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- 1
- ANATOMY-Musculoskeletal
- The radial nerve is responsible for extension of the hand Damage to the radial nerve results in
- wrist drop
- The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the flexor muscles of the upper arm and provides
- sensory innervation to the lateral forearrn The musculocutaneous nerve is derived from the upper
- trunk of the brachial
- The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the flexor muscles of the upper arm and provides
- sensory innervation to the lateral forearm The musculocutaneous nerve is derived from the upper
- trunk of the brachial plexus and can be injured by forceful injuries that cause separation of the
- neck and shoulder
- Muscles used when sitting up from the supine position include the external abdomirSc frd
- abdominis, and the hip flexors The ihopsoas muscle is the most important of the hip fiexors and
- inctudes the psoas major, psoas minor, and iliacus The rectus femoris. sartorius, tensor fascia
- lata, and the medial compartment of the thigh also conthbute to hip flexion
- Flattening of the deftoid muscle after a shoulder injury suggests anterior shoulder dislocation
- This injury most commonly results from forceful external rotation and abduction at the shoulder
- joint. Axillary nerve injury, resulting in deltoid paralysis and loss of sensation over the lateral
- arm, is often associated.
- The most commonly injured structure in rotator cuff syndrome is the tendon of the supraspinatus
- muscle. Because the supraspinatus is an abductor of the humerus, injury to its tendon causes pain
- on abduction of the arm
- Injections given in the superomedial part of the buttock risk injury to the gluteal nerves:
- Injections given in the inferomedial part of the buttock risk injury to the sciatic nerve The
- superolateral quadrant of the buttock is a safe site for intramuscular injections.
- Lesions of the femoral nerve can occur due to trauma. nerve compression. stretch Injury, or
- ischemia Patients develop weakness of the quadriceps muscle, loss of the patellar reflex, and loss
- of sensation over the anterior and medial thigh and medial leg.
- The median nerve courses between the humeral and ulnar heads of the pronator teres muscle and
- then runs between the flexor digitorum superficialis and the flexor digitorum profundus muscles
- before entering the wrist and hand within the carnal tunneL
- The supraspinatus muscle assists in abduction of the arm and stabilization of the glenohumeral
- joint The most commonly injured structure in rotator cuff syndrome is the tendon of the
- supraspinatus muscle This tendon is vulnerable to injury due to impingement between the
- acromion and the hemurus
- 2
- Trauma or sustained pressure to the neck of the fibula can cause injury to the common peroneal
- nerve as it courses superficially and laterally to this structure
- The tibial nerve innervates the flexors of the lower leg. the extrinsic digital flexors of the toes,
- and the skin of the sole of the foot.
- 1) Injury to the superior gluteal nerve causes weakness of the gluteus medius and gF’.iI$ceen
- Wridow Sq Shape
- producing a positive Trendelenburg tea
- 2) The inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscle Injury of the inferior gluteal
- nerve causes
- difficuLty rising from the seated position and climbing stairs
- The deep brachial artery and radial nerve course along the posterior aspect of the humerus
- Mdshaft fractures of the humerus risk injury to these structures. Supracondylar fractures are
- associated with injury to the brachial artery
- The posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur
- It originates from the anterolateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and inserts into the
- posterior intercondylar area of the tibia Its integrity can be tested in the clinical setting by using
- the posterior drawer test
- The psoas muscle originates from the anterior surface of the transverse processes and lateral
- surface of the corresponding vertebral bodies T12-L5 The psoas muscle acts primarily to flex the
- thigh at the hip It contributes somewhat to lateral rotation and abduction of the thigh as well
- The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) can be damaged by forceful anterior motion of the tibia
- with respect to the femur.
- Ulnar nerve injury classically causes a “claw hand” deformity. The ulnar nerve can be IrIjUreCt
- either near the medial epicondyle of the humerus or in Guyon’s canal near the hook of the
- hamate and pisiform bone in the wrist.
- Sudden upward stretc[ng on the arm at the shoulder can damage the lower trunk of the brachial
- plexus. This trunk carries nerves from the C8 and Ti spinal levels that ultimately form the
- median and ulnar nerves These nerves innervate all of the inthnsic muscles of the hand.
- Mastectomy is a commonly tested cause of long thoracic nerve injury, but any trauma or surgery
- in the axitfary region is at risk of damaging this nerve. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the
- scapula and inability to abduct the shoulder past 90 degrees.
- The common peroneal nerve is vulnerable to injury where it courses around the nec F. creWi - Sc
- neck fractures can lesion this nerve, causing weakness of dorsiflexion (deep peroneat nerve) and
- eversion (superficial peroneal nerve) of the foot as well as loss of sensation over the dorsum of
- the foot. Inversion and plantarfiexion would remain intact due to the action of the tibial nerve.
- 3
- Radial head subluxation (nursemaid’s elbow) results from sudden traction on the outstretched
- and pronated arm of a child Affected children are usually in little distress unless attempts are
- made to move the elbow. The annular ligament is torn and displaced in this injury
- A femoral neck fracture can damage the blood supply to the femoral head and necic This is most
- common with displaced fractures. The medial femoral circumflex artery provides the majority of
- the blood supply to the femoral head and neck injury to this vessel can cause avascular necrosis
- of the femoral hea&
- The lunate bone can be identified on a hand X-ray as the more medial of the two carpal bones
- that articulate with the radius. It lies immediately medial to the scaphoid bone.
- Common peroneal nerve injury as it traces the lateral aspect of the fibular neck is common Bony
- fracture and compression are the most common causes. Clinically this manifests as foot drop.
- The sternocleidornastoid muscle originates on the medial clavicle and manubrium and inserts on
- the mastoid process of the skull. It is innervated by CN Xl and functions to turn the head in the
- opposite direction.
- The serratus anterior muscle serves to fix the scapula against the posterior chest watt and rotate
- the scaputa to allow abduction of the arm over the head Paralysis of this muscle occurs with
- injury to the long thoracic nerve and results in winging of the scapula.
- The Valsalva maneuver increases vagal tone and can be used to abolish paroxysmal
- supraventncular tachycardia. The rectus abdominis is the most important muscle in achieving the
- increased intraabdominal and intrathoracic pressure of the Valsalva maneuver.
- The obturator nerve is the only major nerve that exits the peMs through the obturatorforamen
- This nerve supplies the muscles of the medial (adductor) compartment of the thigh and can be
- damaged dunng pelvic surgery, especially in procedures such as lymph node dissection
- The posterior cruciate ligament prevents anterior displacement of the femur relative to the tibia
- when the knee is flexed. It attaches to the posterior part of the intercondylar area of the tibia and
- the anterior part of the lateral surface of the medial epicondyle of the femur.
- Fall on an outstretched hand may cause fracture of the scaphoid bone Examination
- anatomical snuff box The scaphoid bone is vulnerable to avascular necrosis and nonuñian due to
- as tenuàii blood supply
- Repeated and prolonged kneeling can cause prepatellar bursitis Dubbed housemacfs kne&’ today
- it is most commonly seen in roofers, carpenters and plumbers Signs and symptoms of prepatellar
- bursitis include knee pain, erythema. swelling and inability to kneel on the affected side
- Improperly fitted crutches can cause radial nerve injury, resulting in weakness of all forearm,
- wrist and finger extensors (“wristdrop”).
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- ANATOMY-Neurology
- The ventromedial hypothalamic nuclei contain the satiety center and regulate food intake
- Lesions of the ventromedial nuclei result in obesity secondary to hyperphagia as well as
- aggressive, savage behavior
- The third branch of the trigerninal nerve (CN V3) exits the skull through the foramen ovale and
- innervates the muscles of mastication. including the masseter. the medial and lateral pterygoids,
- and the temporalis muscles.
- Trochlear nerve palsy is charactenzed by vertical diplopia
- Common peroneal nerve injury is common and typically results from trauma to the leg near the
- head of the fibula Signs include foot drop and a characteristic high-stepping gait
- The posterior cerebral artery branches off the basilar artery and supplies cranial nerves Ill and IV
- and other structures in the midbrain It also supplies the thalamus, mesial temporal lobe, splenium
- of the corpus callosum, parahippocampal gyrus, fusiform gyms, and occipital Iobe
- The combination of fixed segmental loss of upper extremity pain and temperature sensation,
- upper extremity lower motor neuron signs, and/or lower extremity upper motor neuron signs in
- the setting of scoliosis suggests a diagnosis of syringomyelia.
- Lesions of the glossopharyngea nerve result in loss of the gag reflex (afferent limb), loss of
- sensation in the upper pharynx, posterior tongue. tonsils. and middle ear cavity, and loss of taste
- sensation on the posterior one-third of the tongue
- The third cranial nerve (oculomotor) carrying general somatic efferent fiber and general visceral
- efferent parasympathetic fiber exits the midbrain and courses between the posterior cerebral and
- superior cerebellar arteries. An aneurysm arising from either artery can lead to a non—pupil-
- sparing third nerve palsy, which clinically presents with unilateral headache, eye pain, diplopia.
- dilated nonreactive pupil, and ptosis with the ipsilateral eye in a down and out position.
- The tight junctions between endothelial cells in the capillary beds of the CNS form the blood-
- brain barrier Solutes and fluids cannot move freely across the capillary membrane in the CNS
- material can only move transcellularly by diffusing across the epithehal plasma membranes or by
- carrier-mediated transport
- The thalamic syndrome is characterized by total sensory loss on the contralateral skie of the body
- Although there are no motor deficits, proprioception is often profoundly affected and may lead to
- difficulty ambulating and falls.
- Lacunar infarctions are the result of small vessel lipohyalinosis and atherosclerosis invoMng the
- penetrating vessels supplying the deep brain structures Uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes
- mellitus are risk factors for this condition
- 5
- Neurofibromatosis Type I (NFl. or von Recklinghausens disease) is a common autosomal-
- dominant disorder resulting from a defect in the NF-l gene on chromosome 17. Cutaneous and
- subcutaneous neurofibromas are common in this condition and are tumors of Schwann celIs
- which are embryologicalty derived from the neural crest.
- Upper motor neuron lesions cause spastic rigidity, hyperreflexia. and paresis Corticospinal tract,
- internal capsule (posterior limb), and primary motor cortex lesions can cause these symptoms
- Injury to Meyer’s loop in the temporal lobe results in contralateral superior quadrantanopia
- A lesion in Wemicke’s area can cause receptive aphasia. which is characterized by well-
- articulated, nonsensical speech paired with a lack of language comprehension (Wemicke-Word
- salad) Wemicke’s area is located in the auditory association cortex within the posterior portion of
- the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant temporal lobe. The middle cerebral artery supplies
- Broca’s area (superior division) and Wernicke’s area (inferior division).
- The deep branch of the radial nerve arises near the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, where the
- humerus articulates with the head of the radius Radial head subluxation can damage the deep
- branch of the radial nerve, causing weakness of the forearm and hand extensors but no sensory
- deficits
- All sensory pathways except olfaction (smell) have relay nuclei in the thaIamus The VPL
- receives impulses from spinothalamic and medial lemniscus pathways, the VPM from the
- tngeminal and gustatory pathways, and the lateral and medial geniculate bodies are relay nuclei
- for the visual and auditory pathways, respectively
- The vagus nerve provides some cutaneous sensation to the posterior external auditory canal via
- its small auricular branch Sensation to the rest of the canal is from CN V3 A vasovagal syncopal
- episode results from stimulation of the vagus nerve, leading to a decrease in blood pressure and
- heart rate
- The afferent limb of the light reflex pathway is the optic nerve: the efferent limb is the
- parasympathetic fibers of
- the oculomotor nerve. When an optic nerve is damaged. light in that eye will cause neither pupil
- to constrict
- (the nerve can’t sense the light). However, light in the contralateral eye will cause both pupils to
- constrict
- (because the motor pathways are intact).
- Lesions involving CN Ill cause ptosis. a downward and laterally deviated eye, impaired pupillary
- constriction and accommodation, and diagonal diplopia The most dreaded cause of CN Ill palsy
- is an enlarging intracranial aneurysm.
- A lesion in the optic tract can produce contralateral homonymous hemianopia and a relative
- afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil) in the contralateral eye.
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- The stapedius muscle is innervated by the stapedius nerve, a branch of facial nerve (CN Vll)
- Paralysis of the stapedius muscle allows wider oscillation of the stapes. and leads to increased
- sensitivity
- itivity to sound (hyperacusis)
- Hydrocephalus in infants presents with irritability, poor feeding. increased head circumference
- and enlarged ventricles on CT Long
- Long-term
- term sequelae of hydrocephalus include lower extremity
- spasticity due to stretching of the periventncular pyramidal tracts, visual disturbances, and
- learning disabilities.
- General features that aid in locahzing a transverse spinal cord section:
- a More proximal levels have increasing amounts of white matter and more ovoid sections
- a Lower cervical
- rvical and lumbosacral regions have large ventral horns
- a Thoracic and early lumbar sections (Ti -L2) contain lateral grey matter horns
- General features that aid in localizing a transverse spinal cord section:
- a More proximal levels have increasing am amounts
- ounts of white matter and more ovoid sections
- a Lower cervical and lumbosacral regions have large ventral horns
- a Thoracic and early lumbar sections (T1
- (T1-L2) contain lateral grey matter homs
- The head of the caudate lies in the inferolateral wall of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle It
- is separated from the globus pallidus and putamen by the internal capsule. The caudate is
- atrophied in Huntington’s disease.
- Neonatal intraventncular hemorrhage usually occurs in the fragile germinal matrix and increases
- in frequency with decreasing age and birth weight It is a common complication of prematurity
- that can lead to long-term
- term neurodevelopmental impairment.
- CSF flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius.
- Sciatica is a painful condition characterized by shooting pain down the posterior thigh and leg
- that typically results from impingement of one of the spinal nerves as it leaves the vertebral
- column. Compression of the Si root results specifically in pain purely in the posterior thigh and
- leg as well as diminution of the ankle jerk reflex.
- Thiamine (ie., vitamin B1)deficiency acutely leads to Wemicke enceph
- encephalopathy
- alopathy and chronically
- leads to Korsakoff psychosis. The neural structure most frequently affected in patients with
- Wernicke encephalopathy is the mammillary body, which is part of the Papez circuit Alcoholic
- or malnourished patients should receive intra intravenous
- venous thiamine supplementation before
- intravenous dextrose administration because giving dextrose without prior thiamine can
- precipitate a Wemicke encephaIopathy
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- General sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is carñed by the mandibular division of the
- trigeminal nerve Gustatory innervation of anterior 2/3 of the tongue is provided by chorda
- tympani branch of the facial
- The first arch can be poorly formed during embryonic development resulting in first arch
- syndrome. Abnormalities include malf
- malformation
- ormation of the mandible. maxilla. malleus, incus,
- zygoma, vorner, palate, and temporal bone. The first arch is associated with the trigeminal nerve.
- Wilson’s disease can cause cystic degeneration of the putamen as well as damage to other basal
- ganglia structures. The putamen is located medial to the insula and lateral to the globus pallidus
- on coronal sections.
- Meningiomas are located adjacent to the cerebral surface, Parasagittal meningiomas cause
- contralateral spastic paresis of the leg due to comp
- compression of the leg-foot
- foot motor area
- Motor (Broca) aphasia is a nonfluent aphasia that results from damage to Broca’s area in the
- inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere. Patients understand language but cannot
- properly formulate the motor comma
- commandsnds to form words or write. Speech is slow and fragmented,
- with short agrammatic phrases. Word
- Word-finding
- finding difficulty is often prominent Patients have insight
- into their aphasia and are often frustrated by it.
- Saddle anesthesia and loss of the anocutaneous reflex are symptoms of cauda equina syndrome,
- which is associated with damage to the S2 through S4 nerve roots
- Ulnar nerve injury causes sensation loss to the medial 11/2 digits of the hand.
- Sensorineural heanng loss. tinnitus. paralysis of facial mu
- muscles,
- scles, and loss of comeal reflex signify
- the involvement of CN V, Vii, and Viii. Simultaneous compression of these nerves is caused by
- tumor of the cerebeliopontine angle. which are most commonly acoustic neuromas
- Acute nausea following administrati
- administration
- on of systemic chemotherapy results from stimulation of the
- chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), which lies in the area postrema of the dorsal medulla near the
- fourth ventricle.
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- ANATOMY-Rest-1
- The right testicular vein drains directly into the IVC while the left testicular vein drains into the
- left renal vein.
- The proximal 1/3 of the ureter receives its blood supply from branches of the renal artery For this
- reason, this portion of the donor ureter is typically viable after renal transplantation
- Conductive hearing loss (bone conduction > air conduction): abnormal Rinne test (in affected
- ear) and Weber test localizes to affected ear
- Sensorineural hearing loss (air conduction> bone conduction): normal Rinne test and Weber test
- localizes to unaffected ear.
- The oculomotor nerve (ON Ill), ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) branches, trochlear nerve (ON IV),
- abducens nerve (ON VI), and superior ophthalmic vein enter the orbit via the superior orbital
- fissure
- The gastroduodenal artery lies along the posterior wall of the duodenal bulb and is likely to be
- eroded by posterior duodenal ulcers Ulceration into the gastroduodenal artery can be a source of
- life-threatening hemorrhage.
- Aneurysm or atherosclerotic calcification of the internal carotid artery can laterally impinge on
- the optic chiasm. This can cause nasal hemianopia by damaging uncrossed optic nerve fibers
- from the temporal portion of the ipsilateral retina.
- Indirect inguinal hernias are located lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels They can continue
- into the scrotum and are felt by deep palpation of the external inguinal ring with the tip of the
- finger In contrast, direct inguinal hernias are located medially to the inferior epigastric vessels.
- They do not protrude into the scrotum and are best felt with the pulp of the flnger
- All skin from the umbilicus down. including the anus (up to the dentatelpectinate line) but
- excluding the posterior calf, drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes
- The spleen is not a gut denvative: it forms from the mesodermal dorsal mesentery The splenic
- artery, however, is a branch of the celiac trunk (the primary blood supply of the foregut)
- Cncothyrotomy is indicated when an emergency airway is required and orotracheal or
- nasotracheal intubation is either unsuccessful or contraindicated The cricothyrotomy incision
- passes through the superficial cervical fascia. pretracheal fascia, and the cncothyroid membrane
- In addition to unilateral facial paralysis, patients with Bells palsy may experience decreased
- tearing, hyperacusis, and/or loss of taste sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
- 9
- Blunt trauma to the globe can cause orbital blowout fractures. These fractures most commonly
- involve the medial or inferior orbital walls, because the bone bordenng the ethmoid and
- maxillary sinuses is thin.
- Superior mesentenc artery syndrome occurs when the transverse portion of the duodenum is
- entrapped between the SMA and aorta, causing symptoms of partial intestinal obstruction This
- syndrome occurs when the aortomesentenc angle critically decreases, secondary to diminished
- mesenteric fat, pronounced lordosis, or surgical correction of scoliosis.
- On abdominal CT scans, the pancreas can be identified by its head in close association with the
- second part of the duodenum by its body overlying the left kidney, aorta. IVC and superior
- mesenteric vessels; and also by the tail lying in the splenorenal ligament.
- The recurrent laryngeal nerve travels in close approximation to the inferior thyroid artery and can
- be injured in surgical procedures of the anterior neck (e.g thyroidectomy), resulting in laryngeal
- muscle paralysis, hoarseness and dyspnea.
- The left gonadal (testicular or ovarian) vein drains into the left renal vein. commonly leading to
- left-sided vancoceles in males with obstructions of the left renal vein The right gonadal vein
- drains directly into the inferior vena cava
- The nerves and vessels supplying the ovary are delivered through the suspensory ligament of the
- ovary.
- Gallstone ileus results from the passage of a large gallstone (typically greater than 25 cm)
- through a cholecystenteric fistula into the small bowel where it ultimately causes obstruction at
- the ileocecal valve. Gas is seen within the gallbladder and biliary tree on abdominal X-ray due to
- the presence of the fistula, and patients present with signs and symptoms of small bowel
- obstruction.
- The brachiocephalic vein drains the ipsilateral jugular and subclavian veins. The bilateral
- brachiocephalic veins combine to form the SVC. Brachiocephalic vein obstruction causes
- symptoms similar to those seen in SVC syndrome, but on just one side of the body.
- The lesser omentum is a double layer of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the lesser
- curvature of the stomach and the beginning of the duodenum it is divided into the hepatogastnc
- and hepatoduodenal ligaments
- Femoral hernias are inferior to the inguinal ligament lateral to pubic tubercie, and medial to the
- femoral vein. They can present with groin discomfort or manifest with a bulge on the upper thigh
- Incarceration and strangulation are common complications of fernoral hernias
- The esophagus is located between the trachea and the vertebral bodies in the superior thorax It is
- typically collapsed with no visible lumen on CT images of the chest
- 10
- Injury to the posterior urethra is associated with pelvic fracture whereas anterior urethral injury
- most commonly occurs in straddle injuries Inability to void with a sensation of a full bladder, a
- high riding boggy prostate, and blood at the urethral meatus are all suggestive of urethral injury
- particularly in the presence of a pelvic fracture. A retrograde urethrogram should be performed
- before Foley catheter placement if there is concern for a urethral injury
- The hindgut encompasses the distal 113 of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the
- sigmoid colon, and the rectum These structures receive their main arterial blood supply from the
- inferior rnesentenc artery
- Direct hernias occur most commonly in older men and are caused by weakness of the
- transversalis fascia in Hesselbach’s triangle They are medial to the inferior epigastric vessels,
- protrude only through the external inguinal ring, and are covered by the external spermatic fascia
- In cirrhosis, portal hypertension arises from increased resistance to portal flow at the hepatic
- sinusoids This causes increased pressure in the portosystemic collateral veins within the lower
- end of esophagus, anterior abdomen, and lower rectum Dilation of these collaterals is responsible
- for the esophageal varices, caput medusae, and hemorrhoids commonly seen in cirrhotic patients
- The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery that enters the skull at the
- foramen spinosum and courses intracranially deep to the pterion. Skull fractures at this site may
- cause laceration of this vessel, leading to an epidural hematoma
- A branch of the mandibular division of the tngerninal nerve (CN V3) provides somatic sensory
- innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. The chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve
- provides taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
- provides somatic sensory and taste innervation to the posterior portion of the tongue.
- Cardiovascular dysphagia can result from pressure on the esophagus by a dilated left atrium The
- left atrium is commonly enlarged in patients with mitral stenosis and left ventricular failure
- The great majority of gastric ulcers occur over the lesser curvature of the stomach, at the border
- between acid-secreting and gastnn-secreting mucosa The left and right gastric arteries run along
- the lesser curvature and are likely to be penetrated by ulcers. causing gastric bleeding.
- Testicular hydrocele results when serous fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. The
- tunica vaginalis is embryologically derived from the peritoneum, when it remains in
- communication with the peritoneum, a communicating hydrocele results.
