Ques. #	Answer		Ques. #	Answer		Ques. #	Answer
1	A		33	B		65	C
2	C		34	A		66	A
3	B		35	D		67	C
4	A		36	A		68	C
5	A		37	C		69	A
6	D		38	B		70	B
7	B		39	C		71	D
8	D		40	B		72	D
9	B		41	A		73	A
10	A		42	B		74	C
11	A		43	D		75	D
12	C		44	B		76	B
13	C		45	A		77	A
14	A		46	C		78	A
15	C		47	B		79	A
16	B		48	C		80	B
17	A		49	B		81	D
18	C		50	A		82	B
19	A		51	C		83	C
20	D		52	A		84	C
21	B		53	C		85	B
22	C		54	C		86	A
23	B		55	A		87	D
24	A		56	D		88	A
25	D		57	A		89	A
26	B		58	A		90	B
27	B		59	C		91	D
28	A		60	C		92	C
29	D		61	C		93	A
30	B		62	A		94	B
31	C		63	B		95	C
32	D		64	D		96	A




Module 2 – Lesson 1

1.     Why is software testing necessary?
a.     To ensure that the delivered application given to the client or end-users meets the established functional and technical requirements.
b.     To predict the return of the investment of the solution which will help the client determine whether to accept or reject the application.
c.     To perform verification on all applications that are developed in order to comply with industry standards.
d.     To derive functional and technical requirements from the client which helps create a more detailed and accurate design document for developers.


2.     A Project Team is working on an engagement where they need to plan, prepare, and execute Assembly, Product, and Performance Tests on an application that was developed by another company. The client wants the Project Team to independently handle the testing to ensure high quality of test.
According to Accenture Delivery Methods (ADM), which type of testing is described?
a.     Rapid Testing
b.     Embedded Testing
c.     Discrete Testing
d.     Risk-based Testing


3.     Which objective should a Tester accomplish when prioritizing testable deliverables?
a.     To identify application features or modules where there is a great density of defects.
b.    To test all high risk areas and meet the technical and functional requirements of the project.
c.     To test all risks, regardless of probability, and provide stakeholders with status updates on the impacts.
d.     To identify interfaces which may affect the credibility of the Application Under Test.


4.     Which Discipline outlines the roles of the Project Team and the Client Team, as well as the responsibility each role has regarding the relevant test streams?
a.     Plan Test
b.     Execute Test
c.     Prepare Test
d.     Design Test


Module 2 – Lesson 2

5.     A Test Manager would like to review the Test Approach documents created by the Test Leads to validate information from the input document of these approaches.
Which work product should the Test Manager refer to according to the Accenture Testing Framework?
a.     Testing Strategy
b.     Testing Implementation
c.     Testing Requirements
d.     Testing Traceability


6.     What is the importance of the Test Stages section in the Test Strategy document?
a.     It identifies the different Testing Tools that are available for the project.
b.     It indicates the end date of the project.
c.     It specifies the leadership composition of the project.
d.    It lists various tests to be performed as part of the project scope.


7.     Whom should the Testing Team hand over the Testing Strategy to in order to gain stakeholder approval?
a.     Test Lead
b.    Client Team
c.     Deployment Engineer
d.     Development Team


8.     What are the three chronological tasks a Test Lead need to follow per Accenture Delivery Methods, while preparing the Testing Strategy?
a.     Review Release Approach, Refine Testing Strategy, and Test Release Management
b.     Requirement Traceability Matrix, Refine Testing Strategy, and Obtain Stakeholder Agreement
c.     Review Release Approach, Test Data Management, and Obtain Stakeholder Agreement
d.    Review Release Approach, Refine Testing Strategy, and Obtain Stakeholder Agreement


Module 3 – Lesson 1

9.     What is the purpose of the Analyze Test discipline?
a.     To define the Test Strategy of the project.
b.    To define the Test Approach for all major test streams.
c.     To create the Test Scripts for all of the business functionality identified.
d.     To create the Test Closure Memo which describes what occurs during testing.


