Guest User

Untitled

a guest
Apr 22nd, 2012
789
0
Never
Not a member of Pastebin yet? Sign Up, it unlocks many cool features!
text 20.15 KB | None | 0 0
  1. Question 1 1 out of 1 points
  2. When the engine is at operating temperature, a NTC engine coolant temperature sensor resistance is high.
  3.  
  4. Selected Answer: False
  5. Correct Answer: False
  6. Question 2 1 out of 1 points
  7. A defective O2 sensor heater may cause reduced open loop time.
  8.  
  9. Selected Answer: False
  10. Correct Answer: False
  11. Question 3 0 out of 1 points
  12. A defective vehicle speed sensor may cause improper torque converter lockup.
  13.  
  14. Selected Answer: False
  15. Correct Answer: True
  16. Question 4 1 out of 1 points
  17. A vehicle with throttle actuator control may use three throttle position sensors.
  18.  
  19. Selected Answer: True
  20. Correct Answer: True
  21. Question 5 1 out of 1 points
  22. The exhaust gas recirculation valve position sensor is a linear potentiometer mounted on top of the EGR valve.
  23.  
  24. Selected Answer: True
  25. Correct Answer: True
  26. Question 6 0 out of 1 points
  27. The knock sensor changes vibration to a frequency signal and sends the signal to the computer.
  28.  
  29. Selected Answer: True
  30. Correct Answer: False
  31. Question 7 1 out of 1 points
  32. Many modules have to be reprogrammed for the vehicle if they are to be replaced.
  33.  
  34. Selected Answer: True
  35. Correct Answer: True
  36. Question 8 1 out of 1 points
  37. Engines that have throttle actuator control require an idle air control motor.
  38.  
  39. Selected Answer: False
  40. Correct Answer: False
  41. Question 9 1 out of 1 points
  42. When checking a solenoid with an ohmmeter, there should be an infinity reading on the meter if the solenoid is good.
  43.  
  44. Selected Answer: False
  45. Correct Answer: False
  46. Question 10 0 out of 1 points
  47. If the computer activates a component or circuit by completing a ground it is referred to as a feed side driver.
  48.  
  49. Selected Answer: True
  50. Correct Answer: False
  51. Question 11 1 out of 1 points
  52. The digital EGR is comprised of three solenoids that all flow different amounts of EGR.
  53.  
  54. Selected Answer: True
  55. Correct Answer: True
  56. Question 12 1 out of 1 points
  57. Many modern engines do not have adjustable ignition timing.
  58.  
  59. Selected Answer: True
  60. Correct Answer: True
  61. Question 13 1 out of 1 points
  62. Networking smaller more specialized modules is more cost effective than using one or two centralized complex modules.
  63.  
  64. Selected Answer: True
  65. Correct Answer: True
  66. Question 14 0 out of 1 points
  67. The individual modules in a CAN system are sometimes called nodes.
  68.  
  69. Selected Answer: False
  70. Correct Answer: True
  71. Question 15 0 out of 1 points
  72. Modules on the serial bus that can initiate communication with other modules on the serial data bus are called slaves.
  73.  
  74. Selected Answer: True
  75. Correct Answer: False
  76. Question 16 1 out of 1 points
  77. Data links may be referred to as bus wires.
  78.  
  79. Selected Answer: True
  80. Correct Answer: True
  81. Question 17 1 out of 1 points
  82. A type A misfire will cause the MIL to flash.
  83.  
  84. Selected Answer: True
  85. Correct Answer: True
  86. Question 18 0 out of 1 points
  87. The catalyst monitor must be completed before the other five monitors are completed in a trip.
  88.  
  89. Selected Answer: True
  90. Correct Answer: False
  91. Question 19 1 out of 1 points
  92. All OBD II equipped vehicles use a 16 pin datalink connector, with nine terminals defined by SAE.
  93.  
  94. Selected Answer: True
  95. Correct Answer: True
  96. Question 20 1 out of 1 points
  97. A type A DTC will set a pending code on the first failure and the MIL is illuminated on the second consecutive failure.
  98.  
  99. Selected Answer: False
  100. Correct Answer: False
  101. Question 21 1 out of 1 points
  102. Enable criteria must be met in order for the PCM to run a system monitor.
  103.  