- Retroperitoneal hematoma in a stable patient is likely to occur due to pancreatic injury It may
- present with mild symptoms, be asymptomatic or be masked by symptoms from other injuries
- related to trauma Abdominal CT is the diagnostic modality of choice. Frequently nonexpanding
- hematomas in this location will be treated conservatively (ie. non-operatively)
- 11
- Due to its intra-abdominal
- abdominal origin. lymphatic drainage of the testis is to the para-aortic
- para lymph
- nodes. In contrast, lymph drainage from the scrotum goes into the superficial inguinal lymph
- nodes
- The pupillary light reflex is assessed by shini
- shining
- ng light in an eye and observing the response in that
- eye (direct) and the opposite eye (consensual). The optic nerve (CN U) is responsible for the
- afferent limb of the pupillary reflex, and the oculomotor nerve (CN Ill) is responsible for the
- efferent limb
- Low-frequency
- frequency sound is best detected at the apex of the cochlea near the helicotrema High-
- High
- frequency sound is best detected at the base of the cochlea near the oval and round windOws.
- The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is at risk of injury during thyroidectomy due
- to its proximity to the superior thyroid artery and vein This nerve innervates the cricothyroid
- muscle
- The splenic artery originates from the celiac artery and gives off several branches to the stomach
- and pancreas (pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries) before finally reaching
- the spleen Due to poor anastomoses. the gastric tissue supsupplied
- plied by the short gastric arteries is
- vulnerable to ischemic injury following splenic artery blockage
- BPH is a common, age-related
- related condition that causes urinary symptoms and can be medically
- treated with aa drenergic blockers or 55-ci
- ci reductase inhibitors. The prostate is located between
- the pubic symphysis and the anal canal in inferior sections of the pelvis on CT scan.
- The third part of the duodenum courses horizontally across the abdominal aorta and inferior vena
- cava at the level of the third lumbar vertebra. Here it is in close association with the uncinate
- process of the pancreas and the superior m
- mesentenc vesse1s
- Prolonged exposure to loud noises causes hearing loss due to damage of the stereociliated hair
- cells of the organ of Corti
- ANATOMY-Rest-2
- In horseshoe kidney, both kidneys are fused together at the poles in early embryonic Iife The
- isthmus of horseshoe kidney usually lies anterior to the aorta and inferior vena cava and posterior
- to the inferior mesentenc artery This centrally located isthmus becomes trapped behind the
- inferior mesentenc artery during the relative ascent of the kidne
- kidney
- The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins at the
- level of L4-L5.
- L5. The renal arteries and veins lie at the level of Li. The IVC returns venous blood
- from the lower extremities, portal system and abdominal and pelvic viscera to the right atrium of
- the heart
- 12
- The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins at the
- level of L4-L5. The renal arteries and veins lie at the level of Li The IVC returns venous blood
- from the lower extremities, portal system and abdominal and pelvic viscera to the right atrium of
- the heart
- A penetrating injury at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space would puncture the
- anterior surface of the heart The right ventricle composes most of the hearts anterior surface
- The left ventncle forms the apex of the heart and reaches as far as the fifth intercostal space at
- the left midclavicular line All other chambers of the heart lie medial to the left midclavicular Iine
- The lungs overlap much of the anterior surface of the heart.
- The coronary sinus communicates freely with the right atrium and therefore may become dilated
- secondary to any factor that causes right atrial ddatation The most common such factor is
- pulmonary artery hypertension, which leads to elevated right heart pressures.
- The left atrium forms the majority of the postenor surface of the heart and resides adjacent to the
- esophagus. Enlargement of the left atnum can compress the esophagus and cause dysphagia.
- The descending thoracic aorta lies posterior to the esophagus and the left atrium. This position
- permits clear visualization of the descending aorta by transesophageal echocardiography,
- allowing for the detection of abnormalities such as dissection or aneurysm.
- Aspirated or inhaled particles are most likely to become lodged in the right main bronchus or its
- branches because this bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertically oriented than the left main
- bronchus.
- Aortic rupture is most commonly due to motor vehicle accidents, and the most common site of
- injury is the aortic isthmus, which is the connection between the ascending and descending aorta
- distal to where the left subclavian artery branches off the aorta
- Lesions of the jugular foramen can result in jugular foramen (Vernet) syndrome, which is
- characterized by the dysfunction of CN IX, X, and XL
- The lung apices extend above the level of the clavicle and first rib through the superior thoracic
- aperture. Penetrating injury in this area may lead to pneumothorax
- Lymph from the testes drains through lymph channels directly back to the para-aortic lymph
- nodes. In contrast, lymph from the scrotum drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
- The internal laryngeal nerve mediates the afferent limb of the cough reflex above the vocal cords
- Foreign bodies (eg, chicken or fish bones) can become lodged in the piriform recess and may
- cause damage to the nerve, impairing the cough reflex
- 13
- Thoracocentesis should be performed above the 7 rib in midclavicular line, the 9 rib along
- midaxillary line and the 1 1’ rib along posterior scapular hne Insertion of a needle lower than
- these points increases the risk of penetrating abdominal structures, and insertion of the needle on
- the inferior margin of the rib risks striking the subcostal neurovascular bundle
- The chest x-ray in acute left ventricular failure with pulmonary edema shows cardiomegaly
- (heart> I
- hemithorax in size), pleural effusions, Kerley B lines, and increased vascular shadowing
- (alveolar edema)
- bilaterally.
- Left ventricular leads in biventricular pacemakers course through the coronary sinus, which
- resides in the atrioventncular groove on the posterior aspect of the heart
- The inferior wall of the left ventricle forms most of the diaphragmatic surface of the heart The
- posterior descending artery supplies this area In 85-90% of individuals, the posterior descending
- artery derives from the right coronary artery
- Irntaton of the mediastinal or diaphragmatic panetal pleura wiN cause sharp pain, worse on
- inspiration, in the C3-C5 distribution. Pain sensation from these areas is carned by the phrenic
- nerVe.
- The left kidney lies immediately deep to the tip of the 1 2th rib on the Ieft
- The arrow on the chest X-ray above points to the right atiium On postero-antenor (PA) chest X-
- ray projections, the right atrium composes most of the right side of the cardiac silhouette The
- right atrium receives venous blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae, which compose the
- superior and inferior
- The right atrium receives venous blood from both the superior vena cava and the inferior vena
- cava The right atrium makes up the majority of the right border of the heart on PA chest fIlms
- The right ventricle forms the anterior waN of the heart and is best seen on lateral chest X-rays
- The SVC and IVC compose the superior and inferior borders of the cardiac silhouette on the
- right side.
- The great saphenous vein is a superficial vein of the leg that originates on the medial side of the
- foot, courses anterior to the medial mafleolus and then traveis up the medial aspect of the leg and
- thigh It drains into the femoral vein within the region of the femoral triangle, a few centimeters
- inferolateral to the pubic tubercle.
- The portal vein can be identified on cross-sectional scans lying medial to (or just within) the
- right lobe of the liver and anterior to the inferior vena cava. The pressure in the portal system is
- elevated in liver cirrhosis.
- A pudendal nerve block can be performed by injecting anesthetic intravaginally in the region of
- the ischial spine Blocking the pudendal nerve provides anesthesia to the majority of the perineum
- 14
- additional blockade of the genitofemoral and ilioinguinal nerves would provide complete
- penneal and genital anesthesia
- Apical lung tumors are called Pancoast tumors Pancoast tumors can cause Homer syndrome,
- SVC syndrome, arm weakness, arm paresthesias, and hoarseness
- The inferior vena cava courses through the abdomen and interior thorax in a location anterior to
- the right half of the vertebral bodies. The renal veins join the PlC at the level of L1112, and the
- common iliac veins merge to become the IVC at the level of L4
- An early systolic murmur best heard over the left lower sternal border that is accentuated by
- inspiration is most likely due to tncuspid regurgitation
- 15
- BEHAVIORAL-1
- Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by symptoms of schizophrenia in the presence of
- prominent mood symptoms A period of at least 2 weeks of psychotic symptoms in the absence of
- mood symptoms is required for the diagnosis.
- A temporary course of benzodiazepines
- zodiazepines is sometimes used during the SSRI initiation period if
- there is a significant increase in anxiety related symptoms. Triazolam is a benzodiazepine that
- can be useful for treating insomnia in patients employed in mission
- mission-critical
- critical positions, as its
- i short
- half-life
- life minimizes undesirable daytime side effects.
- Obstructive sleep apnea is the most common medical cause of excessive daytime sleepiness in
- the US It occurs due to poor oropharyngeal tone and results in daytime sleepiness, morning
- headaches, and depression
- Obstructive sleep apnea is the most common medical cause of excessive daytime sleepiness in
- the US It occurs due to poor oropharyngeal tone and results in daytime sleepiness, morning
- headaches, and depression
- The hallmark of generalized zed anxiety disorder is excessive worry over several different issues
- lasting at least 6 months. It is treated with antidepressants and benzodiazepines.
- Among drugs of abuse. intoxication with hallucinogens (psychotomimetic drugs), amphetamines,
- and cocaine
- aine is most commonly associated with violent behavior. Hallucinogens include LSD and
- phencyclidine (PCP, angel dust) Belligerence and psychomotor agitation tend to be more
- common with PCP than with LSD intoxication.
- According to guidelines released by the American Psychiatric Association (2002) the mainstay
- of therapy for acute mania is a mood stabilizing agent (eg lithium, vaiproate, or carbamazepine)
- plus an atypical antipsychotic (e.g olanzapine).
- In non-emergentt settings. one should always use a trained objective interpreter when there is a
- language barrier involving a patient. This also applies to hearing
- hearing-impaired
- impaired patients using
- American Sign Language.
- Suppression is a conscious, mature defense mechanism inv
- invoMng
- oMng withholding troublesome
- thoughts or impulses
- Avoidant personality disorder is a maladaptive pattern of behavior characterized by feelings of
- inadequacy, timidity, and fear of rejection.
- There are five subtypes of schizophrenia. each characterize
- characterized
- d by a set of prominent symptoms.
- Disorganized schizophrenia is distinguished by disorganized speech and behavior and a flat or
- inappropriate affect.
- 16
- PCP or phencyclidine is a hallucinogen that works by inhibiting the excitatory NMDA receptor.
- Moderate amounts of PCP cause feelings of detachment and distance Additionally, PCP can
- produce slurred speech, loss of coordination (ataxia). involuntary movements, exaggerated gait,
- and nystagmus It can induce paranoia and hallucinations and most users will become very hostile
- and aggressive.
- Passive-aggressive behavior is the expression of hostile feelings in a non-confrontational
- manner.
- Patients with delusional disorder harbor nonbizarre delusions but do not meet the criteria for
- schizophrenia and can function without significant impairment in day-to-day life
- Clinicians have ethical and moral obligations to report elder abuse. neglect and exploitation If
- there is reason to suspect abuse or neglect, the patient should be interviewed alone to avoid
- intimidation by possible abusers
- The only serotonin-releasing neurons in the CNS are found in the raphe nuclei These neurons
- disseminate widely to synapse on numerous structures in the CNS
- Marijuana contains THC which stimulates cannabinoid receptors to produce effects on mood,
- perception, and memory. Marijuana produces a mild euphoria with laughing behavior, slowed
- reflexes, dizziness, impaired coordination, and short term memory loss. Rapid heart rate and
- conjunctival injection are the two most immediate physical symptoms of marijuana use. It
- remains in tissues for a significant amount of time and can be detected up to 30 days after use.
- Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by recurrent, obsessive, anxiety-inducing
- thoughts, plus behavioral compulsions aimed at reducing the anxiety. In most cases of OCD, the
- patient understands the unreasonable nature of their thoughts and behaviors OCD often starts in
- childhood
- Conversion disorder refers to the unconscious manifestation of neurologic symptoms when
- pathophysiological explanations for the symptoms cannot be found It occurs more commonly in
- women and often occurs after a significant life stress
- Obsessive compulsive disorder is characterized by persistent intrusive thoughts that lead to
- repetitive behaviors These thoughts and actions cause significant distress and functional
- impairment Affected individuals recognize the absurdity of their thoughts and actions but are
- unable to stop them
- Transference is the unconscious shifting of emotions or desires associated with one person (eg.
- sibling, parent, spouse) to another (eg physician. therapist) It can be positive or negative
- Differentiation of Delirium and Dementia
- 1 Onset: Acute in delirium vs. gradual in dementia
- 2. Consciousness Impaired in delirium vs. intact in dementia
- 17
- 3. Course: Fluctuating symptoms in delinum vs. progressive decline in dementia
- 4 Prognosis: Reversible symptoms in delinum vs. irreversible symptoms in dementia
- 5. Memory impairment: Global in delirium vs. remote memory spared in dementia
- Patients with prefrontal lobe injury often experience behavioral and personality changes,
- secondary to impairment of the organizational, restraint, and motivational systems Frontal lobe
- syndrome can manifest in variable ways, but can often be categorized into disorganized.
- disinhibited. and apathetic types.
- Narcolepsy is a disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and REM steep—related
- phenomena such as cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogicihypnopompic hallucinations.
- There are three categories of postpartum mood disturbances The most common is the postpartum
- blues, a benign, self-limited change in affect that lasts up to 10 days postpartum It is treated with
- watchful waiting and the knowledge that up to 20% of these women will develop postpartum
- depression
- Reaction f0rmaon the replacement of an unpleasant or unacceptable thought or desire with an
- emphasis on its opposfte
- Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge-eating and either restrictive or
- purging compensatory behaviors. Anorexia nervosa is distinguished from bulimia nervosa by
- abnormally low body weight (< 85% of ideal or BMI < 175 kg/m) and amenorrhea
- Acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder present with identical symptoms
- (recurrent nightmares and flashbacks, potential memory loss, and exaggerated startle respOnse).
- Acute stress disorder can last no more than four weeks, however, while post-traumatic stress
- disorder lasts longer than four weeks.
- Projection refers to transplanting ones unacceptable impulses or affect onto another person or
- situation. It is an immature defense mechanism.
- Basic interviewing techniques include facilitation, reflection, confrontation, support, empathy.
- silence, and direct and indirect questioning. Support involves expressing concern independent of
- understanding. This is in contrast to empathy, where the physician expresses understanding and
- vicarious experiencing of a patients situation.
- There are numerous defense mechanisms (all of which the USMLE loves). Splitting refers to
- seeing the world in “black and white’ and is common amongst patients with borderline
- personality disorder
- At three years of age a child is expected to be able to play in parallel. speak in simple sentences,
- copy a simple shape, and ride a tricycle
- 18
- Psychotic symptoms that interfere with the patients functional status are classified as brief
- psychotic disorder if the symptoms last less than one month. schizophreniform disorder if the
- symptoms last one to six months, and schizophrenia if the symptoms last more than six months.
- Opiate withdrawal is marked by abdominal pain. nausea. vomiting. diarrhea. piloerection,
- pupillary dilation, diaphoresis and fever. It can occur in patients taking narcotics legally or
- Illegally.
- When patients are unable to make their wishes known and there is no written documentation of
- these wishes, the responsibility for medical decision making falls to their designated health care
- proxy If a patient has not designated a surrogate decision-maker, medical decisions default to the
- next of kin In the case of a married person, the next of kin is usually the spouse.
- BEHAVIORAL-2
- In situations where patients are unable to make decisions for themselves, responsibility for those
- decisions falls on the next of kin if the patient has no written directives clearly stating their
- intentions. The next of kin for a married person is their spouse followed by their adult children
- The next of kin is to make decisions based on how they believe the patient would have wanted
- things.
- Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by alternating bingirig and weight reduction
- behaviors. Patients can develop bilateral parotid gland enlargement, erosion of tooth enamel, and
- irregular menses.
- Minors can consent to treatment for pregnancy, sexually transmitted disease, birth control, and
- drug or alcohol addiction without Darental consent or notification.
- Disability is a form of assistance provided to workers who can no longer work due to their
- general medical condition: it requires certification of disability by a physician When interacting
- with difficult patients, it is best to try to calm them, explain your position and inquire more about
- what troubles them by using open-ended questions.
- There are numerous somatoform disorders Body dysmorphic disorder is one in which a patient
- believes his or her body is pathologically flawed when, in fact, it is not There is a high rate of
- comorbid major depressive disorder and suicide attempts among patients with BDD
- Adult patients who are competent or have outlined their wishes in a living will have the authority
- to refuse any form of treatment, including life-saving therapies In an emergency situation, if
- there is any doubt in a clinician’s mind concerning the wishes of a patient, the best course of
- action is to treat according to the accepted standard of care. In an emergency, the physician
- should always provide potentially life-saving therapy to a minor.
- 19
- Adult patients who are competent or have outlined their wishes in a living will have the authority
- to refuse any form of treatment, including lifelife-saving
- saving therapies In an emergency situation, if
- there is any doubt in a cIinicians mind concerning the wishes of a patlea the best course of action
- is to treat according to the accepted standard of care In an emergency, the physician should
- always provide potentially life-saving
- saving therapy to a minor.
- Psychogenic causes of ED account for approximately 10% of cases and include performance
- anxiety, sexual partner dissatisfaction, and marital problems Important clues that point toward
- psychogenic impotence include sudden onset and the presence of morning eerectIons.
- rectIons.
- When an ill patient requests your prayers in an acute setting. it is appropriate to offer your
- personal support without interjecting your personal beliefs into the interaction The overriding
- goal in these situations is to do no harm” This can be achieved by not disagreeing with the
- patient, not entering into a religious debate with them, and not displacing responsibility for the
- care of the patient onto others.
- If as part of a medical team you have been asked to perform an action that you feelfe will cause
- harm to the patient, it is your ethical obligation to discuss that order with your supervising or
- colleague physician who has made the questionable suggestion in order to reach a consensus
- without invoMng the patient or ancillary staff.
- en treating patients that are referred to you for specialty care or second opinions, it is
- When
- imperative to not undermine the patienVs relationship with his or her primary provider Avoid
- making negative comments about the quality of care rendered by that prac
- practitioner
- titioner
- PaIents who are temporarily incapacitated should not be allowed to make important health care
- decisions.
- In situations where a parent is complicating an interview or where you feel you will not be able
- to get honest answers from the adolesce
- adolescent
- nt patient with the parent present, it is appropriate to
- politely ask the parent to wait outside while you interview the patient This is also important
- when discussing drugs, alcohol, tobacco and sexual activity with teenagers.
- Displacement is one of thee less mature defense mechanisms In displacement. a patient will
- redirect emotions from the person or object that is causing the negative emotions to a more
- acceptable, but still inappropriate, person or object.
- Patient confidentiality is strongly prote
- protected
- cted because patients must feel free to disclose details on
- all aspects of their lives so that physicians can provide optimal care. Patient confidentiality can
- be breached in only 4 exceptional circumstances suspected child or elder abuse, gunshot or
- stabbing
- ing injuries, diagnosis of a reportable communicable disease, and when patients believably
- threaten to physically harm themselves or others.
- 20
- A patient who is competent and not incapacitated has the right to refuse treatment by a physician
- at any time, even if that treatment is life-saving. A competent patient understands their situation
- as well as the possible consequences of decisions made in that situation.
- Health care information should be fully disclosed, unless the patient has expressly asked not to
- be informe<i
- Dysthymic disorder is a chronic. low-intensity mood disorder that responds well to
- antidepressant medications. Its symptoms are less severe than those of major depressive disorder,
- but they must be present for at least 2 years before the diagnosis can be made
- As a rule, physicians should maintain a general policy of not accepting gifts from patients or
- their families; especially if the gifts are of great value. preferential treatment is expected, or if the
- patient is demented. Exceptions to this rule would be in the case of a one-time gift of small or
- token value (eg, cookies).
- No matter how serious or trivial a medical error, a physician is ethically obligated to inform a
- patient that a mistake has been made. Ethics committees and risk management personnel can
- assist if a patient wishes to speak with someone or threatens a lawsuit
- Just as competent patients have the right to refuse medical care. they also have the right to refuse
- knowledge of their own medical information and diagnoseS. In cases such as these it is essential
- to ensure that the patient is well-informed before they make their decision and find out from the
- patient who their surrogate decision-maker should be.
- Consent of a married or unmarried significant other is not required for a patient to undergo any
- type of procedure, elective or nonelective. It is necessary to counsel the patient of the risks,
- benefits, alternatives and contraindications of any procedure or treatment, and the physician
- should additionally counsel the patient that she may want to discuss her decision with her
- significant other to avoid social difficulties later.
- Ethical principles as well as the Health Insurance Portabibty and Accountability Act of 1996
- (HIPAA, Title II) dictate that patient information can not be disclosed to others, including loved
- ones and family members, without the explicit consent of the patient Documentation that the
- patient has granted consent for disclosure of their health information should be placed in the
- patienfs chart
- The first step in addressing noncomphant patients is to educate them about the disease being
- treated, the risks of not treating this disease, and how interventions can help them avoid or lessen
- these risks
- The responsibility of the physician who serves in a medical capacity at a sporting event is to
- protect the health and safety of the players The desire of the spectators, coaches, or patient that
- an athlete not be removed from the game should not affect the physician’s decision The
- physician’s judgment should be guided only by medical considerations.
- 21
- Using open-ended questions is the most effective way to start clinical histories Once the patient
- has started his history, one can use closed-ended follow-up questions to clarify certain pointS.
- In situations where you need to relay difficult information to a patient. you should take the
- approach of immediately informing the patient of the news, gMng them a moment to think about
- the news, and subsequently explaining what the news means and what their options are. You
- should always end by answering any questions the patient may have.
- White coat syndrome’ (patient anxiety evoked by healthcare workers dressed in white coats) is
- an example of classical conditioning, wherein the white coat serves as a conditioned stimulus for
- anxiety
- Prescription of antibiotics for diseases that are not bacterial in origin is not proper procedure.
- This practice contributes to the societal prob$ern of antibiotic resistance, and it places the patient
- at unreasonable risks due to adverse reactions to antibiotic therapy
- It is unethical to discuss any information regarding the patient’s diagnosis. treatment, prognosis,
- etc. with a physician who is not involved in the patient’s care. Likewise, the physician should
- neither confirm nor deny whether the person of interest is, in fact, a patient
- Advance care planning for end of life issues such as desire for intubation. mechanical ventilation,
- tube feedings, parenteral feedings, CPR and cardioversion are best initially discussed during
- outpatient visits with primary care providers These decisions must also be readdressed during the
- admission process for acute admissions so that medical staff can adhere to the specific wishes of
- patients
- 22
- BIOCHEMISTRY 1
- Ubiqurtin is a protein that undergoes ATP-dependent attachment to other proteins, labeling them
- for degradation. These modified prote.ns enter the proteasome and are degraded into small
- peptides Impairment of the ubiquitin-proteasome system can contribute to the development of
- neurodegenerative disorders. including Parldnson’s and Alzheimer’s diseases
- All three prokaryotic DNA polymerases have proof reading actrvity and remove mismatched
- nucleotides via 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity. Only DNA polymerase I has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease
- activity which is used to excise and replace RNA primers and damaged DNA sequences.
