor os - SAN AND NAS ONLY
  92. what are the two different types of vxflex os nodes - 1U1N AND 2U1N
  93. what is the minimun number od nodes required to form a cluste in nutanix ? - 3
  94. which nexenta feature breaks data inot pieces that are reassembled when thte data is needed - QUICK ERASURE CODING
  95. when cabling from a controller to an enclosure which is the best practice - FROM 1 TO 1
  96. what are considered software defined storage platforms : - not xc+nexenta+vxflex
  97. which dell emc product is a softwareonly solution that suses lan and existin local storage to create a virtual san - VXFLEX
  98. which layer in the it infrastructure houses applications such as web servers, databases and apps - COMPUTE
  99. what are the three factors which affect data storage performance - LATENCY IOPS THROUGHPUT
  100. what is software defined storage - STORAGE THAT IS SOFTWARE BASED AND DESIGNED TO RUN ON ANY HARDWARE
  101. in a vxrail configuration addition nodes must have the same physical attributes as the first three nodes - TRUE
  102. Dell EMC 2000 Storage 2018 (Auth ID: 3251)
  103.  
  104. dell storage ps series firmware is integrated across the family of ps series storage arrays in order to virtualize san--TRUED
  105. there is a limit of four enclosures per SAS chain - FALSE
  106. iops influences throughput - TRUE
  107. which of these sc series models includes the controller and storage disks in a single chassis -
  108. what is a read hit - FINDING THE REQUEST DATA IN THE CACHE
  109. in an sc series array what does 80 in scv2080 represent - 84 DISKS
  110. which dell emc hardware option is a good match for vxflex os - POWEREDGE
  111. which storage solutio is recommended for large scale businesses -- SAN
  112. which is an open source software defined storage solution that delivers file based and block based storage services ---NEXENTA
  113. which front end cabling method protects against the failure of a switch-- DUAL FABRIC FIBER CHANNEL
  114. what type of raid writes data to at least two disks then mirrors that data to another set of disks. --- RAID 10
  115. what are the strategies used to ensure that data is recoverable in the event of a disaster -- REPLICATION AND SNAPSHOT
  116. what software is installed on every xc series system - BOTH NUTANIX
  117. on most hardware where are led indicators located -- FRONT AND BACK
  118.  
  119. creating an exact copy of the data on a different storage array to ensure business continuity in the event of disaster is called what ? - REPLICATION
  120. which compoennts make up the front end of a san - not only servers
  121. which feature provides an end to end management solution for the xc series - NUTANIX PRISM
  122. what are the types of zoning - ALL BUT SC ZONING
  123. what types of storage media are supported with vxflex os - HDD SDD PCIE
  124. A side and B sude refer to what - BACKEND SAS CABLING
  125. which components make up the back end of a san - ENCLOSURE AND DISKS
  126. of the disk technologies which provides the fastest performance - SSD
  127. which vxrail model is designed as an entry level system - E
  128. which of these are block based protocols - not all - not sas and iscsi
  129. which is the entry level ps series array - not ps6210 - not m4110
  130. which storage line is paired with nutanix software ? - XC SERIES
  131. what type of storage is file based and accessible to users with the right credential? - NAS
  132. which component of vxflex os manages the local storage that contributes to the storage pools? - not vxflex os storage data client
  133. what forms the foundation of the ps series architechture - GROUPS POOLS AND MEMBERS
  134. which are hyper converged storage platforms - XC SERIES + VXRAIL
  135. how many switches are required to support dual fabric fibre channel - 2
  136. what is cold data - DATA THAT HAS NOT BEEN ACCESSED FOR AND AMOUNT OF TIME
  137. which of these are file based protocols - NFS AND SMB CIFS
  138. which front end cabling method protects against the failure of a switch - DUAL FABRIC FIBRE CHANNEL
  139. which elements comprise the vmware software stack - VCENTER SERVER - VMWARE VSAN - VSPHERE
  140. which ps series software provides features like volume snapshots cloning and replication - not manual transfer utility
  141. what are three basic interconnectivity options supported by fibre channel architecture - P2P FC SW AND FC AL
  142. which of hese are licensed features of the sc series storage arrays - DATA PROGRESSION FAST TRACK AND DATA PROGRESSION (BUT SOMETHING IS MISSING)
  143. the vxflex os meta data manager holds user data - FALSE
  144. a fru can be replaced by a dell emc technician or the costumer - FALSE
  145. frequently accessed data is kept on the hdd tier while cold data is migrated to the ssd tier - FALSE