  104. Selected Answer: True
  105. Correct Answer: True
  106. Question 22 1 out of 1 points
  107. In an enhanced evaporative system monitor, a missing fuel tank cap will cause the MIL to turn on.
  108.  
  109. Selected Answer: True
  110. Correct Answer: True
  111. Question 23 0 out of 1 points
  112. The third digit of a DTC indicates whether the code is an SAE or manufacturer-specific code.
  113.  
  114. Selected Answer: True
  115. Correct Answer: False
  116. Question 24 1 out of 1 points
  117. In an OBD II vehicle the technician may be able to erase trouble codes without erasing freeze frame data.
  118.  
  119. Selected Answer: False
  120. Correct Answer: False
  121. Question 25 1 out of 1 points
  122. OBD II systems note the deterioration of certain components before they fail.
  123.  
  124. Selected Answer: True
  125. Correct Answer: True
  126. Question 26 1 out of 1 points
  127. A disconnected vacuum hose on a fuel pressure regulator may cause excessive fuel pressure.
  128.  
  129. Selected Answer: True
  130. Correct Answer: True
  131. Question 27 1 out of 1 points
  132. Long term fuel trim will change in an attempt to keep short term fuel trim near 0.
  133.  
  134. Selected Answer: True
  135. Correct Answer: True
  136. Question 28 1 out of 1 points
  137. Fuel pressure should be relieved prior to disconnecting fuel system components.
  138.  
  139. Selected Answer: True
  140. Correct Answer: True
  141. Question 29 0 out of 1 points
  142. Clogged fuel injectors will cause long term fuel trim to take away fuel.
  143.  
  144. Selected Answer: True
  145. Correct Answer: False
  146. Question 30 0 out of 1 points
  147. Enable criteria are the conditions that have to be met in order for the PCM to run a specific test of a system.
  148.  
  149. Selected Answer: False
  150. Correct Answer: True
  151. Question 31 1 out of 1 points
  152. The OBD II AIR system is meant only to operate long enough to warm the exhaust and help promote catalytic converter light-off by burning left-over HC and CO in the exhaust manifold of a cold engine.
  153.  
  154. Selected Answer: True
  155. Correct Answer: True
  156. Question 32 1 out of 1 points
  157. Carbon monoxide is a by-product of combustion.
  158.  
  159. Selected Answer: True
  160. Correct Answer: True
  161. Question 33 0 out of 1 points
  162. High oxygen levels are a good indicator of a rich air-fuel ratio.
  163.  
  164. Selected Answer: True
  165. Correct Answer: False
  166. Question 34 1 out of 1 points
  167. If gasoline is allowed to evaporate into the air it becomes a significant source of hydrocarbon emissions.
  168.  
  169. Selected Answer: True
  170. Correct Answer: True
  171. Question 35 1 out of 1 points
  172. In an OBD II system the PCM will set a code if the evaporative system has a leak as small as .020” in size.
  173.  
  174. Selected Answer: True
  175. Correct Answer: True
  176. Question 36 1 out of 1 points
  177. Short-term fuel trim (STFT) adds or subtracts fuel to correct for:
  178.  
  179. Selected Answer: Both B and C
  180. Correct Answer: Both B and C
  181. Question 37 1 out of 1 points
  182. A low voltage signal from the O2 sensor indicates:
  183.  
  184. Selected Answer: A lean air/fuel ratio
  185. Correct Answer: A lean air/fuel ratio
  186. Question 38 1 out of 1 points
  187. An O2 sensor may be used to:
  188.  
  189. Selected Answer: Both A and C.
  190. Correct Answer: Both A and C.
  191. Question 39 1 out of 1 points
  192. When a computer has adaptive strategy, a short learning period will be necessary when:
  193.  
  194. Selected Answer: All of the above.
  195. Correct Answer: All of the above.
  196. Question 40 1 out of 1 points
  197. Technician A says CAN network modules can share information with other modules on the same bus. Technician B says the CAN class A bus is for high speed data. Who is correct?
  198.  
  199. Selected Answer: Technician A
  200. Correct Answer: Technician A
  201. Question 41 1 out of 1 points
  202. In a CAN network, if a module fails to “check in” with the other modules:
  203.  