10.  The Scope and Test Strategy of a project has been defined and approved. The Test Lead needs to prepare the Test Approach document to:
·         test assembly, interactions, and combined operation of related components
·         test end-to-end business requirements across all applications and platforms
·         test whether the business requirements are met by each individual application
Which Test Streams require a Test Approach Document?
a.     Assembly Test, Application Product Test, and Integration Product Test
b.     Application Product Test, Integration Product Test, and Regression Test
c.     Assembly Test, Integration Product Test, and Regression Test
d.     Integration Product Test, Regression Test, and Operational Acceptance Test


Module 3 – Lesson 2

11.  Which requirement statement is testable?
a.     The account creation and modification response time should be within 10 seconds for 100 simultaneous users performing register, update, and delete account information transactions.
b.     The response time for the mostly used transactions should be under 10 seconds for a minimum of 10 users and a maximum of 750 users who are accessing the website’s different pages.
c.     The website should be performing fast enough when more than 1,000 users log-in simultaneously to access the portal’s features and advertisements.
d.     The system response time of the website when less than 100 users access it should be very fast, and register, update, and delete account information transactions should be processed smoothly.


12.
Which information would a Tester reference in the Requirements and Traceability (PL101) work product content below to complete the vertical traceability of the Update User Profile requirement?
a.     BREQ 02.17.1.2
b.     Application Functionality
c.     SOW
d.     Entry Update


Module 3 – Lesson 3

13.  The testing stages in scope for a project, according to the Test Strategy work product are:
·         Assembly Test
·         Application Product Test
·         Performance Test
How many Test Approach work product(s) is/are expected to be produced by the project given this information?
a.     One Test Approach work product is needed because the details were already written in the Test Strategy work product.
b.     Two Test Approach work products are needed because a Performance Test is categorized as Non-Functional Testing and will not need a Test Approach.
c.     Three Test Approach work products are needed to detail the approaches of the enumerated testing stages in the Test Strategy work product.
d.     There is no need to have a Test Approach work product, as the Test Strategy work product already details the information required.


14.  A Test Lead is preparing a Test Approach document for their project.
What is identified in the Stage Containment/Test Model section?
a.     Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Regression Testing considerations.
b.     Entry Criteria, Test Teams, and Test Team Roles and Responsibilities.
c.     Entry Criteria, Test Teams, and Service Level Agreements.
d.     Entry Criteria, Exit Criteria, and Defect Estimates.
Module 3 – Lesson 4

15.  Which testing stage is the first point where a solution’s functional and business requirements are tested together?
a.     Unit Test
b.     Assembly Test
c.     Product Test
d.     Deployment Test


16.  An enhancement is introduced to a system that is already running without errors in production. The company that owns the system hires Accenture to test the functionalities that may be negatively affected due to the change introduced.
Which type of testing should Accenture implement?
a.     Deployment Testing
b.    Regression Testing
c.     Context-Driven Testing
d.     Unit Testing


17.  What is the purpose of the Integration Product Test?
a.     To test the end-to-end business requirements across all applications and platforms.
b.     To test if the business requirements are met by each individual application.
c.     To test the assembly, interactions, and combined operation of related components.
d.     To test the changes that are introduced into the system and to confirm that they do not affect the existing functionality.


Module 3 – Lesson 5

18.  Which type of testing stage is considered non-functional?
a.     Application Product Testing
b.     Integration Product Testing
c.     Operational Acceptance Testing
d.     User Acceptance Testing


19.  The infrastructure of a system is designed to handle a maximum of 1,500 users that register and update account transactions. During the Performance Testing stage, a Tester simulates 1,750 users registering and updating their accounts to understand how the system should perform.
Which type of performance test did the Tester implement?
a.     Stress Test
b.     Baseline Test
c.     Batch Test
d.     Load Test


20.  A Tester ensures that system performance issues are addressed before the system goes live. Which type of testing is this considered?
a.     Deployment Testing
b.     Usability Testing
c.     Functional Testing
d.    Non-Functional Testing
Module 4 – Lesson 1

21.  What is one of the goals of Test Design?
a.     To execute the automated test scripts against the application under test.
b.    To transform system requirements into tangible test conditions.
c.     To define a Test Strategy to handle the overall testing implementation.
d.     To create Test Scripts out of Test Scenarios.