- The 1P3 second messenger system begins with hormone binding and G-protein activation
- leading to activation of phospholipase C. Phospholipase C forms diacyiglycerol and lP3 from
- phospholipids, and 1P3 causes an increase in intracellular calcium, which then activates protein
- kinase C.
- Arginase is an enzyme of the urea cycle that produces urea and ornEthine from arginine
- Helicase unwinds DNA at the replication fork and separates dsDNA into ssDNA during the
- replication process. Initial separation of dsDNA at the origin of replication is facilitated by DnaA
- protein and strand binding proteins (SSB) proteins
- Extracellular propeptidases cleave disulfide-rich terminal extensions from the procollagen
- molecule. This results in formation of water-insoluble triple helical collagen fibrils.
- Tyrosine becomes essential in PKU pabents because can no longer be synthesized from
- phenylalanine Phenylketonuna (P1(U) results from an rnabihty to convert phenylalanwie to
- tyrosine by the phenylalanine hydroxylase system Although neonatal hyperphenylalaninemia can
- be caused by deficiences in any of the phenylalanine hydroxylase system, most are attnbutable to
- abnormaIies in the phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme
- snRNPs (small nuclear nbonucleoproteins) are synthesized by RNA polymerase II in the nucleus.
- They help to remove introns from the RNA transcript and are thus necessary for synthesis of
- messenger RNA
- The zinc-containwig 6-Aminolevulinate dehydratase and ferrochelatase are enzymes in the heme
- biosynthetic pathway that are inactivated by lead Thus, in lead poisoning, ö-AL4 and
- protoporphyrin IX accumulate, and the production of heme is decreased, leading to microcytic
- anemia secondary to a lack of hemoglObin.
- DNA poiymer;selhas 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activify in addition to its 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to
- 5’ exonuclease activities. This 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity is used to remove the RNA primer
- (which initiates DNA polymerization) and to remove damaged DNA.
- Hydrogen bonds are the principal stabdizing force for the secondary structure of proteins.
- 23
- A patient with orotic aciduna (impaired de novo pyrimidine synthesis) will present with
- hypochromic megaloblastic anemia, neurologic abnorrnahties. growth retardation and excretion
- of orotic acid in the urine Uridine supplementation impioves symptoms by inhibiting carbamoyl
- phosphate synthetase II.
- Homocystinuna is caused by cystathionirie synthetase deficiency Affected individuals manifest
- with skeletal abnormalities resembling those of Marfan syndrome In addition, they are also at
- high risk of developing thromboembolism About 50% of affected patients respond to high doses
- of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
- N-acetylglutamate is an essential activator of carbamoyl phosphate synthase I and is formed by
- the enzyme N-acetylglutamate synthetase from the precursors acetyl-CoA and glutamate.
- In Niemann-Pick disease. deficiency of sphingomyelinase causes abnormal accumulations of the
- ceramide phospholipid sphingomyehn and neurologic detenoration within the first year of life
- The nitrogen atoms in the urea moIecue are derived from NH3 and aspartate in the urea cycle
- Remember that carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS I) is the rate-limiting enzyme in the urea
- cycle reaction and is activated by N-acetylglutamate (NAG)
- Vitamin A ovewse can result in intracranial hypertension. skin changes and hepatosplenomegaly
- tRNA is the smallest subtype of cellular RNA It is responsible for transporting amino acids to the
- site of protein synthesis and introducing them into the growing polypeptide chain at the correct
- locations The 3k-end of the tRNA molecule is the site of amino acid binding. The opposite side
- of the molecule contains the antic odon loop, which recognizes a specific codon on the mRNA
- molecule
- Glycine is the most abundant amino acid in the collagen molecule. IL occurs in AT LEAST
- every third amino acid position The amino acid formula & collagen is (-Gly-X-Y-)333
- LeSCh-Nyhan syndrome is an X-Iinked recessive disorder caused by a defect in hypoxanthine-
- guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT). This results in failure of the purine salvage
- pathway Because they are not recycled, increased amounts of the purine bases hypoxanthine and
- guanine are degraded to uric acid. De novo purine synthesis must increase to replace the lost
- bases.
- Chronic thiamine (BI) deficiency leads to the diminished abihty of cerebral cells to utilize
- glucose The mechanism is decreased function of the enzymes that use vitamin Bi as a cot actor
- (pyruvate dehydrogenase. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, and transketolase) Thiamine
- deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring erythrocyte transketolase activity
- Propionyl CoA is derived from amino acids (Val, lie, Met, and Thr), odd-numbered fatty acids,
- and cholesterol side chains Congenital deficiency of propionyl C0A carboxylase, the enzyme
- responsible for the conversion of propionyl CoA to methylmalonyl C0A, leads to the
- development of propionic acidemia
- 24
- Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency is the most common disorder of the urea cycle, resulting
- in severe neurological abnorrnahties due to high blood and tissue ammonia levels, Increased
- urine orotic acid excretion is typica[
- Branched.chaina-ketoacid dehydrogenase. similar to pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate
- dehydrogenase, requires
- several coenzymes Thiamine pyrophosphate, Lipoate, Coenzyme A. FAD, NAD (mnemonic
- Tender Loving
- Care For Nancy). Some patients with maple syrup unne disease improve with high-dose thiamine
- treatment
- (thiamine-responsive), but most still require lifelong dietary restncbons
- Deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase or of its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin
- causes accumulation of phenylalanine in body fluids and the central nervous system (CNS). The
- homozygous infant is normal at birth, but mental retardation develops gradually in untreated
- infants and is frequently evident within six months of life
- Transamination reactions typically occur between an amino acid and an a-keto acid The amino
- group from the amino acid is transferred to the a-keto acid, and the a-keto acid in turn becomes
- an amino acid. Pyndoxal phosphate (vitamin B6) serves as a cofactor in amino acid
- transamination and in decarboxylation reactions.
- Antibodies to citrulinated peptides/proteins have a high specificity for rheumatoid arthritis.
- Marfans syndrome is due to a defect m fibrillin. an extracellular glycoprotein that is abundant in
- the zonular fibers of the lens, the periosteum and the aortic media The different locations of
- fibrillin production explains the varied clinical manifestations of Marfan’s syndrome.
- Peroxisomal diseases are rare inborn errors of metabolism where peroxisomes are either absent
- or nonfunctional Very long chain fatty acids or fatty acids with branch points at odd-numbered
- carbons can not undergo mitochondnal beta-oxidation, these fatty acids are metabolized by a
- special form of beta oxidation (very long chain fatty acids) or by alpha oxidation (branched chain
- fatty acids such as phytanic acid) within peroxisomes These diseases commonly lead to
- neurologic defects from improper CNS myelination.
- Gout can occur with increased frequency in patients with activating mutations in
- 5’-phosphoribosyl-P-pyrophosphate (PRPP) synthetase due to an increased production of
- purines, which results in hyperuricemia
- Coichicine is useful in the acute management of gouty arthritis because it inhibits the chemotaxis
- of neutrophils by preventing microtubule formation.
- Niernann-Pick disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a deficiency of the
- sphingomyelinase enzyme and resuttant accumaiation of sphingomyelin. Patients present ii
- 25
- infancy with loss of motor skiBs. hepatosplenomegaly, hypotonia and a cherry-red macular spot.
- Foamy histiocytes are the classic finding on tissue histology Death occurs before age 3
- Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4) is a cofactor used in the synthesis of tyrosine, DOPPL serotonin. and
- nitric oxide.
- Initially. tyrosine is converted to DOPA by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase, with BH used as a
- cofactor
- Next, DOPA is decarboxylated to dopamine by the enzyme DOPA decarboxyLase In atypical
- phenylketonuna
- (PKU) wrth tyrosine supplementation, only the catecholamine synthesis reachons downstream of
- tyrosine are
- compromised
- Ehiers-Danlos syndrome is a heritable connective tissue disease associated with abnormal
- collagen forrnation EDS usually manifests clinically as over-flexible (hypermobile) joints, over-
- elastic (hyperelastic) skin, and fragile tissue susceptible to bruising, wounding, and
- herna,’throsis.
- Procollagen is synthesized by a series of steps within the endoplasmic reticulum of cells such as
- fibroblasts. This molecule is then released into the extracellular space by transport through the
- Golgi apparatus and converted into collagen by procollagen peptidases that cleave the water
- soluble, non-helical N- and C-terminal portions of the procollagen molecule from procollagen to
- form collagen Collagen monomers are then covalently crosslinked with each other after certain
- residues are oxidized by lysyl oxidase.
- Glycogen degradation is coupled with skeletal muscle contraction due to calcium-mediated
- myophosphorylase activation Increased calcium in the cytosol allosterically activates
- phosphorylase kinase, which then phosphorylates (activates) muscle phosphorylase
- Alkaptonuria is an autosomal-recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme
- homogentisic acid oxidase, which normally breaks down the tyrosine bypoduct homogentisic
- acid (also called alkapton). Accumulated homogentisic acid causes pigment deposits in
- connective tissues throughout the body.
- Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is caused by a defect in a-keto acid dehydrogenase. leading
- to an inability to degrade branched chain amino acids beyond their deaminated a-keto acid state
- This illness classically results in dystonia and poor feeding as well as the maple syrup scent of
- the patients urine within the first few days of life Treatment rests on dietary restnchon of
- branched-chain amino acids
- Aikaptonuna is an autosomal-recessive disorder in which the lack of homogentisic oxidase
- blocks the metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine at the level of homogentisic acid, leading to
- an accumulation of homogentisic acid Homogenhsic acid excreted in the urine imparts a black
- color to urine. if allowed to undergo oxidation Aikaptonuna also causes ocl’wonosis, a blue-
- black pigmentation that is most evident in the ears, nose, and cheeks.
- 26
- Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in the collagen precursor occurs m the RER and
- requires vitamin C as a cofactor Terminal peptide cleavage and collagen fibnl crosshnking occur
- in the extracellular space
- BHsacofactorusedby hydroxytase enzymes m the synthesis of tyrosine. dopa, and serotonin, as
- well as nitric oxide Serotonin is synthesized from tryptophan, and the initial step in this reaction
- is catalyzed by an enzyme that uses BH4 as a cofactor Enzyme dihydrobioptenn reductase
- deficiency causes defective regeneration of BH4, and is an uncommon cause of phenylketonuna
- (PKU).
- Methylmalonic acidemia (also known as methylmalonic aciduria) results from a defect in the
- isomerization reaction that transforms methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA, prior to succinyl
- CoA entering the TCA CycIe
- Alanine is the major amino acid responsible for transferring nitrogen to the liver for disposal
- During the catabolism of proteins, amino groups are transferred to a-ketoglutarate to form
- glutarnate. Glutamate is then processed in the liver to form urea, the primary disposal form of
- nitrogen in humans. Free ammonia is also excreted into the urine by the kidney for regulation of
- acid-base status.
- BIOCHEMISTRY 2
- Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency results ii homocystinemia due to impaired methionine re-
- synthesis Homocystinuria occurs in cobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency because homocysteine
- methyltransferase, the enzyme that converts homocysteine and methyttetrahydrofolate to
- methionine and tetrahydrofolate, requires B12 as a cofactor.
- Heme oxygenase converts heme to biliverdin. a pigment that causes the greenish color to
- develop in bruises several days after an injury.
- There is one codon that signals initiation of protein synthesis (AUG), while three codons stop
- protein synthesis (UM, UAG, and UGA) Transfer RNA molecules (tRNA) transport amino acids
- to the site of protein synthesis and ensure placement of the proper amino acid for a given mRNA
- codon Each tRNA contains a specific anticodon that is complementary (oriented in an
- antiparallel direction) to certain mRNA codons,
- In the lungs, hemoglobin binds oxygen and releases protons while, in the tissues, it releases and
- acquires protons. Deoxyhemoglobin is stabilized by ionic bonding of 2,3 DPG to the two beta
- subunits and by salt bridges between N-terminal histidine residues in each globuIin
- Pnmase is a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that mcorporates short RNA primers into
- replicating DNA.
- 27
- Hemoglobin S (HbS) aggregates in the deoxygenated state HbS polymers form fibrous strands
- that reduce red blood cell membfane flexibility and promote sickling Sickling occurs under all
- conditions associated with anoxia including low pH and high 2,3 2,3-DPG.
- DPG. These inflexible
- inflexibl
- erythrocytes predispose to microvascular occlusion and microinfarction
- The PI3KJAkt)mTOR pathway is an intracellular signaling pathway important for anti-apoptosis,
- anti
- cellular proliferation, and angiogenesis. Mutations in growth factor receptors. Akt
- Ak mTOR. or
- PTEN that enhance the activity of this pathway contribute to cancer pathogenesis.
- Decreased heme concentration resu’ts in an increase in hepatic ALA synthase activity, which in
- turn, leads to increased formation of öö-aminolevuhnic acid and porphobdinogen
- rphobdinogen Increased
- formation of ö-arninolevulinic
- arninolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen occurs because heme normally serves to
- inhibit the synthesis of ALA synthase.
- The liver takes up indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin through a passive process and secretes direct
- dire
- (conjugated) bilirubin through an active process. Unconjugated bilirubin is virtually insoluble in
- water at physiologic pH and is tightly complexed to serum albumin while in the circulation This
- form cannot be excreted in the urine, even when blood levelevels
- ls are high. Conjugated bihrubin is
- water-soluble, non-toxic,
- toxic, and only loosely bound to albumin. it is freely excreted in the urine.
- Releasing factors recognize the stop codons (UAA, UAG and UGA) to terminate protein
- synthesis They facditate release of the polypeptide chain from the hbosome and dissolution of
- the ribosome-mRNA complex
- Exertional dyspnea. pneumonia resulting in life
- life-threatening
- threatening acute chest syndrome. and recurrent
- abdominal and bone pain are clinical features of sickle cell anemia SicklSicklee cell anemia results
- from a point mutation that causes valine to substitute for glutamic acid in the sixth position of the
- b-globin chain of hemoglobin.
- Glucose 6-phosphate
- phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is a common X X-Iinked
- Iinked disorder of the hexose
- monophosphate
- ate pathway that results in episodes of hemolytic anemia due to oxidative stress.
- The key functions of important apolipoproteins are as follows:
- ApoA-l:
- l: LCAT activation (cholesterol esterification)
- ApoB48: Chylomicron assembly and secretion by the intestine
- ApoB-100:
- 100: LDL particle uptake by extrahepatic cells
- ApoC-Il:
- Il: Lipoprotein hpase activation
- ApoE-33 & 4: VLDL and chytomicron remnant uptake by Irver cells
- Fabry disease is an inherited deficie
- deficiency of alpha-galactosidase
- galactosidase A that causes accumulation of the
- globoside ceramide tnhexoside ii tissues The earliest manifestations of Fabry disease are
- angiokeratomas, hypohidrosis and acroparesthesia Without enzyme replacement, patients
- typically develop progressive
- rogressive renal failure
- 28
- Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is a defect in the HMP shunt that impairs
- glutathione reduction due to failure to produce NADPH. Glutathione reductase deficiency causes
- a similar clinical picture and is pathophysiologically similar to G6PD deficiency
- Western blotting is used to identify proteins. Northern blotting identifies specific RNA
- sequences and Southern blotting identifies specific DNA sequences in an unknown sample
- HbF dominates in newboms It consists of two alpha and two gamma protein subunits (ci2y2),
- has a high affinity for oxygen and is produced during the final seven months of gestation
- Switching to HbA (a232) occurs during the first six months of life
- SngIe nucleotide deIeions shift the reading frame, often creating a premature stop codon or
- dramatically changing the protein structure,
- Methemoglobinemla causes dusky discoloration to the skin (similar to cyanosis), and because
- methemoglobin is unable to carry oxygen. a state of functional anemia is induced The blood
- partial pressure of 02, however, will be unchanged in this condition because oxygen’s partial
- pressure is a measure of dissolved in the plasma and is not related to hemoglobin funchon
- The individual subunits of the hemoglobin molecule are structurally analogous to myoglobin. If
- separated, the subunits will demonstrate a hyperbolic oxygen-dissociation curve similar to that of
- myoglobin.
- In order for a child to have sickle cell disease, both parents must be carriers. The carrier status of
- prospective parents can be established by hemoglobin electrophoresis.
- Normally, 2, 3-DPG forms ionic bonds with the two beta subunits of HbA in the tissues after
- hemoglobin has been deoxygenated Fetal hemoglobrn binds oxygen with a higher affinity due to
- its inability to interact with 2, 3- DPG. Ultimately, the fetal hemoglobin must be able to extract
- 02 from maternal hemoglobrn in the placenta
- Transketolase and transaldolase carry out the nonoxidative reactions of HMP shunt Some cells
- do not use the oxidative phase reactions to produce cytosohc NADPH, but all cells can
- synthesize nbose from fructose-6-phosphate using the nonoxidative reactions
- Nitrites are oxidizing agents that are effective in the treatment of cyanide poisoning due to their
- ability to cause methemoglobinemia Methemoglobin contains femc rather than ferrous iron
- Cyanide binds to ferric iron more avidly than to mitochondnal cytochrome enzymes. which saves
- these mitochondnal enzymes from cyanides toxic effect.
- The thaassemias result from mutations that cause detective mRNA processing, which leads to
- deficiency of certain protein chains required for hemoglobin synthesis Beta-thalassemia minor is
- typically an asymptomatic disorder Laboratory tests will show a mild hypochromic microcytic
- anemia with increased HbF, Hb% and target cefls
- 29
- CO binds to hemoglobin with an affinity that is 220 times that of oxygen for hemoglobin The
- binding of CO and 0. to hemoglobin are reversible. CO. therefore, competes with O for binding
- bin
- on the heme iron of hemoglobin
- The symptoms of difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia) and disfigured fingernails (spoon nails or
- koilonychia) are specific for iron deficiency anemia
- Homocysteine is converted to methionine using methylcobalamin and methyl tetrahydrofolate.
- Folate deficiency inhibits the formation of deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP), which
- limits DNA synthesis and promotes megaloblastosis and erythroid precursor cell apoptosis
- Because thymidine supplementation can moderately in increase
- crease dTMP levels, it can reduce
- erythroid precursor cell apoptosis
- Matunng erythrocytes lose their abihty to synthesize herne when they lose their mitochondria.
- Mitochondria are necessary for the first and final three steps of herne synthesis.
- vate kinase deficiency causes hemolytic anemia due to failure of glycolysis and resultant
- Pyruvate
- failure to generate sufficient ATP to maintain erythrocyte structure. In this case, splenic
- hypertrophy results from increased work of the splenic parenchyma, which m must
- ust remove these
- deformed erythrocytes from the circulation.
- The Kozak sequence plays a role in the initiation of translation A mutation three bases upstream
- from the start codon (AUG) in this sequence is associated with thalassemia intermedia
- A mutation
- tion in the Kozak sequence of the betabeta-globin
- globin gene is associated with thalassemia
- intermedia. which results in hypochromic, microcytic anemia.
- HbC is caused by a missense mutation that causes a substitution of glutamate wIth lysine in the
- beta globin chain,
- ain, resufting in increased positive charge of the molecule Thus, HbC moves more
- slowly than both HbA and HbS on hemoglobin gel electrophoresis
- The chronic myeloproliferative disorders (polycythemia vera. essential thrombocytosis, and
- primary myelofibrosis)
- sis) often have a mutation (V617F) in the cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase, Janus
- kinase 2 (JAK2) This results in constitutive tyrosine kinase activity, and consequently, cytokine-
- cytokine
- independent activation of STAT transcription factors.
- With the exception of vitamin
- tamin B.. the body’s stores of most water
- water-soluble
- soluble vitamins are rapidly
- depleted without dietary intake. In contrast, hepatic stores of vitamin B2 may last up to several
- years Severe vitamin K deficiency rarely results from poor dietary intake because colon*c colon
- bacteria produce functional forms of vitamin
- K
- 30
- The P refers to the partial pressure of oxygen where hemoglobin is 50% saturated A decrease in
- the P means that hemoglobin has an increased oxygen affinity An increased oxygen-affinity of
- hemoglobin causes less oxygen to be released in the tssues. and results in hypoxia then reflex
- polycythemia
- Vitamin K assistance of glutamate residue carboxytation is essential for some clotting factor
- production
- Hypoxia-induced lactic acidosis is caused by a low activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase
- (oxidative phosphorylation pathway) and a high activity of lactate dehydrogenase.
- HbS contains valine in place of glutamic acid in the amino acid position of the beta subunit This
- promotes hydrophobic interaction among hemoglobin molecules and results in polymerization of
- HbS molecules and red blood cell distortion
- A left shift of the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve indicates increased hemoglobin 02
- affinity and can be caused by increased pH, decreased 2, 3-DPG, and decreased temperature A
- left-shift of the
- Increased 2,3-BPG concentrations within erythrocytes enable increased oxygen delivery in the
- peripheral tissues in the presence of lower blood oxygen concentration because 2,3-BPG
- decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen 2,3-BPG is produced from 1 ,3-BPG by the
- enzyme bisphosphoglycerate mutase This reaction consumes the energy that would have been
- otherwise used by the erythrocyte to produce energy in the form of ATP
- HbF contains y-globin instead of 13-gIObEi Patients with homozygoüc -thaIassemia (-
- thaIassemia major) are asymptomatic at birth due to the presence of y-globins and HbF
- Switching to HbA production and the cessation of y-globEn synthesis precipitates the symptoms
- of 13-thalassemia
- While DNA synthesis occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction on both strands, the leading and lagging
- strands are constructedin both the 5’ to 3 and 3’ to 5 directions, respectively The lagging strand
- is synthesized discontinuously and is composed of short stretches of RNA primer plus newly
- synthesized DNA segments called Okazak fragments Thus, the lagging strand requires the
- repetitive action of DNA pnmase and DNA ligase.
- BIOCHEMISTRY 3
- In contrast to the rough endoplasmc reticulum (ER). the smooth ER contains enzymes for steroid
- and
- phospholipid biosynthesis. All steroid-prnducing ce’ls (eg, cells m the adrenals. gonads, and
- liver) contain a weII-civp1nned smonth PR
- 31
- High-output congestive heart failure and neurological symptoms are strongly suggestive of wet
- beriberi (thiamine deficiency)
- Elastin’s pIasticty and abdity to recod upon release of tension is attributable to a unique form of
- desmosine crosslinking between four different lysine residues on four different elastin chains
- This crosslinking is accomplished by the action of extraceliular lysyl hydroxylase
- Exposure to radiation including therapeutic and palliative radiation therapy, induces DNA
- damage through DNA double-strand fractures and the formation of oxygen free radicals
- Resembling prokaryotic DNA and being derived completely from the mother. mitochondrial
- DNA (mtDNA) is the most common non.-nuclear DNA found in eukaryotic Cells.