  146. which virtualization product allows live migration for powered on virtual machines in the same data center VSPHERE VMOTION
  147. which component of vxflex os allows administrators to configure and monitor the os - MDM
  148. which color led may be indicating a problem - AMBER
  149. Which of sc series models is no longer being sold but still exists in many costumer environments - SC 8000
  150. which vsan feature provides data protection from dis or node failure - ERASURE CODING+
  151. what is converged storage: COLLAPSING
  152. which of these are dell emc san solutions - not all
  153. when cabling between two enclosures which is a best practices - FROM 1 TO 2
  154. which tool allows you to generate service documentation for certain legacy emc models - not scos
  155. What are parts that require a system outage during installation called - NON HOT SWAPABLE
  156. which of these are storage drive interfaces - SATA SAS AND NEAR LINE SAS
  157. vxflex os uses direct attached storage - TRUE
  158. what type storage networks are supported by nexentastor os - SAN AND NAS ONLY
  159. what are the two different types of vxflex os nodes - 1U1N AND 2U1N
  160. what is the minimun number od nodes required to form a cluste in nutanix ? - 3
  161. which nexenta feature breaks data inot pieces that are reassembled when thte data is needed - QUICK ERASURE CODING
  162. when cabling from a controller to an enclosure which is the best practice - not from 1 to 2
  163. what are considered software defined storage platforms : - not xc+nexenta+vxflex
  164. which dell emc product is a softwareonly solution that suses lan and existin local storage to create a virtual san - VXFLEX
  165. which layer in the it infrastructure houses applications such as web servers, databases and apps - COMPUTE
  166. in the idrac ui the support assist collection feature is found under wich main heading -- MAINTENANCE
  167. tpm 2.0 is backward compatible with tpm 1.2--- FALSE
  168. when setting costumer expectations for on site diagnosis call, what are the two key understandins they mut have --- IF POSSIBLE YOU WILL USE USB KEY & YOU WILL WORK WITH DELL SUPPORT
  169. oom 2.0 only supports androd and bluetooth 4.0 --- FALSE
  170. r740xd requires NVMe drives to be located in the rear drive bays --- FALSE
  171. choose the form factor available for PERC H840 - ADAPTER
  172. If a system equipped with a GPU and mid tray, it requires only santard cooling fans to maintain a proper system air flow --- FALSE
  173. What action is needed to enter perc bios during the boot process --- CTRL + R
  174. idrac direct usb on the front of a 14g server is now a micro b slot, and is hard wired to idrac only for increased security --- TRUE
  175. in a m1000e, a m830 full- height server uses wich slots ---
  176. the battery backup for the ndvdimms is used for --- ALLOWING THE SYSTEM TO SAVE NVDIMM DATA IN EVENT OF POWER LOSS
  177. roughly one half the power is available to the m1000e when uysing 110v ac power and the cmc needs to be updated in order to calculate the appropriate power budget values --- TRUE
  178. the poweredge fd-332 is a --- HALF WIDTH STORAGE SLED
  179. the cpu in 14g servers is identical to the CPU in the 13g servers ---FALSE
  180. in reference to the poweredge systems cmc stand for --- CHASSIS MANAGMENT CONTROLLER
  181. when you back up the server profile using either the lifecycle controller or the idrac8 web interface, the component configurations are backed up along with the bios and firmware revisions ----- TRUE
  182. on a server in a m1000e enclosure, wich hoy ky is use to access the lifecicle controller during the power on sequence --- F10
  183. the m1000e enclosure can use ethernet on fabrics A, B AND C --- TRUE
  184. if the idrac system lockdown mode is enables wich component cannot be accessed during the power on procedure ----
  185. quick solution manager is the debranded version of OMM. Wich of these features are not supported in quick solution manager ---- DEMO MODE
  186. the diagnostics utility can be accessed via the following options --- BOOT MANAGER -- LIFECYCE CONTROLLER
  187. when discussing block level communication in a storage environment, the initiator is the device that initiates communication with a target --- TRUE
  188. easy restore can restore wich of the following information sets ---- ALL BUT OS
  189. default password is randomly generated and printed on the system information tag, unless the legacy "root/calvin" was ordered from factory --- TRUE
  190. which hard drive configuration is not supported by the poweredge r730xd--- 812
  191. poweredge r940 supports only 3u rack form factor -- TRUE
  192. the led on the dirac quick sync 2 indicator blinks white five times rapidly and then turns off. what does that indicate --- INDICATES THAT THE IDRAC QUICK SYNC 2 FEATURE IS DISABLED
  193. which events can trigger a cmc failover--- THE NETWORK CABLE IS REMOVED - A CMC FIRMWARE UPDATE - THE ACTIVE CMC IS DISCONNECTED