22.  A Tester is working on a website and tests the functionality of links, orphan links, and registration files. They discover issues by checking code and then continue to proceed with functional testing.
What type of testing is described?
a.     White Box Testing
b.     Black Box Testing
c.     Grey Box Testing
d.     Static Testing


23.  Which form of testing is a Black Box design technique?
a.     Statement Testing
b.    Use Case Testing
c.     Error-guessing Testing
d.     Usability Testing


Module 4 – Lesson 2

24.  A Tester designs test conditions for an establishment’s entry system that allows access only to people who are between the ages of 18 and 35.
Which set of ages belong to an invalid class?
a.     15, 17
b.     18, 19
c.     34, 35
d.     34, 36


25.  A switch is turned off when the temperature in a room falls below 18 degrees Celsius and it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21 degrees Celsius.
When the temperature is more than 21 degrees Celsius, what are the equivalence values that belong to the same class?
a.     12, 16, 22, 21
b.     14, 15, 19, 20
c.     24, 27, 17, 15
d.    22, 23, 24, 25



26.  A program validates a numeric field as follows:
·         values less than 10 are rejected
·         values between 10 and 21 are accepted
·         values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
Which input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a.     3, 9, 20, 21
b.    3, 10, 22, 24
c.     10, 11, 21, 22
d.     10, 15, 21, 22


Module 4 – Lesson 3

27.  The fan of an air conditioning system in a lecture room changes its speed depending on the number of people inside. Below are the speeds of the fan:
·         Off – 0 people in the room
·         Slow – 1 to 5 people in the room
·         Medium – 6 to 10 people in the room
·         High – 11 to 15 people in the room
If a Tester is designing a test using Boundary Value Analysis that is specific to the “Slow” speed of the fan, what are the boundary values that should be used in the test conditions?
a.     -1, 0, 1, 14, 15, 16
b.    0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
c.     1, 5, 6, 10, 11, 15
d.     4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11


28.  What are the boundary values that a tester needs to consider when conducting the Boundary Value Analysis technique?
a.     (minimum -1), (minimum), (minimum +1), and (maximum -1), (maximum), (maximum +1)
b.     (minimum), (minimum +1) and (maximum , (maximum +1)
c.     (minimum), (minimum +1), (middle value), and (maximum), (maximum -1)
d.     (minimum), (middle value) and (maximum)


29.  An input field accepts values between 1900 and 2004. What are the boundary values for testing this field?
a.     0, 1900, 1901, 2004, 2005, 2003, 2000
b.     0, 1900, 2004, 2005, 2007, 2008
c.     1899, 1900, 2004, 2005
d.    1899, 1900, 1901, 2003, 2004, 2005



Module 4 – Lesson 4

30.  A Tester tests the functionality of a resort website. The website indicates that visitors will be given a different badge color depending on their interests. A visitor who wants to swim in the pool will be given a blue badge, a visitor who wants to go for a horseback ride will be given a green badge, and visitor who wants to eat and relax in the restaurant will be given a red badge.
Which testing technique should a Tester use to test the conditions of interest and the corresponding badge color assigned?
a.     Boundary Value Analysis
b.    Decision Table
c.     Equivalence Partitioning
d.     Test Approach


31.  Given the Decision Table below, which lists the Monthly Tariffs of a Daycare System, what is the Test Condition and Expected Result?

a.     Test Condition: 7 month-old baby visiting daycare for 3 hours.
Expected Results: Daycare will charge 10000.
b.     Test Condition: 7 Year-old child visiting daycare for 3 hours.
Expected Results: Daycare will charge 2000.
c.     Test Condition: 4 Year-old child visiting day care for 4 hours.
Expected Results: Daycare will charge 3000.
d.     Test Condition: 8 Year-old child visiting day care for 1 hour.
Expected Results: Daycare will charge 3000.