- After 12 to 18 hours of fasting, gluconeogenesis is the principal source of blood glucose
- Gluconeogenesis uses many of the bidirectional enzymes involved in the process of glycolysis,
- but a few unidirectional enzymes need to be bypassed The initial committed step of
- gluconeogenesis involves the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, and oxaloacetate to
- phosphoenolpyruvate
- Protein kinase Ais primarily responsible for the intracellular effects of the G-protein I adenylate
- cyclase second messenger system. Some hormone receptors that use this mechanism include the
- TSH, glucagon, PTH, and beta-adrenergic receptors.
- If AG° is a negative number. K will be greater than 1, and the concentration of products at
- equilibrium wil exceed that of the substrates If AG° is positive, K will be less than 1, and the
- formation of substrates will be favored.
- Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency is a disease with multiple possible presentations ranging
- from neonatal death to mild episodic symptoms in aduRbood By preventing the conversion of
- pyruvate to acetyl C0A. pyruvate is shunted to lactic acid resulting in lactic acidosis in these
- patients Lysine and leucine are exclusively ketogenic and would not increase the blood lactate
- level in patients suffering from pyruvate dehydrogenase deflciency
- Integral membrane proteins contain transmembrane domains composed of alpha helices with
- hydrophobic amino acid residues such as valine, alanine, isoleucme. methionine. and
- phenylalan*ne
- Cysteine becomes an essential amino acid m patients with homocystinuria, as the defective
- enzyme cystathionine synthetase produces the substrate used by cystathionase for the
- endogenous production of cysteine
- In patients with essential fructosura. metabolism of fructose by hexokinase to fructose-6-
- phosphate is the primary method of metabolizing dietary fructose: this pathway Es not
- significant in normal individuals.
- 32
- Aldose reductase converts glucose into sorbitol. which is further metabolized into fructose by
- sorbitol dehydrogenase This pathway is most active in the seminal vesicles The lens also
- contains significant levels of sorbitol dehydrogenase, which become overwhelmed in the setting
- of hyperglycemia Other tissues, such as the retina, renal papilla, and Schwann cells, have much
- less sorbetol dehydrogenase activity
- Okazaki fragments are short stretches of newly synthesized DNA that are separated by RNA
- primers They are formed by the discontinuous synthesis of DNA on the lagging strand dunng
- replication
- Deletions or the addthons of a number of base pairs which are not a multiple of three indicate
- that a frameshift mutation has occurred Frameshift mutations alter the reading frame of the
- genetic code, resulting in the formation of non-functional proteins
- Glucokinase is a glucose sensor within pancreatic beta ceIIs Inactivating mutations of the
- enzyme result in mild hyperglycemia that can be exacerbated by pregnancy
- Phenylethanolarnine-N-methyltransterase (PNMT), wtich is responsible for the synthesis of
- epinephnne, is under the control of cortisol
- Lactic acidosis occurs in patients with septic shock because of tissue hypoxia, which results in
- impaired oxidative phosphorylation and the shunting of pyruvate to lactate following glycolysis.
- Hepatic hypoperfusion also contributes to the buildup of lactic acid, as the liver is the primary
- site of lactate clearance.
- Elderly patients with dementia or hemiparesis may also have dysphagia, which is a risk factor for
- aspiration pneumonia. Dependent lung consolidation is commonly seen in aspiration pneumonia.
- Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate activates glycolysis by inducing phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits
- gluconeogenesis by inhibiting fructose 1 ,6-bisphosphatase High concentrations of fructose 2,6-
- bisphosphate also decreases the gluconeogenic conversion of alanine to glucose Fructose 2,6-
- bisphosphate concentration is regulated by a bifunctional enzyme composed of
- phosphofructokinase-2 and fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase.
- Dietary fructose is phosphorylated in the liver to F-i-P and is rapidly metabohzed because it
- bypasses PFK-1, the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis. Other sugars enter glycolysis before this
- rate-limiting step and are therefore metabolized more slowty due to regulahon of PFK-1.
- Biotin acts as a CO carrier on the surface of the carboxylase enzyme and is necessary for
- numerous conversions, including pyruvate to oxaloacetate, Excessive ingestion of avdin (which
- is found in egg whites) has been associated with biotin deficiency.
- Receptors for cortisol are located within the cytoplasm and are translocated to the nucleus after
- binding to cortisol In the nucleus, the cortisol-receptor complex binds to the hormone responsive
- elements, causing an alternation in the transcription of target genes
- xKnow the second messengers very well
- 33
- The genetic code is “degenerate, meaning that there are more codons (61) than amino
- am acids (20)
- Each tRNA molecule is specific for a given amino acid Many tRNA anticodons can bind to a
- few different codons coding for the same amino acid This is called the wobble phenomenon
- ATP is the regulatory substance that stimulates KATP channel closure in insulin-producing
- insulin
- pancreatic beta cells
- PCR requires primers that are complementary to the regions of DNA flanking the segment to be
- amplified. Thermostable DNA polymerase, deoxynucleotide triphosphates, and the target DNA
- template strand aree also necessary.
- Glycogenolysis provides immediate energy for strenuous muscle contraction Myophosphorylase
- deficiency (McArdle’s syndrome or type 5 glycogen storage disease) leads to a failure of
- glycogenolysis with clinical manifestations of decrease
- decreased
- d exercise tolerance, myoglobinuna, and
- muscle pain with physical activity.
- After IJV damage. pyrimidine dimers are formed in cellular DNA. which are recognized by a
- specdic endonuclease which irütiates the process of repair by nicking the strand at the thymine
- dimer, This action signals the removal and replacement of this damaged DNA.
- After a hormone binds a G-protein
- protein coupled receptor that activates phospholipase C, the initial
- step of the lP second messenger system involves degradation of membrane lipids l into
- diacyiglycerol (DAG) and inositol triphosphate (1P3) by that enzyme. Protein kinase C is
- activated by DAG as well as calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum under the influence
- of lP
- Southern blotting is a technique used to identity UNA mutations. It involves resinction
- endonuclease digestion of sample DNA, gel electrophoresis, and gene identification with a
- radoactivety-Iabeled
- Iabeled DNA probe vv
- Amino acids with three titratable protons include histidine, arginine. lysine, aspartic acid,
- glutamic acid, cysteine and tyrosine
- UV-specific
- specific endonuclease deficiency is the most common cause of the autosomal recessive
- disorder xeroderma pigmentosum
- Heavily methylated DNA is typically found in heterochromatin, which is condensed and
- transcriptionally inactive Tight association with non
- non-acetylated
- acetylated histones and methylation both
- contribute to the compact nature of heterochromatin and its transcnptionally inactive state
- 34
- Colony-stimulating factors, prolactin, growth hormones and cytokines utilize tyrosine kinase-
- associated rtrtAr rvl th I /cTtT iw,nIenn nthiwu
- The nucleolus, the dark intranuclear body visible both by light microscopy and electron
- microscopy, is the site of ribosomal RNA synthesis
- Insulin is an anabolic hormone that acts via a tyrosine kinase second messenger system to
- stimulate the synthesis of glycogen. proteins, fatty acids and nucleic acids. Tyrosine kinase leads
- to the activation of protein phosphatase within cells, and protein phosphatase directly modulates
- the activity of enzymes in the metabolic pathways regulated by insuhn
- The breast milk content of vitamins [) and K is typically insufficient to meet the nutritional needs
- of the newbom Vitamin K is given parenterally to infants at birth to prevent hemorrtiagic disease
- of the newbom Exclusively breastfed infants may develop vitamin D deficiency they are not
- exposed to adequate sunlight Dark-skinned infants are at especially high risk because they must
- be exposed to sunlight for longer periods of time to generate adequate vitamin D
- Protons dissociate from amino acids when the pH exceeds the pK) associated with each given
- proton.
- fl the free energy of the products is lower than that of the substrates, the sign of will be negative.
- indicating that the reaction favors product formation I the free energy of the products is higher
- than that of the substrates, G° will be positive and the reaction favors substrate formation
- Thyroid hormones alter gene transcription by binding to receptors situated inside of the nucleus
- Receptors for several steroid hormones such as glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens,
- and estrogens are usually initially present in cytoplasm, although they do migrate to the nucleus
- once activated
- GTP is synthesized by the citric acid cycle enzyme succinyl-CoA synthetase during the
- conversion of succinyl CoA to succinate. In gluconeogenesis. the hydrolysis of GTP is required
- for the phosphorylation and decarboxylation of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate by
- phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
- Nitric oxide is synthesized from arginine by nitric oxide synthase As a precursor of nitric oxide,
- arginine supplementation may play an adjunct role in the treatment of conditions that improve
- with vasodilation. such as stable angina
- Aidolase B deficiency causes hereditary fructose intolerance This disease manifests after
- introduction of fructose into the diet with vomiting and hypoglycemia about 20-30 minutes after
- fructose ingestion. These infants can present with failure to thrive, jaundice, and hepatomegaly.
- 35
- BIOCHEMISTRY 4
- Hartnup disease can result in niacin deficiency due to an excess loss of dietary tryptophan,
- resulting from
- defective intestinal and renal tubular absorpbon of that amino acid Remember that niacin
- (nicotinamide I
- Vitamin B3) is synthesized from tryptophan and that tryptophan is an essential amino acid
- The MAP-kinase signal transduction pathway inch.ides Ras protein, a (3-protein that exists in
- inactive (GDP-containing) and active (GTP-containing) forms Mutated (permanently activated)
- Ras is associated with the development of malignant tumors
- Small nuclear nbonucieoprotein particles (snRNPs) are important components of the
- spliceosome, a molecule which functions to remove introns from pre-mRNA during processing
- within the nucleus.
- Telomerase is an enzyme that possesses reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA
- polymerase) activity and is normally expressed in stem cells as well as cancer cells. However,
- cancer cells are immortal because these cells continue to divide without aging and shortening of
- their telomeres
- Splice site mutations frequently result in the production of larger proteins with altered function
- but preserved immune reactivity.
- Lynch syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease caused by abnormal nucleotide mismatch
- repair. The mismatch repair system involves several genes, including MSH2 and MLH1, which
- code for components of the human MutS and MutL homologs. Mutations in these 2 genes
- account for around 90% of cases of Lynch syndrome.
- The nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis from rONA. the site of nbosomal protein synthesis,
- and the site of ribosome formation. RNA polymerase I synthesizes rRNA with its greatest
- activity being in the nucleolus.
- Leptin is a protein hormone produced by adipocytes in proportion to the quantity of fat stored
- Leptin acts on the arc uate nucleus of the hypothalamus to inhibit production of neuropeptide Y
- (decreasing appetite) and stimulate production of alpha-MSH (increasing satiety) Mutations in
- the leptin gene or receptor result in hyperphagia and profound obesity
- Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by duodenal enteropeptidase Trypsin is essential for protein
- digestion and absorption in two ways It degrades complex peptides to dipeptides and amino
- acids, and it activates other proteases such as carboxypeptidase. elastase and chymotrypsin.
- Pyndoxal phosphate is a necessary cofactor in the synthesis of delta-aminolevulinic acid (which
- is elevated in cases of lead poisoning)
- 36
- Secondary lactase deficiency can occur after viral gastroenteritis or other diseases that damage
- the intestinal epithelium. This disease causes abdominal distention, flatulence, and diarrhea after
- lactose ingestion.
- Secondary lactase deficiency can occur after viral gastroenteritis or other diseases that damage
- the intestinal epithelium. This disease causes abdominal distention, flatulence, and diarrhea after
- lactose ingestion.
- Amatoxins are fOund ma vanety of poisonous mushrooms (eq. Aman#aphaioides, known as
- death cap) and are potent inhibitors of RNA polymerase U (halting mRNA synthesis)
- When mRNA is first transcribed from DNA. it is in an unprocessed form called pre-mRNA or
- heterogeneous nuclear mRNA (hnRNA). Several processing steps are required before finalized
- mRNA molecules can leave the nucleus, including 5’-capping, poly A tail addition, and intron
- splicing Cytoplasmic P bodies play an important role in mRNA translation regulation and
- mRNA degradation
- Bacterial mRNA can be polycistronic. meaning that one mRNA codes for several proteins An
- example of polycistronic mRNA is the bacterial lac operon, which codes for the proteins
- necessary for lactose metabolism by E co/i, the transcription and translation of these bacterial
- proteins is regulated by a single promoter, operator, and set of regulatory elements.
- The sequence of amino acids in a growing polypeptide chain is dictated by the interaction of the
- mRNA codon with the tRNA anticodon. tRNA that is mischarged with the incorrect amino acid
- (and not corrected by M-tRNA synthetase proofreading) will incorporate the wrong amino acid
- into the growing polypeptide chain, as there is no amino acid proofreading during protein
- translation.
- Hyperammonerniain hepatic encephalopathy results in depletion of a-ketoglutarate. causing
- inhibition of the Krebs cycle. Excess ammonia also depletes glutamate. an excitatory
- neurotransmitter, and causes accumulation of glutamine. resulting in astrocyte swelling and
- dysfunction.
- Unlike hereditary fructose intolerance and classic galactosernia. essential fructosuria is a benign
- disorder resulting from a defect or deficiency in the enzyme fructokinase
- As a consequence of aging. fine skin wrinkles appear secondary to the decreased synthesis and
- net loss of dermal collagen and elastin
- Base excision repair is used to correct defects in single bases induced spontaneous’y or by
- exogenous chemicals In this process. glycosylases remove the defective base, and the
- corresponding sugar-phosphate is cleaved and removed by endonuclease. followed by the action
- of lyase DNA polymerase then replaces the missing nucleotides and ligase reconnects the DNA
- strand.
- 37
- Enzyme deficiencies of the early steps in porphyrin synthesis cause neuropsychiatric
- manifestations without photosensitivity, while late step derangements lead to photosensitivity
- Photosensitivity in porphyria causes vesicle and blister formation on sun-exposed areas as well
- as edema pruritus, pain and erythema
- Glucose induced decreased adenylate cyclase activfly leads to low intracellular concentrations of
- cAMR Low cAMP levels, in turn, cause poor binding of catabolite activator protein (CAP) to the
- CAP-DNA binding domain, leading to decreased expression of the structural genes of the lac
- operon
- The symptoms of scurvy are primarily caused by impaired collagen formation, and include
- hemorrhages, subperiosteal hematomas. bleeding into Joint spaces, gingival swelling, secondary
- periodontal infection, anemia, hyperkeratotic papular rashes, impaired wound healing, and
- weakened immune response to local infections.
- Niacin (vitamin B3) can be synthesized endogenously from tryptophan. A deficiency of this
- vitamin resufts in pellagra, which is characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia
- The lac operon is regulated by two distinct mechanisms: negatively by binding of the repressor
- protein to the operator locus and positively by cAMP-CAP binding upstream from the promoter
- region Constitutive expression of the structural genes of the lac operon occurs with mutations
- that impair the binding of the repressor protein (Lac I) to its regulatory sequence in the operator
- region
- tRNA is a small. noncoding form of RNA that contains unusual nucleosides such as
- pseudouridine and thymidine. Remember that tRNA has a CCA sequence at its 3’-end that is
- used as a recognition sequence by proteins, and that the 3’ terminal hydroxyl group of the CCA
- tail is used as the binding site for the amino acid.
- Vitamin A can beof benefit in the treatment of measles infection
- 38
- BIOSTATISTICS 1
- The chi-square
- square test for independence is used to test the association between 2 categorical
- variables In the case of an exposure status and a binomial outcome, patients are dMded into 2
- groups based on exposure, and the number of patients that experience each outcome Es recorded
- in a 2 x 2 table
- Smoking cessation is by far the most effective preventive intervention in almost every patient
- (very high yield!)
- sensitivity is me number ot true positives aiviaea oy me totai numoer or suojects actuaiiy wan tne
- aisease.
- True positives = (Sensitivity) (Number of patients actually with the disease)
- False negatives = (1 - Sensitivity) (Number of patients actually wit
- withh the disease)
- Confounding bias occurs when the exposure
- exposure-disease
- disease relationship is muddied by the effect of an
- extraneous factor that has correlations with both the exposure and the disease Confounding bias
- can result in the false association of an exposure with a disease
- Positive predictive value represents the probability of truly having a disease for a given positive
- test result. It increases with increasing disease prevalence and decreases with decreasing disease
- prevalence
- The median is the value that is located in the precise center of an ordered dataset. It divides the
- right half of the data from the left half.
- In a normal (bell-shaped)
- shaped) distributon
- 68% - within I standard deviation from the mean
- 95% - within 2 standard deviations from the mean
- 99.7% - within
- in 3 standard deviations from the mean
- Matching is used in case-control
- control studies in order to control confounding Remember matching
- variables should always be the potential confounders of the study (eg, age. race) Cases and
- controls are then selected basedd on the matchina variables, such that both arouos have a similar
- distribution in accordance
- The two-sample
- sample t test is a statistical method commonly employed to compare the means of 2
- groups of Subjects.
- The number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dMding 1 by absolute risk reduction (ARR)
- The ARR is the event rate in the placebo group (25/1000=2.5%) minus the event rate in the
- treatment group (10/1000=1 %), or 1.5%. Dividing I by 0.015 gives us a NNT of 66.6 but, since
- treating 66.6 of a person iss seldom a good idea, we round up to 67.
- 39
- NPV is the probability of being free of a disease f the test result is negative Remember that the
- NPV will vary with the pretest probability of a disease A patient with a high probability of
- having a disease will have a low NPV with a negative test but a patient with a low probability of
- having a disease will have a high NPV with a negative test.
- The specificity ofatest is given by d/(b+d). ft should be high in confirmatory tests in order to
- decrease false positives.
- In a cross-sectional study. exposure and outcome are measured simultaneously at a particular
- point of time (“snapshot study”). In other study designs, a certain time period separates the
- exposure from the outcome
- A reliable test is reproducible in that it gives similar results on repeat measurements Reliability is
- maximal when random error is minimal.
- The power of a study increases proportionally with the sample size. Thus, the larger a sample the
- greater the ability to detect a difference when one truly exists
- In a normal (bell-shaped) distribution curve. 68% of observations lie within one standard
- deviation of the mean. 95% of observations lie within two standard deviations of the mean, and
- 997% of observations lie within three standard deviations of the mean
- In a crossover study, subjects are randomly allocated to a sequence of 2 or more treatments given
- consecutively. A washout (no treatment) period is often added between treatment intervals to
- limit the confounding effects of prior treatment.
- Selection of control subjects in case-control studies is intended to provide an accurate estimation
- of exposure frequency among the non-diseased general population. Cases and controls are often
- matched in order to decrease confounding. However, matching must be carefully performed so
- as to not introduce selection bias.
- The positive and negative predictive values of a test depend on the disease prevalence in the
- population The sensitivity and specificity of a test do not depend on the prevalence of the disease
- in the popuIation
- The reliability of a measurement technique refers to its reproducibility The accuracy of a
- measurement technique is the degree to which the average measurement value matches that of
- the gold standard technique
- In a positively skewed distribution. the mean is the most shifted in the positive direction,
- followed by the median and then the mode.
- Effect modification is present when the effect of the main exposure on the outcome is modified
- by the presence of another variable Effect modification is not a bias
- 40
- The Hawthorne effect is the tendency of a study population to affect an outcome due to the
- knowledge of being studied.
- The main purpose of blinding is to prevent patient or researcher expectancy from interfering with
- an outcome
- Sensitivity equals aJ(a+c). Screening tests are designed to have high sensitivities
- Understand the measures of center (mean/averages. median and mode) They are common topics
- on the USMLE exams
- Power(1-3) is the probabihty of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is truly false It is typically set
- at 80% and depends upon sample size and difference between outcomes.
- Specificity is the number of true negatives divided by the total number of subjects actually
- without the disease
- True negatives = (Specificity) * (Number of patients actually without the disease)
- False positives = (1 - Specificity) (Number of patients actually without the disease)
- Lowering the cut-off point will increase the sensitivity of a test The true positives will also
- increase but the false positives will have a relatively larger increase This results in a decrease in
- the PPV and the FN.
- Power of a study indicates the probability of seeing a difference when there is one; Power = 1 —
- An increasing prevalence and stable incidence can be attributed to factors which prolong the
- duration of a disease (e.g, improved quality of care this scenario is typical for the USMLE)
- Incidence is the measure of new cases diagnosed in a given period of time. Prevalence is the
- measure of the total cases at a particular point in time Any treatment that prolongs survwal but
- does not cure the disease will increase prevalence due to an increase in the number of afflicted
- (but still alive) individuals over time
- BIOSTATISTICS-2
- Prospective cohort studies are organized by selecting a group of individuals (ie., cohort),
- determining their exposure status, and then following them over time for development of the
- disease of interest
- Loss to follow-up in prospective studies creates a potential for selection bias
- Recall bias results from inaccurate recall of past exposure by people in the study and applies
- mostly to retrospective studies such as case—control studies People who have suffered an
- adverse event are more likely to recall risk factors than those without adverse experiences Like
- all sources of bias, recall bias is a threat to the validity of a study.
- 41
- A t-test is used to compare the difference between the means of 2 groups Analysis of variance
- (ANOVA) compares the difference between the means of 2 or more groups
- Observer bias occurs when the investigator’s decision is affected by prior knowledge of the
- exposure status.
- Risk is the probability of getting a disease over a certain period of time. To calculate the risk,
- divide the number of diseased subjects by the total number of subjects in the corresponding
- group (ie., all the people at risk).
- The correlation coefficient ranges from -Ito +1 and describes two important characteristics of an
- association:
- the strength and the polarity.
- There are essentially 4 basic methods that health insurance plans use to reimburse physicians:
- capitation, fee-for-service (FFS), discounted FFS, and salary Physicians paid under FFS face
- little financial risk and have incentives to increase services, tests, and patient visits Physicians
- paid under capitation face the greatest financial risk and have incentives to provide more
- preventive care and better health counseling.
- Confidence interval for the mean is calculated using the mean. SD, z-score and sample size.
- Know ho; to witerpret the confidence intervaL Know the relationship between the confidence
- interval and ‘p’ value.
- The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of a disease per year divided by the total
- population at risk
- It is important to have high sensitivity in screening tests
- Positive predictive and negative predictive values are influence by disease prevalence whereas
- specificity and sensitivity are not
- RRR = [Absolute Risk., - Absolute Risk] / Absolute Risk1
- Negative predictive value (NPV) represents the probability of not having a disease given a
- negative test result Unlike sensitivity and specificity, NPV varies based upon disease prevalence
- and is inversely proportional to the prevalence of a disease.
- ARP represents the excess nsk in the exposed population that can be attributed to the risk factor
- It can be easily derived from the relative risk using the following formula: ARP = (RR - 1 )/RR
- An increase in lung cancer incidence and mortality has been observed in women over the last
- four decades
- 42
- The concept of a latent period can be applied to both disease pathogenesis and exposure to risk
- modifiers. The initial steps in pathogenesis and/or exposure to a risk factor sometimes occur
- years before clinical manifestations of a disease are evident. Mditionally, exposure to risk
- modifiers may need to be continuous over a certain period of time before influencing the
- outcome.