  204. Selected Answer: A trouble code is set
  205. Correct Answer: A trouble code is set
  206. Question 42 0 out of 1 points
  207. Modules that are not part of any vehicle network are called:
  208.  
  209. Selected Answer: Both A and B
  210. Correct Answer: Stand alone modules
  211. Question 43 1 out of 1 points
  212. If a technician uses a scan tool to open the EGR valve while the engine is at idle:
  213.  
  214. Selected Answer: Both A and B
  215. Correct Answer: Both A and B
  216. Question 44 1 out of 1 points
  217. After 2008 the only communication standard that can be used is
  218.  
  219. Selected Answer: CAN
  220. Correct Answer: CAN
  221. Question 45 1 out of 1 points
  222. UART, J1850, KWP 2000 and ISO 9141 are:
  223.  
  224. Selected Answer: Different computer networking languages.
  225. Correct Answer: Different computer networking languages.
  226. Question 46 1 out of 1 points
  227. Technician A says each module in a CAN system receives every communication on the serial data bus. Technician B says only the messages with the correct heading are responded to by a module in a CAN system.
  228.  
  229. Selected Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  230. Correct Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  231. Question 47 1 out of 1 points
  232. Bi-directional control means:
  233.  
  234. Selected Answer: The technician can tell a computer to exercise an output
  235. Correct Answer: The technician can tell a computer to exercise an output
  236. Question 48 1 out of 1 points
  237. Technician A says an open in star network bus will affect all the modules on the network. Technician B says an open in a loop network will isolate a module from the network.
  238.  
  239. Selected Answer: Neither A or B
  240. Correct Answer: Neither A or B
  241. Question 49 1 out of 1 points
  242. The components of the PCM responsible for controlling circuits or devices are called:
  243.  
  244. Selected Answer: Drivers
  245. Correct Answer: Drivers
  246. Question 50 1 out of 1 points
  247. All of the following are the same communication protocol except:
  248.  
  249. Selected Answer: ISO 9141
  250. Correct Answer: ISO 9141
  251. Question 51 0 out of 1 points
  252. All are benefits of the CAN network standard except:
  253.  
  254. Selected Answer: Faster than J1850
  255. Correct Answer: Consumes more power
  256. Question 52 0 out of 1 points
  257. What is the term used to define the operating conditions that must be present during a second trip to set a code?
  258.  
  259. Selected Answer: Drive cycle
  260. Correct Answer: Similar conditions
  261. Question 53 1 out of 1 points
  262. A flashing MIL indicates:
  263.  
  264. Selected Answer: A misfire that may damage the catalytic converter.
  265. Correct Answer: A misfire that may damage the catalytic converter.
  266. Question 54 1 out of 1 points
  267. Which of the following is not part of comprehensive component monitoring?
  268.  
  269. Selected Answer: Catalyst efficiency
  270. Correct Answer: Catalyst efficiency
  271. Question 55 1 out of 1 points
  272. Technician A says PCMs in an OBD II system may have replaceable PROMs. Technician B says a new PCM will need to be flashed before it can be used on a vehicle. Who is correct?
  273.  
  274. Selected Answer: Technician B
  275. Correct Answer: Technician B
  276. Question 56 1 out of 1 points
  277. The output voltage of a downstream O2 sensor is fluctuating when the engine is at operating temperature. Technician A says the catalytic converter is working efficiently. Technician B says the O2 sensor may need to be replaced. Who is correct?
  278.  
  279. Selected Answer: Neither technician is correct.
  280. Correct Answer: Neither technician is correct.
  281. Question 57 1 out of 1 points
  282. The MIL light of an OBD-equipped vehicle is flashing. Technician A says a spark plug wire may be shorted to ground. Technician B says a cylinder may have low compression. Who is correct?
  283.  
  284. Selected Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  285. Correct Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  286. Question 58 0 out of 1 points
  287. Technician A says enabling criteria defines the criteria that must be met before the vehicle will enter closed loop. Technician B says enabling criteria defines the criteria that must be met in order for a monitor test to be completed. Who is correct?
  288.  
  289. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  290. Correct Answer: Technician B
  291. Question 59 0 out of 1 points
  292. The signal that alerts the misfire monitor that a misfire may be occurring is provided by the:
  293.  