Module 4 – Lesson 5

32.  Which statement describes a scenario where Use Case Testing is performed in a project?
a.     An application can easily handle 500 users logged in at the same time.
b.     The username and password to login the application is secured.
c.     An application automatically signs off if the user is inactive for more than 30 minutes.
d.    A user logs in to the application, changes his password, and logs off.


33.  A Business Analyst provides a Use Case for the functionality of a vending machine to a Tester and states, “The vending machine dispenses small items such as food, drinks, or chocolate bars when a coin or token is inserted by the user.”
Which interaction does the Use Case define?
a.     Business Analyst and System
b.    System and Actor
c.     Actor and Business Analyst
d.     System and Tester


Module 4 – Lesson 6

34.  A Testing Team completes testing and the Requirement Traceability Matrix shows 100% test coverage. After the tested code is delivered to production, the Test Manager realizes that the major functionality of a code change was not tested.
Which stage of testing should have indicated this mistake?
a.     Design Test Discipline
b.     Test Execution Discipline
c.     Support Test Discipline
d.     Analyze Test Discipline


35.  Which step is part of Test Design as per Accenture Delivery Methods?
a.     Creating operations manuals and training materials
b.     Ensuring 100% requirement coverage
c.     Setting-up common test data
d.    Refining test cycles and performing peer reviews


Module 4 – Lesson 7

36.  How should a Tester approach a complex test scenario?
a.     Break it down into test cases and expected results, and test each of them.
b.     Test it as a complex test case and include all possible test check points.
c.     Highlight the differences between the current and last releases to the client.
d.     Test it as the last requirement of the release to make sure nothing is missed.




37.  What is the base flow for the library system depicted in the Use Case Diagram below?

a.     1-2-3-4
b.     1-2-6-7-8
c.     1-2-6-7-9-10-11-13-14-15
d.     1-2-3-4-5-2-6-7-8-10-11-13-14-15


Module 4 – Lesson 8

38.  Which example meets the standards required for writing Test Conditions and Expected Results (TCER)?
a.     Test Condition: Click submit.
Expected Result: Navigates away.
b.    Test Condition: Click the “Submit” button found under the Password text field.
Expected Result: The page navigates away from the Login page and the Portal page displays.
c.     Test Condition: Click button.
Expected Result: The Portal page displays the modified information input from the Login page.
d.     Test Condition: Click the “Submit” button that is in the Login page.
Expected Result: It navigates away.



39.  A Tester creates the Test Conditions and Expected Results (TCERs) for an Online Store application and defines how the requirement is tested, as displayed in the table below:

Which type of values are used?

a.     Positive values
b.     Negative values
c.     Limit values
d.     Exception values



40.  Which Test Condition and Expected Result is Invalid based on the Use Case given below?

a.     Test Condition: Library card scanned; Library card information is valid.
Expected Result: Display the message, “Library card ID validated. Click the OK button to check account status.”
b.    Test Condition: Library card scanned; Library card validation failed on the third try.
Expected Result: Display the message, “Click the OK button to check account status.”
c.     Test Condition: Scan the book code; Book code validated for checkout.
Expected Result: Set Book Alarm to Disabled.
d.     Test Condition: Print receipt; Prink receipt after book is checked out.
Expected Result: Receipt is printed with User, Date of Issue, Due and other details.




41.  A Tester creates the Test Conditions and Expected Results (TCERs) for an Online Store application and defines how the requirement is tested, as displayed in the table below:

Scenario ID	Sub-Scenario ID	Description	Test Condition ID	Test Condition	Expected Results	Business Requirement ID
Online Store APT.AP212.001.TS		Successfully Create Customer Account
	1.01	Username Populated	OnlineStore.APT.AP212.001.TC	Customer enters username (valid)	Username entered successfully	AP212 – Main flow

Which test data values are used under normal processing?
a.     Positive values
b.     Negative values
c.     Limit values
d.     Exception values


Module 4 – Lesson 9

42.  A Project Manager wants to review the status and the complete details of the logical groupings of test scenarios and conditions being tested.
Which document should be referenced?
a.     Requirement Traceability Matrix
b.    Test Cycle Control Sheet
c.     Test Approach
d.     Test Strategy


43.  What does the calendar field indicate in the Test Cycle Control Sheet?
a.     When a particular test script will be approved.
b.     When a particular test result will be documented.
c.     When a particular test status will be updated.
d.    When a particular test script will be executed.