- The degree of overlap between the healthy and diseased population curves limits the maximum
- combined sensitivity and specificity of a test (the area under its ROC curve) The degree to which
- sensitivity or specificity is affected depends upon the chosen cutoff value
- An outlier is defined as an extreme and unusual observed in a dataset The mean, standard
- deviation, variance, and range are sensitive to outliers The mode is more resistant to outhers
- Number needed to harm = 1! Attributable risk
- Positive predictive value is defined as the proportion of subjects with a positive test that actually
- have the disease.
- The typical example of lead-time bias is an apparent increase in survival in patients diagnosed
- with a new test who actually have an unchanged prognosis. Think of lead4ime bias when you see
- “a new screening test” for poor prognosis diseases like lung or pancreatic
- A case-control study is used to compare the exposure of people with the disease (cases) to the
- exposure of people without the disease (controls) The main measure of association is the
- exposure odds ratio.
- ARR = Event Rate(CQI) - Event Ratetreatment
- According to 2011 statistics, the most common cancers (aside from skin cancer) in women in
- order of incidence were breast, lung, and colon cancer. In terms of mortality, lung cancer
- claimed the most lives, followed by breast and then colon cancer.
- Case-fatality rate is calculated by dividing the number of fatal cases by the total number of
- people with the disease.
- Questions about relative risk are commonly asked Make sure you can construct 2*2 table
- (Exposure in rows and Outcome in columns) and calculate relative risk
- If events are independent, the probability that all events will turn out the same is the product of
- the separate probabilities for each event The probability of at least 1 event turning out differently
- is given as 1 - (probability of all events being the same)
- 43
- GENETICS 1
- Lymphedema is a characteristic finding in a fetus afflicted with Turner syndrome (45XO) The
- lymphedema can vary in severity, ranging from edema of the hands and feet to hydrops fetalis
- Other common fetal Turner syndrome abnormalities include coarctation of aorta and horseshoe
- kidney
- Pleiotropy descnbes instances where multiple phenotypic manifestations result from a single
- genetic mutation. Most syndromic genetic illnesses exhibit pleiotropy
- FoIhcur Iymphoma is a non-HodgIn lymphoma of follicular B-lymphocytes Patients with
- follicular lymphoma characteristically have a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18
- which causes Bc/-2 overexpression. Bc/.2 is considered a protooncogene because it has anti-
- apoptotic effects.
- Androgenetic alopecia is the most common cause of hair loss in both males and females, and
- demonstrates polygenic inheritance with variable penetrance The pattern and severity of the
- baldness varies between males and females, and circulating androgen levels along with the
- degree of genetic predisposition are thought to play a prominent role in determining clinical
- manifestations.
- Neonates with Edwards syndrome (47,)O( +18) have small jaws (micrognathia), small eyes
- (microphthalmia), and malformed and low-set ears. Note that rocker-bottom feet are seen, as
- with Patau syndrome (trisomy 13). The presence of clenched hands with oveilapping fingers is
- considered one of the distinguishing features of this syndrome.
- Primary amenorrhea in a patient with fully developed secondary sexual characteristics suggests
- the presence of an anatomic defect in the genital tract, such as imperforate hymen or MUllerian
- duct abnormalities
- Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-Z COX-2 is an inducible enzyme that is normally
- undetectable in most tissues except in the case of inflammatiOn.
- Renal angiomyolipoma is a benign tumor composed of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat
- Bilateral renal angiomyolipomas are associated with tuberous sclerosis, an autosomal dominant
- condItIon.
- After participating in this learning exercise, you should be able to calculate the probability that a
- child of parents from two populations with different mutant allele carner frequencies will inherit
- an autosomal recessive disease.
- A complete mole results from fertilization of an ovum that is devoid of genetic material and
- subsequent reduplication of the paternal genetic complement giving a characteristic 46 XX
- genotype
- 44
- Achondroplasia is an autosomal-dominant disorder The transmission of autosomal dominant
- disorders statistically occurs in 50% of the offspring of an affected parent
- Turners syndrome (45 XO) manifests in the neonate with lyrnphedema and cystic hygromas
- Short stature, primary amenorrhea and coarctation of the aorta are the other important chnical
- features of Turner’s syndrome in adults.
- Diminished fernoral pulses compared to brachial pulses, symptoms of inadequate perfusion of
- the lower extremities during ambulation, and enlarged intercostal arteries in a child/young adult
- are typical of adult-type congenital coarctation of the aorta Turner’s syndrome is associated with
- coarctation of the aorta in girls.
- A variety of other autosomal and sex chromosomal inherited disorders are associated with
- cardiovascular developmental defects and/or pathology The major associations are as follows
- • Down syndrome: endocardial cushion detects (ostium pnmum ASD, regurgitant atrioventricular
- valves)
- • DiGeorge syndrome: tetralogy of Fallot and interrupted aortic arch
- • Friedreich’s ataxia: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- • Marfan syndrome: cystic medial necrosis of the aorta
- • Tuberous sclerosis: valvular obstruction due to cardiac rhabdomyomas
- GenOmiC impnnng refers to the phenomenon in which an offspring’s genes are expressed in a
- parent-specific manner Genomic imprinting is produced by DNA methylation, which is an
- epigenetic process
- Genome recombination between two defective viruses co—infecting the same host cell can yield
- a cytopathic wild-type genome. Recombination is gene exchange that occurs through the
- crossing over of two double-stranded DNA molecules. Reassortment describes the mixing of
- genome segments in two or more segmented viruses that infect the same host cell.
- The presence of rod-shaped intracytoplasmic inclusions known as Auer rods is characteristic of
- many forms of acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) The M3 variant of AML. acute
- promyelocytic leukemia, is associated with the cytogenetic abnormality t( 15; 17).
- The probability that an autosomal recessive disease will be transmitted to a child can be
- calculated based on the maternal and paternal pedigrees. An unaffected individual (with
- unaffected parents) who has a sibling affected by an autosomal recessive condition has a 2/3
- chance of being a carrier for that condition.
- Common findings in Down syndrome include mental retardation. facial dysmorphism and
- cardiac defects 95% of cases are caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21 (trisomy).
- Less commonly, unbalanced Robertsonian translocations or mosaicism may be responsible
- Xeroderma pigmentosum develops due to a defect in DNA excisional repair This disease is
- characterized by increased sensitivity to UV radiation and a high incidence of all forms of
- cutaneous malignancy
- 45
- Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during cell division This
- could be due to a failure of homologous chromosomes to separate in melosis I or a failure of
- sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis.
- In most cases of CF, the mutation in the CFTR gene product causes defective post-translational
- folding and glycosylation The resuft is degradation of the CFTR integral membrane protein
- before it reaches the cell surface.
- A variety of genetic disorders can result in facial and/or palatal malformations, including
- deletions of the long arm of chromosome 22. However, deletions invoMng the long arm of
- chromosome 22 are also associated with DiGeorge syndrome (congenital thymic and parathyroid
- aplasia, congenital cardiovascular anomalies).
- Patients with both sporadic and hereditary (associated with Von Hippel-Lindau disease) renal
- cell carcinomas are found to have deletions of the VHL gene on chromosome 3p.
- 47 X)(Y is the most common karyotype producing Kilnefelter Syndrome. Patients present with
- tall stature, small firm testes, azoospermia and gynecomastia Mild mental retardation may be
- present.
- Phenotypic mixing refers to co-infection of a host cell by two viral strains. resulting in progeny
- vinons that contain nucleocapsid proteins from one strain and the genome of the other strain.
- Since there is no change in the underlying viral genomes (no genetic exchange), the next
- generation of virions revert to their original, unmixed phenotypes.
- Down syndrome (tnsomy 21) occurs in approximately 1 in 730 bye births The majority of fetuses
- with this chromosomal defect die in utero. The thple marker test, quadruple marker test, and
- integrated test allow for Down syndrome sCreening. Amniocentesis and chromosomal analysis
- of fetal cells can be used to verify the diagnosis.
- The cytogenetic defect t(1517) is associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML type
- M3). Translocation of the gene for the retinoic acid receptor alpha from chromosome 17 to
- chromosome 15 leads to formation of the fusion gene PMLIRARa. This abnormal fusion gene
- product inhibits differentiation of myeloblasts and triggers the development of acute
- promyelocytic leukemia
- Patients with Turner syndrome may have karyotype 45,XO (complete monosomy), 45X0146XX
- (mosaicism), or 46XX (with partial deletion of one X chromosome) Monosomy appears to
- account for the majority of cases of Turner syndrome
- Mental retardation, eczema, and a “mousy or musty body odor in a toddler are signs of
- phenylketonuria (PKU). Most infants with PKU are born to two heterozygous carrier parents The
- probability that heterozygous carrier parents will transmit an autosomal recessive disease like
- PKU to a child is 1/4.
- 46
- Primary amenorrhea, high arched palate. and widely spaced nipples are characteristic
- manifestations of Turner syndrome. An additional characteristic finding is ovarian dysgenesis,
- with the pathologic finding of streak gonads.
- Elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels are seen in multiple gestation, neural tube defects (including
- spina bifida. anencephaly), and abdominal wall defects.
- 2 In contrast, Down syndrome is associated with low alpha-f etoprotein levels in maternal serum
- and amniotic fluid The definitive prenatal diagnosis is made by karyotyping of fetal cells
- Trisorny 21 (Down syndrome) is characterized by mental retardation, facial dysmorphism, single
- palmar crease, endocardial cushion detects. and duodenal atresia Affected individuals have an
- increased risk of AML-M7 and ALL in childhood and early Alzheimer disease in adufthood.
- On average, autosomal recessive conditions affect 25% of offspring of asymptomatic
- heterozygous carrier parents Classical galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disease
- In X-linked recessive inheritance 1) affected males will always produce unaffectedsons and
- camerdaughters, and 2) carrier females have a 50% chance of producing affectedsons and
- camèrdaughters G6PD deficiency follows this inheritance pattern and causes acute hemolytic
- anemia in response to oxidant drugs.
- Alternative splicing is a process where the exons of a gene are reconnected in multiple ways
- during post- transcriptional processing This creates different mRNA sequences and
- subsequently, different protein isoforms It is a normal phenomenon in eukaryotes that greatly
- increases the biodiversity of proteins encoded by the genome
- The presence of lactic acidosis and ragged red skeletal muscle fibers histologically suggest a
- mitochondrial myopathy. There may be vanable clinical expression of mitochondrial DNA
- defects in different affected family members due to heteroplasmy, which is the coexistence of
- both mutated and wild type versions of mitochondrial genomes in an individual celL
- In Kallmann syndrome. there is an absence of GnRH secretory neurons in the hypothalamus due
- to defective migration from the olfactory placode. These patients have central hypogonadism and
- anosmia, and often present with delayed puberty
- Trisornyi3(Patau syndrome) most often occurs secondary to nondisjunction during maternal
- meiosis I A severe condition, tnsomy 13 is strongly associated with cleft lip and palate.
- polydactyly, rocker-bottom feet and holoprosencephaly.
- TWO allele IOCi are said to be in linkage disequilibrium when a pair of alleles are inherited
- together in the same gamete (haplotype) more or less often than would be expected given
- random chance It is important to understand that this can occur even if the genes are on different
- chromosomes.
- 47
- Thsorny21isdetectab by cytogenetic karyotype analysis and is the most common genetic cause of
- congenital mental retardation. Patients with Down syndrome are at increased risk of developing
- acute lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia
- Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism. eunuchoid habitus. small firm testes,
- and genotype
- 47 XXY.
- “Streak ovanes.” amenorrhea and infertility are the gonadal manifestations of Turner’s syndrome
- This condition is associated with short stature, webbed neck, low posterior hairline and
- coarctation of the aOrta.
- Sweat chloride concentrations >60 mEqII. are found in patients with cystic fibrosis (CF). The
- most common CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) mutation is a 3-base pair
- deletion that removes a phenylalanine at amino acid position 508 This mutation impairs
- posttranslational processing of the CFTR gene transcript and results in degradation of the gene
- product before it can be transported to the cell surface, causing a complete absence of the CFTR
- protein from the apical membrane of exocrine duct epithelial cells
- Down syndrome is associated with characteristic physical exam findings such as a flattened
- facies, epicanthal folds, oblique palpebral fissures, single palmar crease, shortened fifth digit,
- large tongue and others. Congenital heart defects. especially endocardial cushion defects, are
- common in children with Down’s syndrome The majority of cases occur due to maternal meiotic
- nondisjunction
- GENETICS 2
- Friedreich ataxia is an autosomal recessive condition. The mutated gene on chromosome 9 has
- an increased number of trinucleotide repeats Friedreich ataxia is often associated with
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. diabetes mellitus. kyphoscoliosis. and foot deformities
- Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency in -hexosaminidase
- A, which results in accumulation of GM2 ganglioside. It is characterized by progressive
- neurodegeneration and a cherry- red macular spot. In contrast to Niemann-Pick disease, there is
- no hepatosplenomegaly.
- A 13- amyloid plays an important role in the development of Alzheimer disease Its precursor
- protein (APP) is coded by a gene located on chromosome 21 Patients with tnsomy 21 (Down
- syndrome) are likely to develop Azheimer disease after age 40.
- Mitochondnal diseases are characterized by exclusively—maternal inheritance The variable
- severity of these diseases is explained by the random distribution of normal and mutated
- mitochondria between daughter cells during mitosis; as a result, some cells may have completely
- 48
- healthy mitochondria, while other cells contain mitochondria affected by genetic mutation
- (heteroplasmy) MELAS is a mitochondnal syndrome
- Fragile X syndrome arises secondary to an increase in the number of trinucleotide repeats within
- the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome Typical clinical features of this condition include mental
- retardation, facial deformities, and macroorchidism.
- Aft;ration of gene expression in Huntington disease is believed to occur due to hypermethylation
- of histones Hypermethylated histones bind DNA and prevent transcription of certain genes. This
- reads to the disruption of synthesis of some neurotrophic proteins.
- Fragile X syndrome is a common cause of inherited mental retardation. The disorder is X-linked
- and affects males. Patients have mental retardation, dysmorphic facial features (large jaw, large
- protruding ears) and macroorchidism.
- Early-onset familial Alzheimer disease is associated with three gene mutations: APP
- (chromosome 21), presenilin 1 and presenilin 2. Late-onset familial Alzheimer disease is
- associated with apolipoprotein E4 genotype.
- An increased number of thnucleotide repeats on the HD gene is associated wTth Huntington
- disease The larger the number of the repeats. the earlier the onset of the disease Tnnucleotide
- expansion occurs during paternal transmission, causing a genetic phenomenon called anticipation
- “Red ragged” muscle fibers are seen in mitochondrial diseases. Muscle fibers have this
- appearance because abnormal mitochondna accumulate under the sarcolemma Mitochondrial
- diseases show maternal inheritance.
- The fragile X mental retardation 1 gene is located on the long arm of the X chromosorne An
- increased number of CGG tnnucleotide repeats leads to hypermethylation of cytosine bases and
- subsequent gene inactivation This defect is the cause of fragile X syndrome, which manifests as
- mental retardation, facial dysmorphism, and macroorchidism.
- Neurofibromatosis type 1 is a single-gene autosomal-dominant disorder. It occurs due to
- mutation of the NFl gene located on chromosome 17. Café-au-Iait spots, multiple neurofibromas,
- and Lisch nodules are the most common symptoms.
- 49
- HISTOLOGY
- RER functions include protein modification, folding and transfer The RER is well-developed in
- protein-secreting cells. The SER lacks surface ribosomes, and functions in lipid synthesis,
- carbohydrate metabolism, and detoxification of harmful substances
- The respiratory tract lining changes in structure and function as it progresses distally. Bronchi
- have a pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells and submucosal
- mucoserous glands and cartilage Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, and respiratory bronchioles
- generally lack goblet cells, glands, and cartilage. By the level of the terminal bronchioles, the
- airway epithelium is ciliated simple cuboida[ Epithelial cilia persist up to the end of the
- respiratory bronchioles
- The lamellar bodies of type II pneumocytes store and release pulmonary surlactant into the fluid
- layer lining the inner surfaces of alveoli. Since the major function of suifactant is to reduce
- surface tension in this fluid layer, a surfactant deficiency can cause patchy alveolar atelectasis, as
- is seen in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.
- HPV infection causes cutaneous and genital warts as well as benign and malignant epithelial
- neoplasia Koilocytosis is a hallmark of HPV infection. Koilocytes are pyknotic superficial or
- immature squamous cells with a dense, irregularly staining cytoplasm and perinuclear clearing
- [i-i stimulates the theca intema cells of the ovarian follicle to produce androgens Aromatase
- within the follicle’s granulosa cells subsequently converts these androgens to estradiol under
- FSH stimulation The theca extema cells serve as a connective tissue support structure for the
- follicle.
- All sympathetic preganglionic neurons release acetyicholine. which activates nicotinic
- acetylcholine receptors on postganglionic neurons. Medullary chromaffin cells are modified
- postganglionic sympathetic neurons that release catecholamines into the bloodstream The
- neurons that innervate sweat glands are also different from most postganglionic sympathetic
- neurons in that they release acetylcholine.
- Neutral proteases such as elastase in intra-alveolar fluid are derived from infiltrating neutrophils
- and alveolar macrophages When secreted in excess or if unchecked by serum antiprotease
- activity, they can cause destruction of terminal lung parenchyma, yielding centriacinar or
- panacinar emphysema.
- Kinesin and dynein are microtubuIe-assocated motor proteins that function in the rapid transport
- of materials and organelles within cells. Dynein also functions in ciliary and flagellar movement
- Type II pneumocytes have two important functions 1) regeneration of the alveolar lining
- following injury, and 2) surfactant production.
- The pnmary abnormality in Pagets disease is the increase in osteoclastic bone resorption.
- 50
- Unique to the duodenum. the compound tubular Brunner’s glands of the submucosa secrete
- alkaline mucus into ducts that empty into the crypts of Lieberkühn. Peyer’s patches, in contrast,
- are lymphoid aggregates specific to the ileum.
- In the respiratory tract, the nose. paranasal sinuses. nasopharynx. most of the larynx, and the
- tracheobronchial tree are lined with pseudostratifled. columnar, mucus-secreting epithelium
- Stratified squamous epithelium is found only in the oropharynx. laryngopharynx, anterior
- epiglottis, upper half of the posterior epiglottis, and vocal folds (true vocal cords).
- C peptide is formed from proinsulin in the pancreatic 13-cell Golgi apparatus. packaged along
- with insulin in islet cell secretory granules, and secreted in equimolar concentrations with insulin
- The ovary is covered by a simple cuboidal germinar epthelium This epithelium is the site of
- origin for many benign and malignant ovarian neoplasms
- Osteocytes have long intracanahcular processes that extend through the ossified bone matrix.
- These cytoplasmic processes send signals to and exchange nutrients and waste products with the
- osteocytes within neighboring lamellae via gap junctions Osteocytes can sense mechanical
- stresses and send signals to modulate the activity of surface osteoblasts, thereby helping to
- regulate bony remodeling
- Kinesin is a microtubule-associated. ATP-powered motor protein that facilitates the anterograde
- transport of neurotransmitter-containing secretory vesicles down axons to synaptic terminals.
- Actin filaments are anchored into the Z-Iine of the sarcomere The Z-hne lies in the center of the
- lucent region referred to as the I-band. Mnemonic: An Interesting Zoo Must Have Mammals
- (Actin in the I-band attaches at the Z-line, Myosin in the H-band attaches at the M-hne)
- Type I collagen is the most prevalent collagen in the human body and is the primary collagen in
- mature scars
- 51
- IMMUNOLOGY 1
- Educational Objective:
- C tetan/produces the protein exotoxin tetanospasmin that blocks release of inhibitory
- neurotransmitters from inhibitory motor interneurons in the CNS Tetanus is prevented by
- immunization with toxoid that triggers the production of antitoxin antibodies (active immunIty).
- Hyperacute rejection is a process that is mediated by preformed recipient antibodies against
- antigens on the host organ (Type II hypersensitivity). Examples of such mismatches include
- ABO blood group antibodies and anti-H LA antibodies. This form of rejection occurs
- immediately upon perfusion of the transplanted organ by recipient blood and is often diagnosed
- intraoperatively due to immediate mottling of the organ.
- lnterleukin-2 (IL-2) is produced by helper T cells and stimulates the growth of CD4+ and CD8+
- T cells and B cells. IL-2 also activates natural killer cells and monocytes. The increased activity
- of T cells and natural killer cells is thought to be responsible for lL-2s anti-cancer effect on
- metastatic melanoma and renal cell carcinoma.
- Secretory form of IgA consists of two immunoglobuhn monomers, J chain and secretory
- component. This immunoglobulin is abundant in tears. saliva, mucus and colostrum It is
- particularly important as a component of the colostrum, or the first breast milk fed to an infant
- after birth, where is functions to provide the infant with passive mucosal immunity.
- Of the cytokines released in the setting of tissue injury, TGF- and IL-lO are thought to down-
- regulate local cytokine production and inflammatory reactions contributing to the systemic acute
- phase response IL-i, IL-4, IL-5, and IL-12 stimulate local immune reactions, and may therefore
- be considered proinflammatory IL-i also acts systemically to promote fever and other aspects of
- the acute phase response
- Interleukin-8 is a chemokine produced by macrophages that induces chemotaxis and
- phagocytosis in neutrophils. Other significant chemotactic agents include n-formylated peptides,
- leukotriene B, 5-HETE (the leukotriene precursor), and complement component C5a
- The carboxy terminal of the Fc portion of the heavy immunoglobulin chains represents the site
- that binds to the Fc receptors on neutrophils and macrophages Antibody bound to antigen is able
- to signal for the phagocytosis of that antigen by a conformational change of the Fc region
- allowing binding to the Fc receptor on phagocytes This leads to subsequent phagocytosts of the
- organism I antibody complex and subsequent destruction of the organism
- Antibodies against double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) are specific for systemic lupus
- erythematosus.
- However, they are only present in 60% of cases, so absence of anti-dsDNA does not rule out the
- diagnosis
- Anti-Smith antibodies are also specific for SLE
- 52
- Mutation of the FAS protein is thought to prevent apoptosis of auto-reactive lymphocytes,
- thereby disposing the individual to develop autoimmune disorders such as systemic lupus
- erythematosus
- Cerebellarataxia.tetangiectasias, and increased risk of sinoputmonary infections constitute a
- characteristic triad of ataxia telangiectasia. This illness exhibits autosomal recessive inheritance,
- and the defect is in a gene that codes for the “ATM” gene which plays a role in DNA break
- repair. The immune deficiency primarily manifests as an gA deficiency and predisposes to
- infections of the upper and lower airways.
