Prompt to understand comment

I posted this on Hacker News on an article titled "The Wealthy are Cutting the line at the airport, Disney, and ski resorts"

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That's a perspective that makes sense when all individuals are given an equal income, and it's up to each one to decide how they want to allocate that income.
But that's very far from how the actual world works. In reality, some people make very little while having little to start with, some make lots of money, even when they have little to start with, and others might make lots of money while also being born into lots of money.
To look at the system and ask "why are people complaining? It's the same price for everyone." ignores that is actually has a different cost for everyone, regardless of what the price might be. And that perspective is what pushes society in a direction where many are forced to pay with their time, while the few who found their way to large incomes/born with large bank accounts, can pay with money, essentially establishing a class tier
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A reply to it said

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Well, we could allocate each American the US Standard Car and the US Standard Breakfast Meal and they can wear the US Standard Clothing, but there are societies that tried that and there are societies that have done what the US has done and our poor people are better than their 75th percentile, so I think having different incomes and charging more for more services is okay.
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That seems like a non-sequitur to me. So I said


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Can you explain how this relates to my comment above? There was no sentiment there that all people should have the same possessions and experiences. The point of the post was that objective price can't be evaluated without consideration of the actual subjective cost it represents to people.
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To which the other user replied

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It's that it's preferable to any alternative. It's not a class tier so much as a gradient of availability and that is good.
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I still don't understand. Can you connect the dots for me? Is he arguing with me? Or just adding on?