Module 4 – Lesson 10

44.  An Accenture team is trying to persuade a client to use a web-based IBM tool that offers comprehensive test planning, test construction, and test artifact management functions for their project engagement.
Which IBM tool is proposed?
a.     Unified Functional Tester
b.    Rational Quality Manager
c.     Rational Functional Tester
d.     Application Lifecycle Management



45.  What differentiates Accenture Test Case Designer from other tools which support Test Design?
a.     It generates testing artifacts from plain text requirement documents.
b.     It allows for comprehensive test planning, test construction, and test artifact management.
c.     It is a solution that organizes and manages all Test Stages.
d.     It is a web-based Test Management Tool.


46.  During which phase does an Accenture Test Case Designer semi-automate Test Scenario, and Test Condition and Expected Result (TCER)?
a.     Test Execution
b.     Test Support
c.     Test Design
d.     Test Analysis


Module 5 – Lesson 1

47.  What is the goal of Applied Statistics Technique?
a.     To analyze batch programs.
b.    To optimize test planning.
c.     To analyze program code.
d.     To optimize Defects Rejection.


48.  A Test Team is unsure how much they should test. In their current project, there are multiple pages of a web application that need to be tested and a single page contains more than ten million data combinations.
Which test design technique should be used to address these challenges?
a.     Discrete Statistics
b.     Performance Testing
c.     Applied Statistics
d.     Usability Testing


49.  A Test Team is unsure how much they should test. In their current project, there are multiple pages of a web application that need to be tested and a single page contains more than ten million data combinations.
How should a Tester address these challenges?
a.     Test all of the combinations and use proper test cycles per pass to ensure all defects are detected.
b.    Apply statistical algorithms to the test conditions and decide on an acceptable coverage.
c.     Assume a defect-free system and include this assumption in the Test Closure Memo.
d.     Disregard the modules that have less fields requiring data inputs.



50.  A team is using the Hexawise Tool for Test Design to test an online air ticketing system.
Given the table below, how are Destination, Class, and Type of Car classified?

Destination	USA	China
Class	First	Business
Type of Car	Luxury	Economy

a.     Parameters
b.     Values
c.     Requirements
d.     Conditions


51.  Which statement describes Hexawise?
a.     It is a Test Case Management tool.
b.     It is a Requirements Definition tool.
c.     It is a Software Test Design tool.
d.     It is a Defect Management tool.


Module 5 – Lesson 2

52.

A new application will be undergoing an Operational Readiness Test and the Black Box Testing Technique will be used to optimize the creation of the eight possible test cases. The test cases will be created using OS, CPU, and Protocol combinations that are listed below:

How many tests cases will be retained if a Tester utilizes the Pair Wise Testing Technique?
a.     4
b.     5
c.     6
d.     7


53.  A Tester investigates the root cause of a defect and discovers that it occurred due to a data entry error.
How is this type of defect classified?
a.     Region Defect
b.     Multi-mode Defect
c.     Isolated Defect
d.     Double Mode Defect



Module 6 – Lesson 1

54.  Why should a Tester run a small sample of tests in the Test Environment before starting Test Execution?
a.     To set up the Test Environment for Test Execution.
b.     To verify common Test Data for Test Execution.
c.     To prove that the Test Environment is stable.
d.     To verify the estimates for Test Execution.


55.  What is an input of the Test Script Document?
a.     Test Condition and Expected Results Document
b.     Test Cycle Control Sheet
c.     Test Scenario Document
d.     Test Approach Document


Module 6 – Lesson 2

56.  Why do Testers include Requirement IDs in a Test Script?
a.     To cross check the outcome of a test script step.
b.     To cross check the actions in a test script step.
c.     To verify the Test Scenario and the Test Conditions.
d.    To allow traceability of the conditions being tested.