- The classic mad of reactive arthritis is as follows: non-gonococcal urethritis, conjunctivrtis
- (possibly with anterior uveitis). and arthritis It is the most common cause of asymmetric
- inflammatory arthritis of the lower extremities in young men Reactive arthritis is a HLA-B27
- associated arthropathy that occurs within several weeks of a GU (especially non-gonococcal
- urethritis) or 61 (especially bacterial enteritis) infection It belongs to the group of seronegative
- spondyloarthropathies (including ankylosing spondyhtis) and can cause sacroiliitis in about 20%
- of cases.
- Inherited defects invoMng the interferon-gamma signaling pathway result in disseminated
- mycobacterial disease in infancy or early childhood. Patients require lifelong treatment with
- antimycobacterial agents
- Polymyositis presents with symmetnc proximal muscle weakness. Muscle biopsy reveals
- inflammation. necrosis and regeneration of muscle fibers Preceding damage to myocytes with
- subsequent over- expression of MHC class I proteins on the sarcolemma leads to infiltration with
- CD8 T lymphocytes and myocyte damage
- Deficiency of the complement factors that form the membrane attack complex (ie., C5b-C9)
- results in recurrent infections by Ne,sser,à species.
- MHC Class II is expressed on the surface of antigen presenting cells (APC) and functions by
- presenting antigen that is foreign to the body. This antigen is taken into the APC by phagocytosis
- or endocytosis and is loaded onto MHC Class II within acidified endosomes. and the MHC Class
- Il protein-antigen complex is then expressed on the cell surface for subsequent interaction with
- T-lymphocytes Failure to acidify lysosomes would lead to deficient expression of MHC Class II
- bound to foreign antigen and subsequent lack of interaction between APCs and T-cells.
- Loc&defseagaist Cand,dais performed by T-cells, whereas systemic infection is prevented by
- neutrophils. For this reason, localized candidiasis is common in HIV-positive patients, while
- neutropenic individuals are more likely to have systemic disease.
- The caseating granulornas of tuberculosis almost always contain large epithehoid macrophages
- with pale pink granular cytoplasm and surface CD14 at the penphery. CD14 is a surface marker
- of the
- monocyte-macrophage cell lineage. CD4 and CD8 are surface markers of T-helper and T-killer
- cells, respectively.
- 53
- Cytochrome c is a mitochondnal enzyme that activates caspases and indirectly brings about cell
- death through intrinsic pathway apoptosis.
- Myasthenia gravis is caused by circulating antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors of the
- neuromuscular junction. Autoantibody binding causes complement-mediated destruction of these
- receptors, producing weakness that most commonly affects the extraocular muscIes Myasthenia
- gravis is associated with thymoma or thymic hyperplasia.
- Patients with post-Streptococcal glomerulonephrihs will present with edema and hematuna with
- a history of Streptococcal infection such as impetigo. cellulitis or pharyngitis The Streptococcal
- infection must be caused by a “nephritogenic” strain of Group A b-hemolytic Streptococcus This
- is one example of a type Ill, or immune complex mediated. hypersensitivity syndrome.
- Leukocyte adhesion deficiency results from the autosomal recessive genetic absence of CD18
- This leads to the inability to synthesize integrins. lritegrins are necessary for leukocytes to exit
- the bloodstream, and sequelae of this illness include recurrent skin infections WITHOUT pus
- formation, delayed detachment of the umbilical cord and poor wound healing.
- An infection with Ne,ssenà gonorrhoeae does not result in lasting immunity because of the
- ability of these bacteria to modify their outer membrane proteins by the process of antigenic
- variation. Antibodies generated during one infection will only be specific for that single
- antigenic epitope Also recall that repeated Neisseria infections can be caused by terminal
- complement deficiencies leading to an inability to form the membrane attack complex.
- Serum sickness is a Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction characterized by deposition of circulating,
- complement-fixing immune complexes and resulting vasculihs Associated findings include
- fever, urticaria, arthralgias, glomerulonephritis. lymphadenopathy. and a low serum C3 level 5-
- 10 days after intravascular exposure to antigen.
- G,àrd,à Iamb/ia causes injury to the duodenal and jejunal mucosa by adhering to the intestinal
- brush border and releasing molecules that induce a mucosal inflammatory response Secretory
- IgA. which impairs adherence, is the major component of adaptive immunity against G Iambi/a
- infection Severe IgA deficiency predisposes patients to chronic giardiasis.
- Eosinophils play a role in host defense during parasitic infection. When stimulated by IgE bound
- to a parasitic cell, they destroy the parasite via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
- with enzymes from their cytoplasmic granules. Another function of eosinophils is regulation of
- type I hypersensthvity reactions.
- Major adaptive immune mechanisms that prevent reinfection with the influenza virus include
- anti-hemagglutinin lgG antibodies in circulation and mucosal anti-hemagglutinin IgA antibodies
- in the nasopharynx.
- 54
- NK cells recognize and kill cells with decreased MHC class I antigen cell surface expression,
- such as virusi nfected cells and tumor cells. They are large lymphocytes that contain performs
- and granzymes in cytoplasmic granules. NK cells kill target cells by inducing apoptosis
- Acute carcac transplant rejection occurs weeks following transplantation and is primarily a cell-
- mediated process. On histopathologic analysis of an endomyocardial biopsy, a dense
- mononuclear Lymphocytic infiltrate with cardiac myocyte damage will be visualized. Treatment
- with immunosuppressive drugs is aimed primarily at preventing this form of rejection.
- bII Ia. JabI V
- Angioedema can be hereditary (autosomal dominant) or acquired (associated with ACE inhibitor
- treatment) In hereditary angioedema. low Cl esterase inhibitor activity leads to increases in
- bradykinin actMty ACE inhibitors should not be used in these patients.
- Aprotease 5 produced by N meningitidi and Ft gonorrhoeae This enzyme cleaves secretory gA at
- its hinge region rendering it ineffective. Secretory IgA exists on mucosal surfaces and in
- secretions and acts to bind and inhibit the action of pdi and flmbnae as well as other cell surface
- antigens that normally mediate mucosal adherence and penetration.
- Rheumatoid hritis is an autoimmune disease triggered by an unknown antigen Cartilage
- components serve as autoantigens that activate CD4 T-cells. which in turn stimulate B-cells to
- secrete rheumatoid factor, an 1gM antibody specific for the Fc component of self lgG.
- lL-4producedbytheTH2 subset of T-helper cells It facilitates growth of B-cells and TH2
- lymphocytes, and stimulates antibody isotype switching. particularty to IgE.
- Chronic renal allograft rejection can manifest months to years after transplantation It is mediated
- by recipient antibodies to graft endothelium formed after engraftment and causes an obliterative
- intimal smooth muscle hypertrophy and fibrosis of cortical arteries.
- Hyperacute rejection involves pre-formed recipient anti-donor endothelial antibodies which
- immediately cause vascular fibrinoid necrosis. neutrophil infdtration, and infarction of the graft
- Acute rejection may be cellular and/or humoral, causing, respectively, an interstitial
- mononuclear infiltrate andlor a graft vasculitis intermediate in severity between hyperacute
- thrombosis and chronic intimal thickening
- Anti-Rh (D) immunoglobuhri (Rh0GAM) consists of lgG anti-Rh (D) antibodies It is routinely
- administered to Rh-negative females at 28 weeks gestation and immediately postpartum lgG
- antibody isotypes are effective in blocking the maternal immune response to ‘foreign fetal Rh (0)
- antigens after fetomaternal transfusion
- DiGeorge syndrome is a T-Iymphocyte immunodeficiency that results from maldevelopment of
- the third and fourth branchial (pharyngeal) pouches due to a deletion on chromosome 22.
- Clinical associations with this syndrome include absence of a thymic shadow on neonatal X-ray,
- hypocalcemic tetany from absence of the parathyroids, cleft palate. mandibular deformity, low-
- set ears, and aortic arch abnormalities.
- 55
- Glomerulonephritis, a photosensitive skin rash, and arthralgias in a young female are suggestive
- of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) 10-30% of patients with SLE have luDus anticoagulant.
- the most frequent cause of a prolonged PU and a false positive VDRL without any other
- hematological abnormality Lupus anticoagulant can cause an antiphospholipid antibody
- syndrome defined by elevated blood levels of antiphospholipid antibody(ies) with
- hypercoagulability (venous and arterial thromboembolism) andlor repeated second or third
- trimester miscarriages.
- Myasthenia gravis (MG) results from an autoimmune type II, antibody mediated,
- hypersensitivity reaction against skeletal myocyte surface acetyicholine receptors. Goodpasture
- syndrome similarly involves autoantibodies against basement membrane collagen of glomerular
- and alveolar epithelia (Type II hypersensitivy). A Type Ill hypersensitivity mechanism apphes to
- poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and possibly Churg-Strauss
- syndrome Contact dermatitis and sarcoidosis result from Type IV, cell mediated,
- hypersensitivity.
- Immotile cilia syndrome (Kartagener syndrome) is characterized by the triad of situs inversus,
- chronic respiratory infections and infertility. It occurs due to a defect in the gene coding for the
- dynein arms of cilia Cystic fibrosis also causes recurrent infections and infertility, but not situs
- inversus,
- The seronegative spondyloarthropathies include ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis,
- psoriatic arthritis and arthritis associated with inflammatory bowel disease. Individuals
- expressing HLA B27 are at increased risk for the seronegative spondyloarthropathies
- When a live attenuated vaccine (eg the Sabin oral polio vaccine) is applied to mucosal surfaces,
- it appears to promote more prolonged synthesis and secretion of local mucosal IgA than does a
- killed vaccine (eg, the Salk inactivated polio vaccine) This increase in mucosal IgA offers
- immune protection at the normal site of viral entry.
- The wheal observed after an insect sting results from an allergic, or Type I hypersensitivity
- reaction. The allergens present in the insect venom result in antibody class switching to IgE on
- initial exposure. and subsequent exposure results in degranulation of mast cells and basophils
- with release of histamine and heparin among other vasoactive mediators. This degranulation can
- cause a response as mild as an urticarial wheal, or as severe as anaphylaxis.
- The best way to prevent neonatal tetanus is to ensure that all pregnant women have been
- vaccinated with the tetanus toxoid, to allow transfer of protective lgG antitoxin antibodies across
- the placenta to the fetus
- The acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is an antibody-mediated (Type II) hypersensitivity
- reaction wherein host antibody binds antigen on transfused donor red blood cells, activating
- complement The complement membrane attack complex causes erythrocyte lysis, and
- anaphylatoxins mediate vasodilatation and symptoms of shock
- 56
- Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal-recessive disorder resulting from a defect in DNA-repair
- genes. The DNA of these patients is hypersensitive to ionizing radiation Manifestations include
- cerebeNar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, repeated sinopulmonary infections, and an
- increased incidence of maIignancy
- Organ rejection is divided into three forms: hyperacute, acute and chronic. Acute rejection
- occurs within weeks of transplantation and is primarily mediated by host T-lymphocytes that act
- against donor MHC (HLA) antigens. This causes a mononuclear infiltrate on histopathology and
- clinical reduction in function of the transplanted organ. Prevention is attempted with calcineurin
- inhibitors and systemic corticosteroids.
- The second most common cause of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is autosomal
- recessive deficiency of adenosine deaminase. an enzyme necessary for the elimination of excess
- adenosine within cells Toxic levels of adenosine accumulate within lymphocytes in this
- condibon, leading to lymphocyte cell death and resultant cellular and humoral immune
- deficiency. Treatment is presently being researched using retroviral vectors to “infect’ patient
- stem cells with the gene coding for adenosine deaminase.
- IMMUNOLOGY 2
- The Haemophi/us ,nfluenzae type b (Hib) vaccine contains bacterial capsular polysaccharide
- conjugated with diphtheria toxoid.
- Patients with SCID present with recurrent infections caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and
- opportunistic pathogens as well as failure to thrive and chronic diarrhea within the first year of
- life.
- The candida skin test gauges the activity of the cell-mediated immune response The active cells
- in the cell-mediated response are macrophages CD4 and CD8 T-Iymphocytes and NK cells
- Poison ivy dermatitis is one form of allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV
- hypersensthvity reaction Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated primarily by T
- lymphocytes. The cutaneous lesions in poison ivy dermatitis are typically linear erythernatous
- papules. vesicles, or bullae that are pruritic.
- hTWnUflObC abnormahties in sarcoidosis include intraalveolar and interstitial accumulation of
- CD4+ T cells, resulting in high CD4:CD8 T-cell ratios in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid.
- Contact dermatitis, granulomatous inflammation, the tuberculin skin test and the Candida extract
- skin reaction are all examples of delayed-type hypersensitMty reactions (DTH) The cells that
- mediate DTH reactions are TH1 -lymphocytes that release interferon-g to cause recruitment and
- stimulation of macrophages 0TH reactions take days to reach their peak activity; this is in
- contrast to the other hypersensitivity reactions which cause clinical effects within minutes of
- antigen exposure.
- 57
- Langerhans cells are dendntic cells found in the skin that act as professional antigen presenting
- celIs These cells are derived from the myeloid cell line and they possess characteristic racquet-
- shaped intracytoplasmic granules known as Birbeck granules
- Sensitized T,2 cells secrete IL-4 and 11-13, which together promote B-lymphocyte class
- switching for IgE synthesis. They also secrete IL-5, which activates eosinophils and promotes
- IgA synthesis An excess of these T2-produced lymphokines may contribute to the pathogenesis
- of extrinsic allergic asthma IL-i is secreted by macrophages to stimulate helper T-ceIIs IL-3 from
- helper T-cells recruits bone marrow stem cells. V-Interferon from helper T-cefls functions
- mainly to activate macrophages. TGF-13 is growth factor involved in tissue regeneration and
- repair.
- Erythroblastosis fetalis and hemolytic disease of the newborn are diseases resulting from
- maternal anti-fetal erythrocyte antigen lgG antibodies. The mother is sensitized to antigens
- present on fetal blood and mounts a humoral immune response to these antigens causing
- hemolysis in the fetus in utero due to the capability of lgG to cross the placenta and enter the
- fetal circulation. This is one form of Type II (antibody mediated) hypersensitivity
- Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a leukocytoclastic vascuhtis that occurs due to deposition of IgA-
- containing immune complexes and manifests with palpable lower extremity purpura. abdominal
- pain, arthralgias and renal involvement. It is the most common cause of systemic vasculitis in
- children and classically occurs in young males 3-10 years old.
- Chronic granulomatous disease is an X-hnked disorder resulting in deficiency of NADPH
- oxidase. the enzyme responsible for formation of reactive oxygen species in neutrophil
- phagolysosomes Neutrophils affected by this disorder are unable to kill catalase-producing
- organisms (Staphylococcus, Serratia, E. coli etc.), but they remain effective in killing non-
- catalase-producing organIsms.
- Hyper-lgM syndrome results from an inability of B-lymphocytes to undergo isotype switching
- from 1gM to other immunoglobulin isotypes such as lgD, lgG, IgE and IgA Clinically, hyper-
- lgM syndrome most commonly results in lymphoid hyperplasia and recurrent sinopulmonary
- infections The syndrome results most commonly from a genetic absence of the CD-40 ligand on
- T-lymphocytes or from a genetic deficiency in the enzymes responsible for the DNA
- modification that takes place dunng isotype switching
- [anans giant cells are characteristic of granulomatous conditions, including the caseating
- granulomas associated with MycobacteriUm tuberculosis infection They have multiple nuclei
- peripherally organized in the shape of a horseshoe. The macrophages that form these giant cells
- are activated by CD4+ Li lymphocytes.
- The prOCeSS of negativeselection in T cell maturation is essential for eliminating T cells that
- bind to self MHC or self antigens with overly high affinity. This process occurs in the thymic
- medulla If these cells were permitted to survive, they would likely induce immune and
- inflammatory reactions against self antigens leading to autoimmune disease.
- 58
- Killed or viral component vaccines predominantly generate a humoral immune response instead
- of a strong cell-mediated immune response
- Selective gA deficiency predisposes to recurrent sinopulmonary and GI tract infections due to
- the absence of secretory IgA It is also associated with an anaphylactic response to transfused
- blood products due to an immune response against transfused IgA which the patierits body
- recognizes as foreign
- Graft-versus-host disease is mediated by T-tymphocytes of the donor tissue that are sensthzed
- against MHC antigens of recipient. Skin, liver and intestine are commonly involved.
- • The findings of hilar adenopathy. pulmonary infiltrates, and non-caseating lung granulomas in
- an African American female point to a diagnosis of sarcoidosis. Granuloma formation is a
- manifestation of cell-mediated immunity driven by products of TH1 type CD4+ helper T cells,
- particularly IL-2 and interferon-y (IFN-y), which stimulate TH1 type cell proliferation and
- macrophage activation, respectively.
- • TH2 type CD4+ helper T cells predominantly drive humoral immune responses. Their products
- include IL-4, which promotes IgE antibody production by B-cells, and IL-5, which promotes the
- production and activation of eosinophils and B-cell synthesis of Ig&
- X-linked agammaglobulinemia is characterized by low levels of circulating B-cells and low
- levels of all immunoglobulins. including IgA. Patients with IgA deficiency are predisposed to
- recurrent respiratory infections and persistent giardiasis. CD1 9. CD2O and CD21 are B-cell
- surface markers
- IFN- y secreted by T-Iymphocytes contributes to granuloma formation
- Pulmonary tuberculosis infection is controlled through the action of CD4+ TH1 lymphocytes and
- macrophages These cells work together to contain Al. tuberculosis within a caseous granuloma,
- which offers the macrophages inside an opportunity to kill the remaining organisms if the
- necrotic area is small enough
- Immature T-Iymphocytes express both the CD4 and CD8 cell surface antigens in addition to a
- complete TCR or a pro-TCR These lymphocytes exist in the thymic cortex where they undergo
- positive selection and in the thymic medulla where they undergo negative selection.
- Atypical lymphocytes observed in the peripheral blood smears of patients with infectious
- mononucleosis represent activated CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. These activated T-
- lymphocytes function to destroy virally-infected B-lymphocytes
- Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder of neutrophil phagosome
- lysosome fusion that resufts in neurologic abnormalities, partial albinism and an
- immunodetlciency caused by defective neutrophil function
- 59
- fr silicosis, there may be disrupbon of macrophage phagolysosomes by internalized silica
- particles Macrophage killing of intracellular mycobactena may be impaired as a result, causing
- increased susceptibility of patients with silicosis to pulmonary tuberculosis
- h,flarnrnation ischaractenzed by the passage of circulating inflammatory leukocytes into the
- inflamed tissue The steps involved include margination. rolling. activation, tight adhesion and
- crawling, and transmigration.
- Omalizumab is aneffective and acceptable add-on therapy for patents with severe allergic asthma
- It has been shown to be effective in reducing dependency on both oral and inhaled steroids
- Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia is an X-hnked immunodeficiency resulting in an absence of B
- cells and all forms of immunoglobuhn due to a defect in B cell maturatiOn. T cell numbers and
- function are intact. Due to the absence of B cells. germinal centers and primary lymphoid
- follicles will not form within lymph nodes.
- Anaphylaxis is the systemic version of a local allergic response Systemic vasodilatation and
- increased vascular permeability as well as airway constriction are mediated by agents such as
- histamine, heparin and other vasoactive peptides released from mast cells and basophils after
- cross-linking of at least two molecules of surface lgE delivers the signal for degranulation.
- The chemokine receptor CCR5 acts as a coreceptor that enables the HIV virus to enter cells
- Deletion of both of the genes that code for this receptor results in resistance to HIV infection
- Deletion of one allele leads to delayed manifestations of the disease in infected individuals
- Wth maternal blood types A and B, erythroblastosis fetalis and hemolytic disease of the newborn
- do not occur, as the naturally occurring antibodies (anti-A and -B) are of the 1gM type and
- cannot cross the placenta. In contrast, in type 0 mothers. the antibodies are predominantly lgG
- and can cross the placenta to cause fetal hemolysis.
- IL-12 stimulates the differentiation of ‘naive T-helper cells into the T_1 subpopulation. Patients
- with IL-12 receptor deficiency suffer from severe mycobacterial infections due to the inability to
- mount a strong cell- mediated granulomatous immune response. They are treated with IFN-y
- DiGeorge syndrome causes an extreme deficiency in the number of mature T ‘ymphocytes,
- leading to poor development of the lymph node paracortex. In contrast. agammaglobulinemia
- causes an absence of B cells, preventing primary lymphoid follicles and germinal centers from
- forming in the lymph node cortex.
- Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is most frequently an X-linked disorder resulting from a
- deficiency of NADPH oxidase Deficiency of this enzyme leads to an inability of neutrophils to
- form the oxidative burst to kill organisms in their phagolysosomes Organisms that produce
- catalase are ineffectively killed by these defective neutrophils while organisms that do not
- produce catalase can still be killed due to accumulation of bacterial hydrogen peroxide within the
- phagosome.
- 60
- Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a disorder marked by combined T- and B-cell
- dysfunction Some important features include: frequent fungal. viral, and bacterial infections
- early in life; marked hypogammaglobulinemia; thymic hypoplasia; persistent diarrhea; failure to
- thrive; severe lymphopenia; and lack of clinically apparent involvement of any other organ
- systems
- The Wiskott-Aidnch syndrome consists of the triad of eczema. thrombocytopenia and combined
- B-lymphocyte and T-lymphocyte deflciency Onset of disease is early in life with
- thrombocytopenia present at birth and eczema and repeated infections, particularly by
- encapsulated organisms, following at 6 to 12 months of age
- The classical complement cascade begins with binding of the Cl complement component to
- either two molecules of lgG or to two molecules of 1gM. Because 1gM circulates in pentameric
- form, it is a much better activator of the complement system The Cl molecule binds to the Fc
- region of the heavy immunoglobulin chain in the region near the hinge point.
- CD8 cells recognize foreign antigens presented with MHC class I proteins. Each MHC class I
- molecule consists of a heavy chain and a -rnicroglobuIin.
- The staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome occurs in infants and children due to the production
- of the exotoxin extoliatin by Staphylococcus species It causes widespread epidermal sloughing,
- especially with gentle pressure (Nikoisky’s sign)
- 61
- MICROBIOLOGY- Cardiology
- Diphtheria toxin is an AR exotoxin that nbosylates and inactivates elongation factor-2 (EF-2)
- This inhibits protein synthesis and ultimately leads to cell death
- Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune reaction that occurs following untreated Streptococcus
- pyogenes(GAS) pharyngths Antigenc similarity between bacterial antigens and normal self
- antigens in the heart and CNS are believed to cause formation of anti-self antibodies resulting in
- RE
- Enterococcus is a component of the normal colonic flora capable of growing in hypertonic (65%)
- NaCI and bile Urine in the bladder is usually sterile but can be contaminated by instruments or
- catheters passed through the outer part of urethra Contaminating organisms include colonec flora
- (which are also frequently found on the perineum and skin surrounding the genitals), such as
- enterococcus Thus, genitourinary manipulation has been known to cause enterococcal
- endocarditis.