  194. flexadress alows the cmc to assign WWN/MAC addresses to a particular slot and override the wever factory address --- TRUE
  195. What will happen during the cmc failvoer period or during a single cmc management loss --- } ALL OF THEM
  196. the dell dss 7000 chassis has the capacity for how many hard drives ----90
  197. any given lto drive can read its own generation of tape and the previous two generations of tape ----TRUe
  198. there is no mixing of psu in a single 14g system if a costumer attempts to plug in a 12g or a 13g ----- TRUE
  199. Which heatsink is supported on the dell emc poweredge t640 ----2 PIPE
  200. choose the three correct answers regarding dell entry level nx nas appliances --- WHEN REPLACING ---- DELL ---- ENTRY LEVEL THAT ENDS WITH SERVER
  201. the idrac secure default password can be restored by the costumer permanently --- FALSE
  202. in the vrtx enclosure two perc8 cards are required if you have more than 12 shared storage disks isntalled---- FALSE
  203. in a dual cmc enclosure wich is the active cmc - EITHER CAN TAKE ACTIVE ROLE
  204. nvme drives require an s140 controller for raid functionality --- TRUE
  205. in audl cmc enclosure either of the cmcs can take the active role - TRUE
  206. which of this products does not have a cmc --- 630
  207. The virtual reset feature of the cmc enables you to physically remove and the reinsert nodes--- FALSE
  208. which of the following interfaces can you use if you were to perform the initial network configuration for cmc before it has an ip adress--- LCD PANEL - DELL CMC CONSOLE
  209. easy restore is afeature on a poweredge r620 --- FALSE
  210. select the correct definition for the term fabric in networking --- A METHOD OF ENCODING TRANSPORTING AND SYNC
  211. the video capture function fund in the troubleshooting section ----- 3
  212. wich items components are physically located on the crtx planer---
  213. running a virtual ac cycle will - TEMPORARILY DISCONNECT ALL POWER
  214. choose the safe place for esd sensitive items -
  215. a support assist collection needs to be gathered from a system
  216. the 14g wave 1 systems include ----R640, R740, R740xd, R940 and C6420 models
  217. when comparing dss 1500/1510 and dss 2500 servers to their similar poweredges they have - BMC INSTED OF IDRAC AND FEWER FRONT PANEL FEATURES
  218. on active common backplanes can nvme drives can be installed in any slot ? -- FALSE
  219. What is used to configure the shared perc8 in the vrtx enclosure - CMC
  220. the internal fans located within the poweR -- FALSE
  221. the r940 does not have support for internal storage --- TRUE
  222. the dell lifecycle controller simplifies server lifecycle management -- TRUE
  223. the boss module is used for os installs only -- TRUE
  224. high line and low line power are more commonly referred to as 220v and 110v- TRUE
  225. which of the following statements are true about idsdm -- DUAL SD NOT REQUIRED - RAID 1
  226. when replacing a system board assembly on a poweredge c6220 it is not neccesary to power down the whole chassis --- TRUE
  227. the poweredge r640 supports 3.5 hard drives-- TRUE
  228. of the following choices choose the one considered embedded diagnostics -- EPSA
  229. dss 2500 servers are most easily compared to wich poweredge server -- R530
  230. choose the false answer regarding tpm 2.0 -- TPM IS BACKWARD COMPATIBLE
  231. select the tools required to service poweredge c6220 ----
  232. the fans in the fx2 enclosure are controlled by the server node which powers up first---FALSE
  233. how many hot swappable fan modules can the dell networking z9500 switch support on the utility side ---- 5
  234. choose the correct answers regarding hot swapping a chassis fan on the dss 7000 - THERE IS A 2 MINUTE LIMIT - THERE IS NO FAN GUARD
  235. to access the idrac ui from within the os the following addresses can be used ----
  236. the 13g hard drive carrier is physically different with 14g hard drive carrier but is compatible with 14g systems --- FALSE
  237. What are the differences between 13g and 14g memory channels --- 6 VS 4
  238. both cpu1 and cpu2 cold plates on poweredge c6420 are installed and remove as a single assemblu --- TRUE
  239. prior to installing supportassist for servers you should --- GET COSTUMER PERMISSION
  240. DSS 1500 1510 servers are most easily compared to wich poweredge server- R430
  241. what is the maximun number of fd332 units that can be isntalled in a fx2 enclosure --- 3
  242. when adding poweredge server nodes to an fx2 enclosure you must calculate how many fans you need to install in the fx2 --- FALSE
  243. on a server in a m1000e enclosure, which hot key is use to access the lifecyle controller during the poweron sequence --- F10
  244. what raid level is supported on boos -- RAID 1