57.  What is a component of a Test Script?
a.     Actual Results
b.     Test Scenarios
c.     Quality Metrics
d.     Test Conditions


58.  According to the Accenture Delivery Method, what does the Prerequisite Steps section of the Test Script include?
a.     Actions and Expected Results
b.     Actions and Requirements
c.     Test Data and Actions
d.     Test Data and Expected Results


Module 6 – Lesson 3

59.  During which phase of the Test Lifecycle is Test Data set-up included?
a.     Analyze Test Phase
b.     Design Test Phase
c.     Prepare Test Phase
d.     Execute Test Phase



60.  Given the following scenario, which is the negative test data?
“Enter the First Name of the User”
Prerequisite: The name should be between 6-8 characters long.
a.     macris
b.     paslove
c.     kh1j3l
d.     mal di


61.  Given the script below, what should be the value of Test Data 1, in order to execute Step 3?
Specification from the Data Dictionary: Test Data 1 should be a numeric value within the range of 10-13 digits.

Step No.	Test Condition ID	Action/Description	Input Data	Expected Result	Actual Result	Pass/Fail

1		Press “Update Profile” button		Update Profile Page should open

2		Enter Telephone number	Test Data 1	Values appear in the field

3		Press “Update” button		A pop-up message saying, “The telephone number entered is invalid” appears.

a.     3333338888888
b.     4354678978
c.     444444745
d.     878345678967


Module 6 – Lesson 4

62.  What should a Tester consider when they prepare integration product test scripts and data?
a.     A Risk-based Testing approach should be applied.
b.     Operational requirements should be validated.
c.     The Performance test activities should be planned.
d.     The Performance Engineering Framework should be referenced.


63.  Which activity should a Tester include during Test Preparation as per the Accenture Delivery Method?
a.     Prepare Test Approach
b.    Prepare Test Transaction Data
c.     Prepare Test Design
d.     Prepare Test Conditions



64.  How is the data-driven approach helpful during Test Automation?
a.     It assists with the preparation of common test data.
b.     It reduces the human effort required for testing.
c.     It decreases the repetition of running test scripts.
d.    It reduces the overall maintenance cost of testing.


Module 7 – Lesson 1

65.  A set of test data has been used by the Development Team during the Unit Testing phase. The same set of test data is expected to be used by the Test Team during Assembly Test and Product Test phases.
What is this set of test data called?
a.     Mock-up Data
b.     Local Test Data
c.     Common Test Data
d.     Random Test Data


66.  Which term refers to the setup of the software, hardware, and infrastructure of an application?
a.     Test Environment
b.     Test Modules
c.     Test Domain
d.     Test Metrics


Module 7 – Lesson 2

67.  A Tester faces an issue with the set-up of software, hardware, databases, networking components, and infrastructure that support the testing of an application based on project requirements.
Whom should the Tester contact?
a.     Testing Team Release Coordinator
b.     Quality Assurance Coordinator
c.     Test Data and Environment Coordinator
d.     Testing Team Project Coordinator


68.  During which Test Discipline of the Accenture Delivery Methods should the Test Data and Environment Management Approach be defined?
a.     Plan Test
b.     Design Test
c.     Analyze Test
d.     Execute Test



69.  A Test Data and Environment Coordinator is defining the Test Data and Environment Management Approach of a new application. They start by reviewing the Test Strategy to understand the type of data required by each test stream, and then review the use cases and other applications interacting within the system. Next, the Test Lead identifies how to obtain each type of data and the tools required to create and modify the data items.
What is the next step of Test Data and Environment Management Approach discipline as per Accenture Delivery Methods?
a.     Define the hardware and software for each test stream to enable Testers to perform testing activities.
b.     Define the approach to manage test data across the test streams.
c.     Define the processes for the management of hardware, applications, programs and the database of test environments.
d.     Define the processes for the management of connectivity and middleware of test environments.