- Viridans streptococci produce dextrans from glucose that aid these organisms in colonizing host
- surfaces such as dental enamel and heart valves These organisms cause subacute bacterial
- endocarditis most classically in patients with preexisting cardiac valvular defects after dental
- manipulation This is why antibiotic prophylaxis is used prior to dental work in patients with
- valvular abnormalities
- S. aureus is the most common cause of tricuspid endocarditis in intravenous drug users. P
- aeruginosa is the second most common cause in this patient population. These patients can
- develop muttiple septic emboli in lungs. Pulmonary infarcts are almost always hemorrhagic due
- to the dual blood supply to the lungs (pulmonary and bronchial arteries).
- Viridans streptococc are normal inhabitants of the oral cavity and are a cause of transient
- bacteremia after dental procedures in healthy and diseased individuals. In order to cause subacute
- bacterial endocarditis they require preexisting valve damage leading to the local deposition of
- flbnn required for them to adhere
- Rheumatic fever (RE) can be reduced, as it has been in industrialized nations, by prompt
- treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis and eradication of infective streptococci with prolonged
- penicillin treatment. RF follows untreated Group A Streptococcal (GAS) pharyngitis while acute
- post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis can follow either pharyngitis or skin infection by GAS
- regardless of treatment
- The treatment of a coagulase-negative staphylococcal infecbon involves initial empiric treatment
- with vancomycin with or without rifampin or gentamicin due to the widespread antibiotic
- resistance of S epiderinidís, especially in nosocomial infections
- Staphylococcus epidermidis and S saprophyticus are both coagulase-negative staphylococci
- species. Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common cause of infective endocarditis in
- 62
- patients with prosthetic valves and septic arthritis with prosthetic joints It is susceptible to
- novobiocin
- C d,phtheriàe causes diphthena. an acute bacterial disease that initially affects the oropharynx
- The organism is spread by respiratory droplet transmission and causes disease via its AB
- exotoxin The B (think:
- binding) subunit allows penetration of the A (think: active) subunit into the cell, to inhibit
- ribosome function Neural and cardiac toxicity are serious potential sequelae. Immunization with
- the diphtheria toxoid induces production of circulating lgG against the exotoxin B subunit,
- effectively preventing disease
- MICROBIOLOGY-Genitourinary
- Antiviral drugs currently recommended for the treatment of primary genital herpes include the
- nucleoside analogs (eg, acyclovir). These nucleoside analogs are incorporated into newly
- replicated viral DNA and ultimately terminate viral DNA chain synthesis.
- Streptococci are catalase-negative, staphylococci are catalase-positive S pyogenes (Group A
- Streptococcus) is beta-hemolytic and bacitracin susceptible S agalactiàe (Group B
- Streptococcus) is beta-hemolytic and bacitracin resistant Streptococcus pneurnoniàe is bile
- soluble (unable to be cultured in bile) and optochin susceptible
- PeMc inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by Neisseriagonorrhoeaeor Chlamydià
- trachomatjs and is strongly associated with an increased incidence of ectopic pregnanCy.
- The gonococci use their pill to mediate adherence to the mucosal epithelium. An antibody
- against the specific pilus protein expressed by a gonococcus would prevent mucosal adherence
- and initiation of infection, but each gonococcus possesses the ability to modify the pilus protein
- that it expresses by the process of antigenic variation and thus avoid host defense to some degree
- as well as make vaccination directed against the pilus protein difficult.
- Neissena organisms can be isolated by culture on selective media such as the Thayer-Martin
- VCN medium, which inhibits the growth of contaminants such as Gram positive organisms,
- Gram negative organisms other than Ne,sser,à. and fungi.
- 11 V
- Rheumatic fever and acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are the late sequelae of Group
- A Streptococcal (Streptococcus pyogenes) infections Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis can
- follow either a skin infection (impetigo) or an episode of streptococcal pharyngitis, whereas
- rheumatic fever is associated only with streptococcal throat infection.
- Human papilloma virus (HPV) types 16. 18. and 31 are strongly associated with anal and
- cervical squamous cell carCinoma. HIV infection increases the prevalence of HPV infection and
- the risk of anal carcinoma this risk is further augmented in men who have sex with men.
- 63
- Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics suppresses the normal bacterial flora of the vagina and
- facilitates Candkla overgrowth. Antibiotic use is the most common cause of Candklavaginitis
- Other potential causes include contraceptive use, systemic corticosteroid use, diabetes mellitus,
- and immunosuppression
- E co//is one of the dominant components of the normal flora in the intestinal tract of humans and
- animals It causes approximately 80% of all urinary tract infections P fimbnae are the most
- important viwlence factor that uropathogenic Eco/,express Without P flmbnae, Ecokwould not
- be able to bind to uroepithelial cells and infect the bladder, ureters, and kidneys, Instead, the
- bacteria would simply be washed away during urination.
- Enterobiàs,s Verm/CU/aFiS infection (enterobiasis) occurs most frequently in school-age
- children and presents with penanal pruritus Diagnosis is made by the Scotch tap& test
- Albendazole or mebendazole is the first- line treatment, with pyrantel pamoate as an alternate
- agent preferred in pregnant patients.
- Enterotoxins, Exfoliative Toxins and Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1) are the toxins with
- superantigen activity Superantigens interact with major histocompatibdity complex molecules on
- antigen presenting cells and the variable region of the T lymphocyte receptor to cause
- nonspecthc widespread” activation of T-cells resulting in the release of iriterteukin-2 (IL-2) from
- the T cells and IL-i and TNF from macrophages. The immune cascade, in turn, is responsible for
- the effects of TSS.
- E co//is the most common cause of urinary tract infection in both healthy adults and elderly
- patients. E coil is a part of the normal bowel flora, and special adhesive proteins allow some
- strains to colonize and ascend the urinary tract This can result in pyelonephritis or bacteremia
- and sepsis from access to the bloodstream The most common cause of E co/,bacteremia is a
- urinary tract infection.
- Gram-negative sepsis is caused by the release of LPS from bacterial cells during division or by
- bacteriolysis; LPS is not actively secreted by bacteria. Lipid A is the toxic component of LPS: it
- causes activation of macrophages leading to the widespread release of IL-i and TNF-alpha.
- which cause the signs and symptoms of septic shock: fever, hypotension, diarrhea. oliguria.
- vascular compromise. and DIC
- P. aeruginosa is a non-lactose fermenting gram-negative organism. It is a common cause of
- urinary tract infections in patients with indwelling bladder catheters.
- Mucopurulent cervicitis with cervical motion tenderness is a frequent indicator of PlO caused by
- N. gonorrhoeae or ChlamydIà trachomatis PlO can potentially lead to ectopic pregnancy and
- infertility due to salpingitis leading to scarring of the fallopian tubes if not treated appropriately.
- S saprophyticus is responsible for almost half of all UT1s in sexually active young women
- Staphylococcus saprophyticus belongs to coagulase negative staphylococci and is unique among
- these because ft is resistant to novobiocin.
- 64
- Protein M is the major virulence factor for Streptococcus pyogenes It inhibits phagocytosis and
- complement activation, mediates bacterial adherence, and is the target of type-specific humoral
- immunity to S pyogenes
- Ch/amydiä trachomat,s serotypes Li through L3 cause lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), a
- sexually transmitted disease characterized initially by painless ulcers with later progression to
- painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and ulceration Histologically, LGV is characterized by
- chlamydial inclusion bodies in the cellular cytoplasm.
- Humans acquire schistosomiasis via contact with freshwater that contain snails infected with
- Schistosoma Iarvae Sjàponicum and S mansonicause intestinal and hepatic schistosomiasis, and S
- haematob,um causes urinary schistosomiasis
- Acute bacterial arthritis in sexually active young adults is most commonly caused by N
- gonorrhoeae. S aureus septic arthritis is most common in children and non-sexually active adults
- The combination of new onset genital vesicular rash with a positive Tzanck smear in a
- previously asymptomatic patient is suggestive of primary genital herpes due to HSV-2
- Recurrences of genital herpes can be reduced through daily treatment with oral valacyclovir.
- acyclovir, or famciclovir, these drugs suppress reactivation of latent HSV infection. Condom use
- can help prevent a pnmary genital HSV infection, but does not prevent reactivation of latent
- infection.
- E co//is the most common pathogen causing cystitis and acute pyelonephritis The second most
- common cause of UTI in sexually active women is Staphylococcus saprophyticus tJTls most
- commonly affect women because of their very short urethra: recurrent UT1s in boys or men
- require investigation for urinary tract obstruction or reflux.
- The visualiza1on of spirochetes (such as T pallidum. the causative organism in syphilis) can be
- accomplished with darkfield microscopy, which reveals helical motile Organisms.
- MICROBIOLOGY-GIT
- Travelers diarrhea is most frequently related to ETEC that produces heat labile (LT, choleragen-
- like) and heat stable (ST) enterotoxins LT activates adenytate cyclase leading to increased
- intracellular cAMP, and ST activates guanylate cyclase leading to increased intracellular cGMP,
- Both cause water and electrolyte loss and watery diarrhea
- Cases of typhoid fever in the United States usually occur after a patient has traveled to a location
- where the disease is endemic. Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typh/and paratyphi and
- causes a clinical presentation of escalating fever with initial diarrhea or constipation followed by
- hepatosplenomegaly, the formation of “rose spots” on the abdomen, and possible hemorrhagic
- enteritis with bowel perforation.
- 65
- In absence of the normal intestinal microbial flora (as may be the case after a course of
- antibiotics), ClostridAim dñWdlle can overgrow and produce enterotoxin (toxin A) and cytotoxin
- (toxin B) Clinical disease resulting from C dif/icile overgrowth can range from transient diarrhea
- to severe pseudomembranous colitis.
- In absence of the normal intestinal microbial flora (as may be the case after a course of
- antibiotics), ClostridAim dñWdlle can overgrow and produce enterotoxin (toxin A) and cytotoxin
- (toxin B) Clinical disease resulting from C dif/icile overgrowth can range from transient diarrhea
- to severe pseudomembranous colitis.
- Trypanosoma cruis endemic in rural areas of Central and South America It causes Chagas
- disease (American trypanosomiasis). This parasite can destroy the myenteric plexi in the
- esophagus, intestines, and ureters, causing secondary achalasia. megacolon, and megaureter,
- respectively
- Intraabdominal infections are polymicrobia[ with B. fragthsandE co//being the most prominent
- organisms isolated.
- The minimal infectious dose for cholera infection is usually quEte high with 1O organisms
- required to cause infection after ingestion of contaminated water. V. cholerae is very sensitive to
- gastric acidity and any condition that increases gastric pH will lower the minimum infective dose
- of V cholerae by many orders of magnitude. Gastric pH can be increased by achlorhydria. food
- ingestion. and antacid ingestion
- The UreaSe breath test is used to noninvasively detect H pyIoiiinfection The patient consumes
- 13C-Iabeled urea and his breath is then monitored for the presence of ‘3C-Iabeled carbon
- dioxide, which would indicate the presence of the H pylon product urease in the stomach.
- Mucosal invasn is an essential pathogenic mechanism for Shigeffa infection and is the most
- significant factor in causing disease. Shigella gains access to the gut mucosal epithehum,
- specifically by entering M cells in Peyer’s patches. It then escapes the phagosome, spreads
- laterally to other eprthehal cells, and releases shiga toxin. The process of cellular invasion
- induces a robust inflammatory response in the host it is this response that is primarily responsible
- for the diarrhea seen in shigellosis
- Campy/obacterinfection is a common cause of inflammatory gastroententis and can be acquired
- from domestic animals (cattle, chickens. dogs) or from contaminated food. The diarrhea is
- inflammatory and is accompanied by fever, abdominal pain and tenesmus Canoyhbacterinfection
- is associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome.
- Infant botulism is frequently due to honey consumption More than 12% of honey samples
- contain low numbers of C botu/,num spores. Whereas infant botulism results from consuming C
- botu/,hum spores, adult botulism results from consuming preformed toxin, typically in canned
- food Symptoms of infant botulism include constipation, mild weakness. lethargy. and poor
- feeding.
- 66
- The strain of Enterohemorrhagic E coh’(EHEC) 0157:H7 is thought to cause at least 80% of
- cases of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) in North Amenca, and is recognized as a common
- cause of bloody diarrhea in developed countries It is associated with consumption of
- undercooked ground beef and elaborates a Shiga-like toxin capable of inhibiting protein
- synthesis in colonic mucosal cells and renal endothelial cells This particular strain of E cob is
- unable to ferment sorbitol and does not produce a glucuronidase.
- Shiga-like toxins (ak.a. Vera cytotoxins) are produced by Enterohemorrhagic E coIi(EHEC). As
- their name implies, these toxins are nearly identical to the Shiga toxin produced by Shigella
- dysenteriäe These toxins function to inhibit the 60s ribosomal subunit in human cells thereby
- blocking protein synthesis by preventing binding of tRNA. This mechanism differs from that of
- diphthena toxin and exotoxin A of Pseudomonas in that the latter toxins act on EF-2, not the 60S
- ribosomal subunit.
- Antibiotics disturb the normal intestinal flora and can lead to C diffkiie overgroWth. C difhdlle
- causes colitis with severity ranging from transient watery diarrhea to pseudomembranous colitis.
- Diarrhea may begin up to four weeks after antibiotic therapy. Metronidazole is the treatment of
- choice
- Depending on the age and condition of host as few as 10 cells of any Shigella species can cause
- infection, although the infectious dose is usually much higher Other organisms that can cause
- diarrhea with only a small inoculum include Campylobacterjejuni(500), Entamoeba histolytica
- (as few as one organism), and Giärd,à Iamb/ia (as few as one organism)
- The P/comaviidae family includes the rhinovirus and enterovirus genera Rhinoviruses are acid-
- labile and therefore cannot colonize the Gl tract or cause gastroenteritis Enteroviruses are
- relatively acid stable and can therefore pass through the stomach to colonize or infect the GI tract
- V,brio cholerae along with Enterotoxigenic E coil (ETEC) cause a purely toxin-mediated watery
- diarrhea The toxins secreted by these organisms do not cause cell death they modify electrolyte
- handling by enterocytes, so no blood or pus (leukocytes) is noted on stool microscopy during
- infection by these organisms.
- This iodinestained stool smear shows Giàrdia Iamb/ia cySts. Giardia is the most common enteric
- parasite in the U.S and Canada, and is a common cause of diarrhea in camperslhikers
- Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.
- 67
- MICROBIOLOGY-Head & Neck
- Fever, vesiculoulcerative gingivostomatitis. and cervical lymphadenopathy are the most common
- clinical manifestations of primary infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV-1). Reactn,ation of a
- latent HSV infection in the trigeminal ganglia generally results in more limited perioral blisters
- or “cold sores An abortive viral infection does not cause significant cytopathic effects
- Scarlet fever is characterized by fever. pharyngitis. sandpaper—like rash. circumoral pallor, and
- a strawberry tongue. It is caused by strains of Group A streptococcus that produce pyrogenic
- exotoxins. Scarlet fever can predispose to acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis.
- Non-pathogerucCorynebacterium can cause severe pseudomembranous pharyngitis after
- acquiring the Tox gene via lysogenization by a temperate bacteriophage.
- Neutropenic patients are at risk for infection with Aspergillus fumigatus This fungus produces
- septate hyphae with acute V-shaped branching It causes invasive aspergillosis, aspergillomas,
- and allergic pulmonary aspergillosis.
- Diphtheria exotoxin inhibits host cell protein synthesis by catalyzing the ADP-nbosylation of
- host cell elongation factor-2 (EF-2)
- Dhtheria infection is associated with a 5-10% mortality rate, especially in younger patients or
- those with myocarditis. Cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of death. Treatment includes
- diphtheria antitoxin (passive immunization), antibiotics, and active immunization. Of these,
- passive immunization with antitoxin is the most important and has the greatest effect on
- prognosis.
- Interferons a and 13 are produced by a wide variety of eukaryotic cells in response to viral
- infection. These interferons act as cytokines on neighboring cells, stimulating them to synthesize
- antiviral proteins that impair viral protein synthesis
- Diphtheria toxin and pseudomonal exotoxin A act by nbosylating and inactivating elongation
- factor-2, inhibiting host cell protein synthesis and causing cell death.
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a nonlactose-fermenting, oxidase-positive, motile. Gram-negative
- rod. It is the most common cause of malignant otitis extema (MOE), a serious infection of the ear
- seen in elderly diabetic patients. MOE presents with exquisite ear pain and drainage, and
- granulation tissue is often seen within the ear canal.
- C. diphtheriäe is cultured on cysteine-tellurite agar. The resultant colonies are black in color.
- The bacterium produces intracellular polyphosphate granules, called metachromatic granules,
- that can be detected on microscopy after methylene blue staining.
- Actinomyces israeli/is a Gram positive organism that is best known for causing cervicofacial
- actinomycosis in patients following dental manipulation or other oral trauma The disease is
- characterized by a slowly growing and firm-feeling abscess in the face or neck region that
- 68
- eventually forms cutaneous sinus tracts. Long-term penicillin treatment and surgical debndement
- are required.
- Typical clinical and laboratory features of Epstein-Barr mononucleosis include fever,
- pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, atypical lymphocytosis, and a positive
- Monospot test (ie, positive heterophil antibodies) EBV is generally transmitted from an
- asymptomatic virus shedder to a susceptible individual through saliva transfer (eg, kisSing).
- The DNA form of the HIV genome includes structural and regulatory genes. Structural gene
- (gag, pol and env) products include nucleocapsid proteins p24 and p? (from the gag gene) and
- envelope glycoproteins gpl2O and gp4l (from the envgene) Important enzymes are produced
- from transcription and translation of the po/gene The regulatory tat and rev genes are required
- for viral rephcation
- Oral thrush is caused by Cand/da alb,cans infection It is associated with wearing dentures,
- diabetes mellitus, and immunosuppression. Unexplained oral thrush in an otherwise healthy
- person suggests the possibility of HIV infection
- CMV is typically associated with subclinical infection in the immunocompetent. with the
- occasional individual developing a mononucleosis-like syndrome that is Monospot negative In
- the immunocompromised, primary or reactivated CMV infection can result in severe retinitis,
- pneumonia, esophagitis, colitis, andlor hepatitis.
- Viruses with segmented genomes (eg. orthomyxoviruses and rotaviruses) are capable of genetic
- shifts through reassortment. Reassortment involves exchange of entire genome segments, a far
- more dramatic process than the point mutations responsible for genetic drift
- The findings of facial pain. headache. and black necrotic eschar in the nasal cavity in a patient
- with diabetic ketoacidosis are highly suggestive of mucormycosis Histologic examination of the
- affected tissue is necessary to confirm the diagnosiS. These fungi show broad nonseptate hyphae
- with nght angle branching. Treatment consists of surgical debñdernent and amphotericin B.
- The Thayer-Martin selective medium is used to isolate Neiseria species from clinical cultures. It
- is a chocolate (i.e., heated blood) agar that contains vancomycin to inhibit the growth of gram-
- positive organisms, colistin (i.e., polymyxin) to inhibit gram-negative bacteria. nystatin to inhibit
- the growth of fungi, and trimethoprim to inhibit the growth of gram-negative organisms other
- than Ne,sser,a such as the Proteus species.
- Children aged one to three years who develop gingivostomatitis characterized by ulcerative
- lesions with intranuclear inclusions are likely experiencing primary infection with herpes
- simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). HSV-1 and other herpesviruses are enveloped and possess double-
- stranded DNA genomes
- The congenital rubella syndrome is predominantly characterized by neonatal defects of the head
- (microcephaly, mental retardation), eyes (cataracts), ears (deafness), and heart/cardiovascular
- system
- 69
- (patent ductus arteriosus, peripheral pulmoruc stenosis). To decrease the incidence of this
- syndrome, the
- CDC currently recommends the vaccination of children and non-pregnant females of
- childbearing age with
- live, attenuated rubella virus vaccine.
- Mucormycosis is an opportunistic infection caused by Rhizopus, Mucor and Abs,d,à species. The
- classic clinical picture is paranasal sinus involvement in a diabetic or immunosuppressed patient
- The fungi form broad nonseptate hyphae that branch at right angles
- The Haemophiius ,hfiuenzae type b vaccine is composed of cell wall polysaccharide conjugated
- with protein toxoid from either diphtheria or tetanus This vaccination can be given as earty as 2
- months of age and has drastically reduced the incidence of clinical disease caused by I-I
- influenzae such as meningitis, pneumonia, sepsis and epiglottitis.
- Changes in host range are most commonly caused by a mutation in the viral encoded surface
- glycoprotein that mediates vinon attachment to target host cell plasmalemma receptors.
- Mutations in viral encoded capsid proteins, RNA polymerases, endonucleases, or proteases could
- nonspecifically affect viral replication in the standard host cell but would be less likely to
- significantly alter the range of host cell types that an enveloped RNA virus could successfully
- infect.
- CMV is the most common cause of heterophil antibody-negative (ie, Monospot-negative)
- mononucleosis. The Monospot test is positive in up to 90% of cases with EBV-associated
- mononucleosis
- Adenoviruses are the cause of a pharyngoconjunctival fever that classically occurs in small
- outbreaks among individuals living together in close quarters (such as military barracks or camp
- dormitories)
- MICROBIOLOGY-Hepatic
- Hepatitis A virus can be inactivated with water chlorination, bleach (1:100 dilution), formalin,
- ultraviolet irradiation, or boiling to 85° C for one minute
- Transmission of the hepatitis A virus occurs through the fecal-oral route and is common in areas
- with overcrowding and poor sanitation Outbreaks frequently result from contaminated water or
- food, with raw or steamed shellfish a common culprit in the United States
- Chioroquine is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated malaria contracted in a chioroquine-
- sensitive geographic region. It eliminates susceptible erythrocytic forms of all Plasmodia species
- Pnmaquine is added in the treatment of infections with P v/vax and P ovale in order to eradicate
- the intrahepatic stages of these two malarial species.