  245. what is the correct statement concerning dset on 14g poweredge server--NOT SUPPORTED
  246. NVDIMMS can be used as a speed boost for regular system memory--FALSE
  247. for poweredge vrtx m1000e fx2 it is recommended to isolate chassis management from the data network due to --CMC COMM DELAY AND POTENTIAL TRAFFIC
  248. what are the two led indicator icons available on 14g hard drive carrier -- ACTIVITY AND SATUS
  249. choose the false answer regarding the dss 7500 paddle boards ----
  250. how many nvme devices can a dell emc poweredge t640 support up to ---- 8
  251. support live image ---- IS EXECUTED FROM A USB KEY -- CONTAINS A VARIETY OF DIAGNOSTIC TOOLS FOR SERVER -- IS SELF
  252. choose the true answer regardin to perc --- ALLOWS PHYSICAL EXCHANGE OR ADDITION
  253. the poweredge r640 supports 3,5 hard drives --- TRUE
  254. the r640 has support for the following backplanes ---
  255. you can insert and remove switches to from the current stack without cycling the power --- TRUE}
  256. what are the 3 types of heatsinks that are supported on dell emc powerege r740xd --- 1U STANDARD - 1U PERFORMANCE - 2U
  257. with stackable switches wich command is used to push firmware from the master unit to all units in the stack --- console# copy image unit all
  258. after replacing the system board for a poweredge r720 the costumer asks you to restore their idrac license but does not havie it ---
  259. the poweredge r740 support 1,8 hard drives ---FALSE
  260. the led on the idrac direct led indicator is flashing green on for 2 seconds off for 2 seconds --- THE LAPTOP IS RECOGNIZED
  261. how many full-height full length pcie cards are supported in the vrtx enclosure -- 3
  262. which items components are physically located on the vrtx planer
  263. looking at the poweredge r730 reference course, idrect front panel access to the idrac is accessible using a ---- TYPE A TO A USB
  264. nvdimms can be installed in any memory slot in the r740xd --- FALSE
  265. if a costumer permanently erases the idrac secure default password how can it be retrieved ---
  266. which is the correct statement regardin ism --- INTERNAL NETWORK WHICH RESIDES ON THE OS
  267. what is the maximun number of psm4110 units that can be isntalled in a m1000e enclosure- 4
  268. high performance fans are required on r540 system with 12 x 3,5 ... ---TRUE
  269. easy restore is a feature that backs system board firmware and settings on most 13g poweredge servers ....which additional information is backed up and restored automatically---
  270. using a wireless sd strap is acceptable - FALSE
  271. to help data centers provision power for their chassis, the m100e, vrtx and fx2 allow you to specify a _ to ensure overall chassis ac ... --SYSTEM INPUT POWER CAP
  272. evaluate the following scenario a new tpm module is dispatched along with a system board because the original system is configured with tpm. the field engineer nees to isntall the new tpm chip after sstem board replacement---- TRUE
  273. the internal fans located on the poweredge chassis provide coolign for ---STORAGE DEVICES , PERC AND PCIE
  274. the poweredge fx2 is a - 2U RACK BASED HYBRID
  275. how many intrusion switches does the dss 7000 chassis have
  276. what is the maximum number of server nodes available in a single fx2 enclosure - not 16
  277. it is highly recommended to place insulators near your work area prior to opening a system -- FALSE
  278. on a m1000e to provide power supply redundancy the correct configuration of the power supplies woiuld be ----- 3+1
  279. pcie reassignment in poweredge vrtx is established using the following component- CMC
  280. nvme is direct cpu attached on the following systems -- not r740
  281. according to the poweredge r920 reference course critical callouts section
  282. r740 one cpu fan configuration -SIX PERFORMANCE FANS
  283. The direct liquid cooling configuration will occupy which of the following slot on poweredge c6420 - not power supply
  284. a r740xd populated with 24 sas drives is supported with the following options -- not no rear or midtray
  285. a r740 lost power supply upon reboot the system is now displaying an error that the nvdimms are read only, what is the issue - not faulty nvdimm neither faulty battery
  286. which of the following are new features for the idrac direc in 14g - MICRO USB AND LED FOR IDRAC DIRECT
  287. what does on site diagnosis provide to the costumer - not all
  288. if you plug low line power into a single 2000w power supply how many watts would you see being used -- 1000watts
  289. cpu and heatsing have one part number as they are contained in one module - FALSE
  290. how many half height server modules can power edge vrtx support -- 4
  291. which options are correct for the m1000e enclosure - not all
  292. what is the maximum number of psm4110 units that can e installed ina m1000e enclosure - not 8