Module 7 – Lesson 3

70.  A Testing Team is working on Agile Methodology and they have ten business reports that require Performance Testing. A Tester cannot run a single report, due to insufficient data in the test environment database, so the Team Lead calls for a data refresh.
Which step of the Prepare Test Environment discipline is described?
a.     Confirm Test Environment Requirements
b.    Establish and Validate the Test Environment
c.     Conduct Dry-Run Tests
d.     Perform Peer Review


71.  A Tester is responsible for creating test data for both functional and non-functional requirements. Before setting up the test data, the Tester reviews it for integrity, resolves data inconsistencies, manages the scope of data to ensure efficiency and completeness, and identifies and resolves issues related to bad data.
Which step under Prepare Test Environment discipline of Accenture Delivery Methods is addressed in the above scenario?
a.     Confirm Common Test Data Scope
b.     Identify Test Data Requirements
c.     Define Test data Management Approach
d.    Create Common Test Data


72.  Which activity of test data management is involved with the creation of common test data, as per Accenture Delivery Methods?
a.     Escalate the need of test data to management.
b.     Identify the types of data required for all testing streams.
c.     Update the test data section in the Test Strategy document.
d.    Identify and resolve issues concerning bad data.



Module 7 – Lesson 4

73.  What benefit does a Test Environment provide?
a.     Acts as a temporary back-up for the production system.
b.     Validates the usability and operability of the production system.
c.     Helps identify application changes to support organizational requirements.
d.     Confirms test data requirements.


74.  A Team Lead needs to confirm that all the test environments and test data requests are approved and dependencies considered. They also need to ensure that requests are complete, valid, and feasible in the “Go and No Go” checklist.
Which step of Manage Test Data and Environment discipline is addressed?
a.     Manage Request Completion
b.     Confirm Test Environment Requirements
c.     Review and Validate Data and Requirement Requests
d.     Manage Change of Environment During Test Execution


Module 7 – Lesson 5

75.  A Tester needs to use real time data from a Human Resources application to validate the performance of the business reports.
Which phase of the Test Data Management Approach should a Tester use?
a.     Data Maintenance
b.     Data Population
c.     Data Identification
d.    Data Acquisition


76.  Which phase of the Test Data Management Approach involves specifying data requirements, data types, data sources, and data dependencies across applications and interfacing systems?
a.     Data Conditioning
b.    Data Identification
c.     Data Population
d.     Data Acquisition


Module 8 – Lesson 1

77.  In addition to common test data and environment readiness, what other prerequisite does a Tester require to perform Test Execution?
a.     Test Scripts
b.     Defects
c.     Requirements
d.     Test Approach




78.  What is the other possible output of the Test Execution Process besides Change Requests and Test Closure Memos?
a.     Defects
b.     Test Scripts
c.     Requirements
d.     Test Approach


79.  What is the difference between the Verify Build and Execute Test Scripts tasks during Test Execution?
a.     Verify Build involves checking if the exit criteria for the previous phase is met, whereas Execute Test Scripts involves executing Test Cycles and Test Scripts.
b.     Verify Build involves executing Test Cycles and Test Scripts, whereas Execute Test Scripts involves checking if the exit criteria for the previous phase is met.
c.     Verify Build serves as a Smoke Test, whereas Execute Test Scripts involves checking if the exit criteria for the previous phase is met.
d.     Verify Build involves checking if the exit criteria for the previous phase is met, whereas Execute Test Scripts serves as a Smoke Test.


80.  A Test Lead provides frequent defect reports and contributes the testing-specific metrics as per the defined Delivery Excellence process.
Which task is performed?
a.     Reporting Defects
b.    Managing Defects
c.     Tracking Defects
d.     Logging Defects


81.  What differentiates Regression Testing from Retesting?
a.     Regression Testing checks that the reported defect has been fixed, whereas Retesting tests that there are no additional problems in the previously tested software.
b.     Regression Testing checks that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, whereas Retesting enables developers to isolate a problem.
c.     Regression Testing focuses on running Non-Functional tests only, whereas Retesting involves running new functional tests.
d.    Regression Testing checks that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, whereas Retesting demonstrates that reported defects are fixed.