  294. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  295. Correct Answer: The crankshaft position sensor.
  296. Question 60 0 out of 1 points
  297. A pending code is one that:
  298.  
  299. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  300. Correct Answer: Has had one failure but has not had a second consecutive failure
  301. Question 61 0 out of 1 points
  302. The PCM has the option of turning the MIL off when the diagnostic test which caused the MIL to light passes for:
  303.  
  304. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  305. Correct Answer: Three consecutive trips
  306. Question 62 0 out of 1 points
  307. Technician A says a type A misfire will set a trouble code on the first failure. Technician B says a type B misfire will set a trouble code on the first failure. Who is correct?
  308.  
  309. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  310. Correct Answer: Technician A
  311. Question 63 0 out of 1 points
  312. In an OBD II system mode 6 is:
  313.  
  314. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  315. Correct Answer: The on-board test of non-continuous monitored systems
  316. Question 64 0 out of 1 points
  317. Which of the following OBD-II test modes allows scan tools to access freeze frame data?
  318.  
  319. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  320. Correct Answer: Mode 2
  321. Question 65 0 out of 1 points
  322. Technician A says the basic advantage of the snapshot feature on a scan tool is the ability to look at the existing conditions when a code was set. Technician B says GM failure reports do the same thing as a snapshot but also include any fault stored in memory, not just those related to the emissions-related circuits. Who is correct?
  323.  
  324. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  325. Correct Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  326. Question 66 0 out of 1 points
  327. Which of the following is not necessary for the misfire monitor to set a code?
  328.  
  329. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  330. Correct Answer: Engine speed within 150 rpm of when the fault was detected
  331. Question 67 0 out of 1 points
  332. All of the following are OBD II continuous monitors except:
  333.  
  334. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  335. Correct Answer: Catalyst efficiency
  336. Question 68 0 out of 1 points
  337. An OBD II warm-up cycle is defined by engine coolant temperature:
  338.  
  339. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  340. Correct Answer: Increasing 40° to at least 160°
  341. Question 69 0 out of 1 points
  342. Technician A says an OBD II trip is the same as a drive cycle. Technician B says a trip is a period of operation that allows a monitor to complete. Who is correct?
  343.  
  344. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  345. Correct Answer: Technician B
  346. Question 70 0 out of 1 points
  347. When the pressure in the intake manifold increases the fuel pressure regulator on a port fuel injection system:
  348.  
  349. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  350. Correct Answer: Increases fuel pressure
  351. Question 71 0 out of 1 points
  352. The acceptable amount of alcohol mixed with gasoline is:
  353.  
  354. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  355. Correct Answer: up to 10 percent.
  356. Question 72 0 out of 1 points
  357. Technician A says a rich air-fuel mixture may be the result of higher-than-normal fuel pressure. Technician B says higher-than-normal fuel pressure causes a lean air-fuel ratio. Who is correct?
  358.  
  359. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  360. Correct Answer: Technician A
  361. Question 73 0 out of 1 points
  362. Technician A says low fuel pressure may be caused by a restricted fuel filter. Technician B says when testing fuel pressure make sure the specifications are either for the engine running or the engine off. Who is correct?
  363.  
  364. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  365. Correct Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  366. Question 74 0 out of 1 points
  367. To help isolate a clogged or dirty injector:
  368.  
  369. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  370. Correct Answer: Perform an injector balance test.
  371. Question 75 0 out of 1 points
  372. Technician A says acceleration stumbles may be the result of restricted injector tips. Technician B says cylinder misfiring at idle speed may be caused by a defective injector. Who is correct?
  373.  
  374. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  375. Correct Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  376. Question 76 0 out of 1 points
  377. An IAC valve stuck in the closed position may cause all of the following except:
  378.  
  379. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  380. Correct Answer: High idle speed.
  381. Question 77 0 out of 1 points
  382. The fuel pressure regulator in a returnless fuel system is located:
  383.  
  384. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  385. Correct Answer: With the fuel pump module.
  386. Question 78 0 out of 1 points
  387. Technician A says an injector ohm test is the most accurate method of testing a fuel injector’s operation. Technician B says an injector ohm test can only confirm a defective injector winding. Who is correct?
  388.  