  293. when you back up the server profile using either the lifecycle controller or the idrac8web interface the component configurations are backed up along with the bios and firmware revisions -TRUE
  294. lifecycle controller firmware update allows user to roll back to a previousle installed version of component firmwate such as - -- BIOS
  295. looking at the poweredge r430 reference , what are the pre removal parts when tou are removing the internal dual sd module -- not only cover
  296. to provide a 2ยด+0 power supply configuration in a fx2 enclosure the correct configuration of the power supplies would be - NO REDUNDANCY
  297. referring to the m1000e m series io fabric reference material select all possible io fabric available for the upgrade of a fibre channel mezzanine card -B AND C
  298. which commom feature is not available on the perc10 - HBA MODE
  299. while a virtual ac cycle is being performed you will lose communication with the IDRAC for a short time. TRUE
  300. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS FALSE ABOUT TPM - TPM CHIP ON PIM WILL BE ALREADY ISNTALLED ON THE REPLACEMENT SYSTEM BOARD
  301.  
  302. name the tool that can successfully repair and ignore defective - memrx
  303. if the system is not booting into the operting system how can you check if the hard drive is detected - go to bios
  304. what is bios autorecovery
  305. how will the dell command utility update help costumers - dell firmware download
  306. when to use rtc reset --to recover from to post no boot
  307. on dell venue pro tablets or latitude portable systems - press power button before the dell logo is displayed , press volume down
  308. to prevent cpu pings from being bent - zif and esd
  309. before replacing lcd -- run epsa and if system boots
  310. basic guideline followed by all commercial products --- sub brand + model name + form factor
  311. what are the key functions of bios -- activate , identify, test
  312. the lcd has passed the bist but there is still a video problem ---- lcd cable, inverter board, system board
  313. how do you perform a latitude self heal recovery -- unplug the ac adapter , disconnect coin, release flea power, plug in
  314. if epsa passes the hard drive test an still the system does not load the os ----corrup or missing os
  315. how will you initiate epsa in a dell system --- f12
  316. what does factory data reset do on a dell venue tablet --- will erase all personal data and downloadaded apps on the tablet
  317. what are the ideal temperatures of the cpu and gpu in their ideal state --- below 30
  318. which of the following is the correct way to trigger bios recovery 2 ---- ctrl + esc
  319. what is bios autorecovery -- bios integrity from , automatic
  320. how should the technicians handle the pcvs while dismantling or repackaging them --- from the edges sides
  321. which of the followingg statements are true about the new psu bist --- to start, to restart, ensure
  322. which of the following statements are true about latitude self heal recover - whhen, before, upon
  323. on a windows 10 system, what will you do after replacing the system board ---- enter the 5x5 digital product key and hand over the digital product key card to the customer-
  324. which key is used to access the one time boot menuwhile restarting the computer --- f12
  325. how to initiate rtc reset --- connect system to an ac power , keep the system in a power off state, press and hold the power button
  326. identify dells product portfolios ---- all
  327. the bios recovery 2 does not support recovery from select the correct responses and clicl submit --- hard disk drive with password set , encrypted hard drive
  328. if the system is not booting into the operating system , how can you check if the hard drive is deteted - go to bios
  329. which is the easiest way to verify the functionality of system board --- by removing the memory modle
  330. identify different types of memory modules -- ddr3, ddr4, ddr2, ddr, ddr3l
  331. bios recovery 2 from hard drive option can be disabled in --- bios
  332. items that are not affected by the rtc reset -- admin password, ownership tag, asset tag, service tag, system password
  333. what is the status of the power led when a system board failure has occures --- blinking 2,6
  334. to preserve bios settings before recovering it, usser need to - bios setting is automaticaly saved
  335. you are fixing a computer running on windows 8.1 and it is not booting--- enable legacy options, enable secure boot, change boot mode to uefy
  336. which has been root caused to a faulty mb ---- replacement motherboard will be dispatched together with windows universal replacement dpk which will be used for activations
  337. which of the following are valid steps in launching epsa diagnostics --- power up the systems and press f12 + use the up and down arrow keys to select diagnostics