Module 8 – Lesson 2

82.  What is the goal of Assembly Testing?
a.     To test the operations of individual components of the system that were developed.
b.    To test the interactions between the components and individual modules.
c.     To test the components that only form part of the live system.
d.     To test the system behavior as per performance requirements.





83.  Which tool is used for Product Test execution?
a.     Load Runner
b.     Hexawise
c.     Rational Functional Tester
d.     Rational Performance Tester


84.  Which stage of testing uses a tool to simulate numerous virtual users executing transactions simultaneously?
a.     Product Testing
b.     Assembly Testing
c.     Performance Testing
d.     User Acceptance Testing


85.  A web application is dependent upon the frequent use of Application Programming Interfaces for tasks such as logging and messaging.
Which test should be performed before the Application Performance Test?
a.     Network Reliability Performance Test
b.    Technical Architecture Performance Test
c.     Web Performance Optimization Test
d.     Software Configuration Performance Test


Module 8 – Lesson 3

86.  Who are the targeted users of the Operational Acceptance Test?
a.     Client’s operations and technical staff
b.     Mobilization team
c.     Client’s Chief Operating Officer
d.     Sales and solution architecture teams


87.  A Test Lead has prepared a Test Closure Memo for Operational Acceptance Testing (OAT). The memo includes all key metrics from the OAT stream, including the number of tests executed, and the number of defects identified.
Which information should also be included in the OAT Test Closure Memo?
a.     Number of resources/test analyst details
b.     Accepted/rejected defect ratio
c.     Stage containment/test model
d.    Number of outstanding/known defects


Module 8 – Lesson 4

88.  Which tool can be used for Test Design, Test Execution, and overall Test Management?
a.     Rational Quality Manager
b.     Load Runner
c.     Unified Functional Tester
d.     Test Director



89.  A Project Team uses Load Runner as a Test Automation tool to help create virtual user scripts and define their behavior.
Which Load Runner component allows for the completion of these tasks?
a.     LRVuGEN
b.     LR Controller
c.     LR Analysis
d.     Load Generator


90.  A Tester needs to repeat testing in a cyclic way for an application with the testing requirements in the table below.
What testing technique should be used?

Platform	Intel
Operating System	WinXP and Windows 8
Different Input Data Sets Required	5
Browser	IE, Mozilla Firefox, and Netscape
Language	English and French

a.     Manual Testing
b.    Automation Testing
c.     Performance Testing
d.     Usability Testing


91.  Which criterion, in addition to Repetitiveness and Time Consumption, should be used to choose manual scripts that can be automated?
a.     Reliability
b.     Complexity
c.     Stability
d.    Criticality


92.  A Test Team is testing a web application using the Selenium IDE Automation Tool.
Which Automation Testing Approach was adopted?
a.     Code Driven Testing
b.     Keyword Driven Testing
c.     Graphical User Interface Testing
d.     Data Driven Testing


Module 8 – Lesson 5

93.  A Tester is testing a client’s portal on the production environment and finds that the login portal page accepts any correct or incorrect values entered for the login id and password.
How should the Tester classify the priority and severity of the defect?
a.     High priority and high severity
b.     High priority and medium severity
c.     Medium priority and high severity
d.     Medium priority and medium severity



94.  What are the chronological steps of the Defect Life Cycle?
a.     New, Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed, Retest, Ready to Retest
b.    New, Assigned, Open, Fixed, Ready to Retest, Retest, Closed
c.     New, Ready to Retest, Retest, Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
d.     New, Assigned, Open, Fixed, Ready to Retest, Closed, Retest


95.  A Test Lead determines that a newly raised defect is invalid.
What status should they select for the defect?
a.     Assigned
b.     Withdrawn
c.     Rejected
d.     Closed


96.  A Tester logs four defects with different statuses that were raised by another Tester.
Which defect needs urgent resolution according to its status?
a.     Critical Priority
b.     High Severity
c.     Critical Severity
d.     High Priority