  389. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  390. Correct Answer: Technician B
  391. Question 79 0 out of 1 points
  392. Technician A says that if the EGR is open at idle and low speeds, the engine may stall on deceleration. Technician B says that if the EGR is open at idle and low speeds, the engine may surge during low-speed operation. Who is correct?
  393.  
  394. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  395. Correct Answer: Both technicians are correct.
  396. Question 80 0 out of 1 points
  397. In the PCV system, crankcase vapors are recycled to the:
  398.  
  399. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  400. Correct Answer: intake manifold.
  401. Question 81 0 out of 1 points
  402. Which exhaust gas /gasses are controlled by the EGR valve
  403.  
  404. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  405. Correct Answer: NOx
  406. Question 82 0 out of 1 points
  407. The catalytic converter may be tested with:
  408.  
  409. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  410. Correct Answer: Both A and B
  411. Question 83 0 out of 1 points
  412. Excessive CO emissions may be caused by:
  413.  
  414. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  415. Correct Answer: Rich air-fuel mixtures.
  416. Question 84 0 out of 1 points
  417. The OBD II AIR system pumps air into
  418.  
  419. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  420. Correct Answer: The Exhaust manifold.
  421. Question 85 0 out of 1 points
  422. Oxides of nitrogen (NOx) are formed when combustion temperatures reach more than:
  423.  
  424. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  425. Correct Answer: 2,500 degrees F.
  426. Question 86 0 out of 1 points
  427. Excessive HC emissions may be caused by:
  428.  
  429. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  430. Correct Answer: All of the above
  431. Question 87 0 out of 1 points
  432. Which exhaust gas is near its highest level when the air/fuel ratio is near stoichiometric?
  433.  
  434. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  435. Correct Answer: CO2
  436. Question 88 0 out of 1 points
  437. A three-way catalyst is named for its ability to reduce which emissions:
  438.  
  439. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  440. Correct Answer: NOx, CO, HC
  441. Question 89 0 out of 1 points
  442. Which of the following is a pre-combustion emission control?
  443.  
  444. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  445. Correct Answer: EVAP
  446. Question 90 0 out of 1 points
  447. The OBD II EVAP system is designed to reduce which emission?
  448.  
  449. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  450. Correct Answer: HC
  451. Question 91 0 out of 1 points
  452. The modules in a network have to use a common ____________________, or language.
  453.  
  454. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  455. Correct Answer: communication protocol
  456. Question 92 0 out of 1 points
  457. ____________________ module communication is used for modules capable of initiating communication on the serial data line.
  458.  
  459. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  460. Correct Answer: peer to peer
  461. Question 93 0 out of 1 points
  462. The ____________________protocol is mandated for 2008 and newer vehicles for emissions related communication.
  463.  
  464. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  465. Correct Answer: controller area network
  466. Question 94 0 out of 1 points
  467. The ____________________ monitor strategy determines potential electronic inputs that could effect emission levels.
  468.  
  469. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  470. Correct Answer: comprehensive component
  471. Question 95 0 out of 1 points
  472. The primary purpose of OBD II is to make the diagnosis of ____________________ and ____________________ problems simple and uniform in nature.
  473.  
  474. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  475. Correct Answer: emissions, driveability
  476. driveability, emissions
  477. Question 96 0 out of 1 points
  478. OBD II systems use a minimum of two O2 sensors as a ____________________ monitor.
  479.  
  480. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  481. Correct Answer: catalyst efficiency
  482. Question 97 0 out of 1 points
  483. The OBD II EGR monitor operates once per OBD II ____________________.
  484.  
  485. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  486. Correct Answer: trip
  487. Question 98 0 out of 1 points
  488. ____________________ allows the computer to adapt to minor defects in the inputs and outputs.
  489.  
  490. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  491. Correct Answer: adaptive strategy
  492. Question 99 0 out of 1 points
  493. Clearing trouble codes will also erase data collected during an OBD II ____________________.
  494.  
  495. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  496. Correct Answer: Freeze frame
  497. Question 100 0 out of 1 points
  498. Never assume that a ____________________ indicated means a part must be replaced.
  499.  
  500. Selected Answer: [None Given]
  501. Correct Answer: code
Advertisement
Add Comment
Please, Sign In to add comment