  338. what does the occasional orange discoloration of a processors package lands indicate --- no impact on performace quality or reliabilty
  339. pc doctor usb solution offers - individual diagnostics, windows test, does test
  340. which image will the bios recovery 2 tool select ---recovery image from external usb key
  341. which dell diagnostic tool can be used as a troubleshooting tool when the system fails to boot into the os --- epsa
  342. select all the steps involved in unpacking parts -- all
  343. when would you run the rma shim tool on a chromebook -- in the evnet of system board replacement
  344. how do you enable bios autorecovery -- click maintenance under bios settings, select bios recovery, check bios auto recovery
  345. identify different types of displays ----led, tft, eld, crt,
  346. what is thermal grease - processor and heatsink
  347. when encountered with a no post situation what must technicians do prior to replacing the suspected failed part - reseat, rerun, capture
  348. which of the following platform uses both key and button sequence trigger --- detachable , convertible
  349.  
  350.  
  351.  
  352. choose all that apply: selec the two main types of esd damage --- latent defect catastrophic failure
  353. what is bonding - electric potential
  354. choose all that apply: indetify the required skills to provide better customer support? --- empathy good communication skills positive attitude Y ALGO MAS - not all but vigilance
  355. choose all that apply what are the services provided by on-site diagnostic service call-- all but provide diagnosis
  356. Which tool is used for antenna connector removal on IOT gateway and embedded computers -- 5.5 8 10 12 open end wrench or pliers
  357. how do you avoid losing data while turning off your computer which has windows 10 -- close all open files and exit all open programs
  358. which tool is recommended for small square and hex nuts? - not the hex drivers , not 7/16, not 5.5
  359. choose all that apply what are the types of scheduling errors - all but net business day service call scheduled
  360. select all cases encountered onsite when it is necessarily too call your back office dispatcher tech support dsp call center-- all but the client is computer illiterate
  361. when setting customer expectations what are two key understandings they must have - not all but not dell hardware, not all not all but even software
  362. prior to installing support assist for servers you should - get costumer or dell technical supports permission
  363. choose the services provided by on site diagnosis osd select all that apply -- all but automatically creates dispatches for onsite labour
  364. what is the porpouse of cidar - detect and process damage cases
  365. martha looks visibly upset with the previous service calls - eager and caring
  366. for standby powered dell products why should the technician wait after unplugging the system and before removing components - to allow the charge to drain from the circuis
  367. martha vents her bad customer experience - show empathy by hearing her out
  368. what is the recommended method to disconnect a cable - pull on its connector or its pull tab
  369. what is the minimum distance that insulators should be placed away from the work area prior to opening the system - not none of these answers, not 6 inches, not distance does not matter
  370. choose the different ways to prevent static damage - before , handle and use
  371. martha has finished her story and appears to have calmed down a bit - begin resolving the issue
  372. what action must be taken if unsure about complete care accidental damage call type --- report cid to dell ts
  373. choose all that appl: indetify aquisitions made by dell -- alienware ,questsoftware ,emc,compellent, perot, sonicwall,boomi
  374. choose all that apply list the key aspects involved in dell installations service call process - all
  375. select the key aspects of esd packaging - all
  376. if properl configured supportassit can- all
  377. choose all that apply what are the types of scheduling errors- all but next businesss dat
  378. which tool is recommended for handling eclips circlips and rollpins in tight places - hemostats
  379. how frequent should the esd wrist strap and bonding wire be tested? - once a week
  380. select all the basic safety precautions to be taken before you perform any installarion or - all
  381. choose all that apply list all the doa policy compliance criteria - not must doa repeat
  382. choose all that apply list all the main components of a field service kit - all but plastic scribe
  383. indentify the required skills to provide better costumer support - not sympathy positive attitude good communication skills empathy
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