- 70
- Because of the remarkable variety in the antigenic structure of hepatitis C virus envelope
- proteins, the production of host antibodies lags behind the production of new mutant strains of
- HCV and effective immunity against infection is not conferred
- The hepatitis B virus genome consists of partially double-stranded circular DNA Replication is
- accomplished through a reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase that creates an intermediate +
- single-stranded RNA template and double-stranded DNA progeny
- Often referred toas the delta agent or the hepatitis delta virus, hepatitis D virus is a replication-
- defective RNA virus that is only capable of causing infection when encapsulated with HBSAg
- Most enveloped nucleocapsid viruses acquire their lipid bilayer envelope by budding through the
- plasma membrane of the host cell. Exceptions include the herpesviruses, which bud through and
- acquire their envelope from the host cell nuclear mernbrane
- The HBsAg of hepatitis B virus must coat the HDAg of hepatitis D virus before it can infect
- hepatocytes and muitiply
- Seronegative individuals who receive the hepatitis B vaccination will develop immunity and be
- positive for anti-HBsAg but negative for HBSAg
- If HBeAg persists for several months and host anti-HBeAg remain at low or undetectable levels,
- suspect chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
- The hepatitis B virus replicates via the following sequence: double-stranded DNA —k template
- +RNA progeny double-stranded DNPL
- Blood is the primary means of HBV transmission. but the virus can also be spread by exposure to
- semen, saliva, sweat, tears, breast milk, and pathologic effusions
- Hepatitis E virus is an unenveloped. single-stranded RNA virus spread through the fecal-oral
- route. The most concerning feature of hepatitis E infection is the high mortality rate observed in
- infected pregnant women.
- A resolved hepatitis B infection is suggested by moderate to high levels of anti-HBc and anti-
- HBs without detectable viral antigens.
- The hepatitis C virus is genetically unstable because it lacks proofreading 3’ —k 5 exonuclease
- activity in its RNA polymerase and its envelope glycoprotein contains a hypervariable region
- prone to frequent genetic mutation.
- Vertical transmission of hepatitis B from pregnant females to the unbom child can occur in
- women with active hepatitis B infection. The presence of HBeAg (a marker of viral replication
- and increased infectivity) in the mother greatly increases the risk of vertical transmission of the
- virus Because of this concern, the newborns of all mothers with active hepatitis B are passively
- 71
- immunized at birth with hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG), followed by active immunization
- with recombinant HBV vaccine
- Hepatitis A virus infection is most commonly silent or subclinical (“anicteric) in children but can
- also present as an acute, self-limited illness characterized by jaundice, malaise, fatigue, anorexia,
- nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant pain, or an aversion to smoking
- A component of the hepatitis B virus envelope. HBSAg is a noninfective glycoprotein that forms
- spheres and tubules 22 nm in diameter Infected hepatocytes may secrete enormous quantities of
- HBsAg, often considerably exceeding the amount of HBcAg produced.
- Neonates born to HBsAg- and HBeAg-positive mothers are at high risk of chronic infection,
- experience fast HBV replication, and demonstrate mild hepatic injury histologically
- MICROBIOLOGY-Neurology
- E. coli is a frequent cause of neonatal meningitis, second only to Group B Streptococci (GBS)
- The capsule synthesized by some E cok(K-1 antigen) is a virulence factor that allows the bacteria
- to survive hematogenous spread and to establish meningeal infection. Most strains of E
- co//causing neonatal meningitis do possess this K-i antigen.
- The finding of multiple ring-enhancing lesions in an HIV patient is most likely due to
- toxoplasmosis
- C/OSt,ithum tetanñs responsible for tetanus, a toxin-mediated disease that causes uncontrolled
- muscle spasms and respiratory failure. Toxin travels within the motor neuron by retrograde
- transport into the spinal cord where it causes inhibition of inhibitory intemeurons and
- unregulated firing of primary motor neurons.
- Ne,sseriä meningit/dis can cause upper respiratory infection, meningitis and meningococcemia
- Immunity against these bacteria is provided by antibodies against their polysaccharide capsules.
- The meningococcal vaccine contains immunogenic capsular polysaccharides from four major
- serotypes of N. meningitidis and induces production of protective anticapsular antibodies
- Subacute headache. fever, and neck stiffness in the presence of a lymphocytic CSF pleocytosis,
- modestly elevated CSF protein level, and otherwise normal CSF parameters points to a diagnosis
- of aseptic meningitis. Enteroviruses, including coxsackievirus and echovirus, are the most
- common causes of aseptic meningitis
- Varicella lgG antibodies suggest an antecedent primary varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection.
- These antibodies generally confer immunity against chickenpox reinfection but not against
- herpes zoster, which is reactivation of VZV
- 72
- Rhabdoviridae (rabies) are single-stranded RNA viruses enveloped by a bullet-shaped capsule,
- which is studded by glycoprotein spikes that bind to nicotinic acetyicholine receptors Once
- deposited in a wound, the virus stays local for a period of days or weeks before binding to
- acetylchohne receptors on peripheral nerve axons and traveling retrograde to the central nervous
- system
- Ne,sseriä meningit/dis gains access to the CNS by first colonizing the nasopharynx and
- subsequently invading the mucosal epithelium and gaining access to the bloodstream. Through
- the blood. it spreads to the choroid plexus, gains access to the CNS through the blood—brain
- barrier, and initiates an inflammatory process.
- Congenital toxoplasmosis is a transpiacental infection (acquired in utero). Its classic triad
- includes hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications and chorioretinitis Expecting mothers should
- avoid cat feces to help prevent exposure to Toxoplasma.
- Meningococcaliipooiigosaccharide (LOS) is responsible for many of the toxic effects observed
- in meningitis and meningococcemia Blood levels of LOS correlate closely with morbidity and
- mortality
- Clostridia are Gram positive spore-forming anaerobic rods. C botulinum is the bacteria
- responsible for botulism, a toxin-mediated disease Local injections of botulinum toxin into
- muscle are used to treat focal dystonias, achalasia and spasms.
- Enteroviruses are the most common cause of viral aseptic menirigitis The enterovirus group
- includes the coxsackieviruses, echoviruses and pohoviruses Pohovirus can cause lower motor
- neuron injury in addition to meningitis, especially in non-immunized individuals from endemic
- regiOns.
- In AIDS patients, the radiographic finding of ring-enhancing lesions in both cerebral
- hemispheres is most often indicative of toxoplasmosis
- Primary CNS lymphorna is typically composed of B-lymphocytes and most commonly occurs in
- immunocompromised patients (such as those with AIDS).
- Bacterial meningitis causes an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) neutrophil count and protein
- concentration as well as a decrease in CSF glucose. Streptococcus pneumoniàe is a leading cause
- of community-acquired pneumonia. otitis media, and meningitis in adults. Spneumoniàe appears
- on Gram stain as lancet-shaped, Gram-positive cocci in pairs.
- Cryptococcus neoformans causes meningoencephalitis in HIV (+) patients The latex
- agglutination test detects the polysaccharide capsule antigen of Cryptococcus and is used for
- diagnosis India ink staining of the CSF shows round or oval budding yeast.
- Cryptococcus neoformans is present in soil and pigeon droppings. The yeast is transmitted via
- the respiratory route, with the lungs as the primary site of entry In immunocompromised patients,
- lung infection may be followed by dissemination of C neoforinans. often into the CNS
- 73
- There are three main kinds of botulism: food-borne botulism, wound botulism and infant
- botulism In food-borne botulism, botulinum neurotoxin in food (produced by the organism
- Clostridium botulinum) prevents release of acetyicholine from nerve terminals at the
- neuromuscular junction, thereby preventing muscular contraction
- Campylobacferjejunhinfection can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) in rare instances.
- GBS is a demyelinating syndrome of the peripheral nerves characterized by ascending musc’e
- weakness and paralysiS.
- Illness caused by Clostridium tetani (tetanus) can be prevented by proper immunization with a
- childhood series and a booster immunization every ten years thereafter in adulthood An
- immunized mother will be able to pass lgG through the placenta to the fetus and provide passive
- immunity against neonatal tetanus until the child receives its first tetanus vaccination at two
- months of age. Neonatal tetanus usually results from C. tetani colonization of the umbilical
- stump
- Meningococcal sepsis may be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation and
- hemorrhagic destruction of the bilateral adrenal glands. This constellation of findings is known
- as the
- Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. N. nieniigiidis sepsis does not necessarily include
- meningitis.
- Meningococcal pi are responsible for epithelial attachment to nasopharynx Antibody coating
- these pili would prevent pilus-mediated attachment of the meningococcus to the mucosal
- epithelium of the nasopharynx, thereby preventing invasion and disease.
- Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause of foreign body infections due to its ability to
- produce adherent biofilms
- Cryptococcal meningitis is diagnosed by India ink staining of cerebrospinal fluid The main
- treatment for this infection is amphotericin B and flucytosine
- The clinical presentation of restlessness, agitation, and dysphagia progressing to coma 30 to 50
- days following an exposure to cave bats is strongly suggestive of rabies encephahtis Prophylactic
- vaccination is recommended by the CDC for indMduals at high risk of exposure to rabid animals
- or their tissues The FDA approved rabies vaccine consists of various rhabdovirus strains grown
- in tissue cell culture and then inactivated to produce killed virus vaccine
- Infection of the sac ral sensory ganglia with a double-stranded DNA virus is likely to eventually
- result in a recurrent, painful genital rash (genital herpes) secondary to reactivation of the latent
- herpes simplex virus
- (HSV-2)
- 74
- 1. Listeriosis is most commonly transmitted through food ingestions and causes sepsis and
- meningitis in immunocompromised adults, Listeria can also cause neonatal meningitis, being
- transmitted transplacentaUy or via vaginal contact during delivery,
- 2. Listeria grows well in cold temperatures (cold enrichment) and thus can contaminate
- refrigerated food,
- 3. Listeria is a gram positive rod with V or L formations resembling corynebacterium, but its
- tumbling motility is a unique feature.
- Tetanospasmin is the neurotoxin released by C tetani It causes an inhibition of the inhibitory
- intemeurons in the spinal cord that regulate firing of pnmary motor neurons These inhibitory
- intemeurons use GABA and glycine as their neurotransmitters, but tetanospasmin prevents the
- release of these neurotransmitters
- 1. Intact cell-mediated immunity is essential for the elimination of Listeria monocytogenes from
- the body. Neonates up to 3 months of age are especially vulnerable because they have yet to fully
- develop their cell-mediated immunity Listeria rarely causes disease in normal healthy adults
- 2. This bacterium produces a very narrow zone of beta-hemolysis on sheep blood agar
- (resembling the pattern produced by 3-hemolytic Streptococci), shows tumbling motility at 22°C,
- and can be cultured at temperatures as low as 4°C.
- MICROBIOLOGY-Pulumunology
- The Hib vaccine consists of PRP capsular polysacchahde conjugated with either tetanus or
- diphtheria toxoid. Protein conjugation causes a T-ceIl mediated immune response leading to
- immunoglobulin class switching and generation of memory B-lymphocytes This response would
- not occur with pure polysaccharide immunization
- Leg/onellapneurnophiia is a facultative intracellular gram-negative bacilli that can cause a
- systemic infection Symptoms frequently include high fever, cough, confusion, and diarrhea. The
- most common laboratory abnormality seen with Legionella pneumonia is hyponatremia, and
- sputum Gram stain often shows many neutrophils, but few or no organIsms.
- Studies have shown that maternal prophylaxis during pregnancy with the nucleoside analog
- zidovudine (ZDV, AZT), a retroviral reverse transcriptase inhibitor, reduces the risk of pennatal
- transmission by about two-thirds in HIV-positive women who have not pre’iousIy received
- antiretroviral therapy.
- Patients older than 65 are particularly prone to developing secondary bacterial pneumonia after
- influenza infection. In order, the pathogens most often responsible for secondary bacterial
- pneumonia are Streptococcus pneumoniàe, Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophiius ,hfluenzae.
- 75
- The finding of interstitial pneumonia in a transplant patient with intranuclear and cytoplasmic
- inclusion bodies histologically points to opportunistic infection with CMV. CMV is an
- enveloped viws that contains a double-stranded DNA genome.
- Histop/asma capsu/atum can survive intracellularty within macrophages It causes a disseminated
- mycosis in immunocompromised patients. The clinical features include systemic symptoms
- (fever and weight loss), painful oral ulcers, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly
- Dimorphic fungi grow as molds at 25-30°C and as yeast at body temperature (35-37°C)
- Medically important dimorphic fungi include Sporothri Coccidioldes Histoplasma Blastomyces
- and Paracocc,diO,desspecies
- Penichnscephalosporins and vancomycin are able to disrupt the peptidoglycan cell wall of Gram-
- posrtive and Gram-negative organisms. The peptidoglycan cell wall of these organisms gives
- them the ability to survive osmotic stress; this ability is lost after treatment with these antibiotic
- agents.
- Meningitis is the most common presentation of Cryptococcus neoformans infection. It occurs in
- immunosuppressed patients and can be diagnosed by India ink staining of the CSF Cryptococcal
- pneumonia is diagnosed by mucicarmine staining of lung tissue and bronchoalveolar washings
- Ether and other organic solvents dissolve the lipid bdayer that makes up the outer viral envelope.
- Loss of infectivity after ether exposure is a charactenstic feature of enveloped viruses
- Blastomyces deimatitides can cause pulmonary disease in the immunocompetent host In
- immunocompromised individuals, it may lead to disseminated mycosis (fever, pulmonary
- symptoms, skin and bone involvement).
- AspeigiiIusfiimigatuscauses opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed and neutropenic
- patients (invasive aspergillosis). Aspergillosis can also be colonizing (aspergilloma) and allergic
- (ABPA).
- HIV-positive patients often experience reactivation of latent EBV infections with a resulting
- increased incidence of EBV-induced lymphoprohferative disorders, including the aggressive
- non-Hodgkin’s diffuse B-cell lymphomas.
- • S pneumoniàe is able to undergo transformation, which is the uptake and expression of
- chromosomal fragments from the environment made available when another bactenal cell dies
- and undergoes lysis.
- • Conjugation is pilus-mediated transfer of DNA Conjugation occurs in most bacteria but was
- first described in the gram negative rod E co/i
- • In transduction, DNA from one bacterial cell is transferred to another bacterial cell by a
- bacteriophage (virus).
- 76
- AUercbronchopulmonary aspergiflosis (ABPA) due to Aspergillus fumigatus may complicate
- asthma, ABPA can result in transient recurrent pulmonary infiltrates and eventual proximal
- bronchiectasis,
- Candida a/b/cans is a normal inhabitant of the GI tract (including the oral cavity) in up to 40%
- of the population Thus, it is a common contaminant of sputum cuttures The presence of Candida
- in sputum does not indicate disease.
- Cryptococcusneoformans is the only pathogenic fungus that has a polysaccharide capsule The
- capsule appears red on mucicarmine stain, and as a clear unstained zone with India ink
- H. influenza is a “blood loving” organism. Part of the laboratory identification process of H.
- ,nfluenzae is demonstration of the requirement of X (hematin) and V (NAD+) factors for growth
- This can be accomplished by growing H. influenzae in the presence of S aureus and
- demonstrating the “satellite phenomenon” where H. /h/luenzae grow only near the beta-
- hemolytic S aireus colonies because they produce the needed X and V factors.
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the causative agent in walking pneumonia and many cases of
- tracheobronchitis. It is an organism with no peptidoglycan cell wall, it only has a phospholipid
- bilayer cell membrane. It shares antigens with human erythrocytes, and when the body mounts a
- response against these antigens it also lyses red blood cells leading to anemia. The antibodies
- causing this RBC destruction are referred to as cold agglutinins.
- S. pneumoniàe are Gram-positive, aipha-hernolytic, optochin-sensitive, bile-sensitive diplococci
- S wridans is also aipha-hemolytic. but it is optochin-resistant S pyogenes (Group A Strep)
- appears as Gram-positive cocci in chains and can be identified by its susceptibdityto bacitracin
- Brassy, barking cough; dyspnea: and recent history of upper respiratory infection in a child are
- suggestive of viral laryngotracheitis (croup). The most common cause of croup is parainfiuenza
- virus.
- The acid-fast staw identifies organisms that have mycolic acid present in their cell walls.
- including Mycobacterium and some Nocard,à species Acid-fast staining is carried out by
- applying an aniline dye (eg, carbolfuchsin) to a smear and then decolorizing with acid alcohol to
- reveal whether the organisms present are “acid fast”
- Chronic gran1omatous disease (CGD) results from a genetic defect in NADPH oxidase
- Normally, NADPH oxidase participates in the killing of microbes within neutrophil
- phagolysosomes Patients with CGD develop recurrent pulmonary, cutaneous, lymphatic. and
- hepatic infections, with a tendency toward granuloma formation, usually beginning in childhood
- These infections are predominantly caused by:
- • Staphylococcus aureus
- a Pseudomonas cepacia (Burkhokiena cepacia)
- a Serrat,à marcesc ens
- a Nocard,ä species
- a A spergillus species
- 77
- In the general population at any given time. 25-30% of individuals have nasal colonization with
- Staphylococcus aureus The anterior nares are the most common site of colonization for both
- methicillin-sensitive and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
- S pneumoniàe expresses a polysaccharide capsule that inhibits phagocytosis by macrophages and
- polymorphonuclear leukocytes. It is the primary virulence factor, without which S pneumoniàe
- cannot cause disease.
- Virulent mycobactena will grow as “serpentine cords on enriched media secondary to the
- presence of cord factor, a mycoside. Cord factor establishes virulence through neutrophil
- inhibition, mitochondnal destruction, and the induced release of tumor necrosis factor.
- All organisms in the Mycoplasma genus, including Ureaplasma. lack peptidoglycan cell walls
- and are therefore resistant to agents that attack the peptidoglycan cell wall such as penicillins,
- cephalosporins, carbapenems and vancomycin. Mycoplasma infections can be treated with anti-
- ribosomal agents like tetracycline and erythromycin.
- Coccidloides immitis infection can be asymptomatic or it can cause pulmonary disease ranging
- from a flu-like illness to chronic pneumonia. It causes disseminated disease in
- immunocompromised patients. Spherules containing endospores are found in tissue samples.
- Cocc,d,O ides ,mm/t,s is a dimorphic fungus endemic to the southwestern United States. It exists
- in the environment as a mold (with hyphae) that forms Spores. These spores are inhaled and turn
- into spherules in the lungs.
- Universal prenatal screening for group B strep Colonization by vaginal-rectal culture at 35-37
- weeks gestation is recommended to identify colonized women who require INTRAPARTIJM
- antibiotics, most frequently with penicillin or ampicillin. to prevent neonatal GBS sepsis.
- pneumonia and meningitis
- The pathogenicftyofHIhftLen2ae is dependent on the presence of the antiphagocytic
- polysaccharide capsule. The type b strain is the most invasive and virulent it has a capsule with a
- ribose as the sugar rather than a hexose as is used in the other strains of encapsulated H.
- influenzae and this may be a reason for the increased virulence of Hib compared to the others.
- Unencapsulated (nontypable) H. ,hfluenzae are part of the normal flora and cause only local
- infections.
- Nontypable strains of Haemophiius ,nfluer,zae are strains of H. !hfluenzae that do not form an
- antiphagocytic capsule They are part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, but can
- cause otitis media, sinusitis and bronchitis. Immunity to nontypable strains, as well as capsular
- strains other than type b, is not conferred by vaccination with the Hib Vaccine.
- Rapidly progressing fever, severe sore throat, drooling and progressive airway obstruction
- potentially accompanied by stridor are the presenting symptoms of acute epiglottitis. This illness
- is most commonly caused by H. ,nfluenzae type b, but the Hib vaccine has dropped the incidence
- 78
- of this disease considerably H. influenzae type b can still cause disease in unimmunized or
- improperly immunized patients as well as fully immunized patients in some cases.
- Lpneumophilacornmonly contaminates natural bodies of water, municipal water, humidification
- systems and air conditioning and water-based cooling systems as are used in many commercial
- applications The organism is inhaled in aerosohzed water and establishes infection by the
- pulmonary route It requires special enriched media for growth specificaHy it requires media
- supplemented with L-cysteine and culture on charcoal-yeast extract agar
- The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in immunocompetent hosts (which
- would include an HIV+ patient with normal CD4+ counts) is Streptococcus pneumonlàe
- Infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae can result in the formation of cold agglutinins Other
- illnesses resulting in cold agglutinin formation include EBV infection and hematologic
- malignancy Cold agglutinins are antibodies specific for red blood cells that only cause
- agglutination, or clumping, of red blood cells at low temperatures
- Mycop/asmaprieumoniáeis the causative agent of “walking pneumonia’ a condition
- characterized by a nagging nonproductive cough, low-grade fever and malaise Often, the chest
- X-ray suggests a severe pneumonia even though the patient appears relatively welL Mycoplasma
- species require cholesterol supplementation in order to grow on artificial media.
- Blastomyces dermat,tid,s is a dimorphic fungus that is seen in tissue as round yeasts with doubly
- refractive walls and “broad based budding” it is endemic to the Great Lakes, and the Ohio and
- Mississippi River regions The lungs are the primary site of involvement
- The Haemophi/usuifluerizaetype b (Hib) vaccine is composed of polynbosy[-nbito-phosphate
- (PRP), a component of the Hib capsule, conjugated with diphtheria or tetanus toxoid. Immune
- activation with antibody production and memory B-lymphocyte induction against PRP provides
- lasting immunity against Hib in children as young as 2 months old. Epiglottitis is almost
- exclusively caused by Haemophdusinfluenzaetype b
- For a naked RNA molecule to induce viral protein synthesis in a host cell, it must be able to act
- directly as mRNA using the host’s intracellular machinery for translation Thus naked viruses
- containing single-stranded positive-sense RNA can be infectious, whereas naked viruses
- containing single- or double-stranded negative sense RNA are not infectious.
- The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over 65 years of age
- and for patients with CQPD, asplenia. or immunosuppression. Vaccination does not completely
- prevent pneumonia, as this vaccine only contains antigen from 23 of the more than 80 different
- capsular serotypes known The adult pneumococcal vaccine is an unconjugated polysacchande
- vaccine that, unlike the infant vaccine, does not stimulate a T-helper response.
- Histoplasma capsu/atum is a dimorphic fungus located intraceIluIary within macrophages ft
- affects the lungs and reticuloendothelial systern It is present in bird and bat droppings, and is
- endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio River basins.
- 79
- The spleen serves both as a site of antibody synthesis and as a reservoir of phagocytic cells
- capable removing circulating pathogens. Asplenic patients are prone to infections caused by
- encapsulated organisms such as S. pneumoniàe, H ,nfluenzae. and Ii meningitiths
- BeCaUSe VIrUSeS must use eukaryotic nbosomes for protein synthesis, they must convert their
- polycistronic genome into monocistronic mRNA Some viruses accomplish this through the
- production of a polyprotein product from a single mRNA transcript. This product is later cleaved
- by a viral protease to generate a complete set of functional, individual viral proteins
- Spore-forming bacteria can survive boiling. Bacillus anthrac,s and members of the genus
- Clostridium are potentially pathogenic bacteria found in the soil and capable of forming spores.
- LegiOnel/apneurnophllacauses Legionnaires disease. Legionnaires disease has a propensity to
- affect smokers and is characterized by very high fever, diarrhea, headache, and confusion.
- Laboratory studies frequently show hyponatremia. L pneumophlla is a gram-negative rod that is
- often not detected on Gram stain.
- Microbiology
- Reproductive+Vascular+Haematology
- Educational objective:
- The most important steps for the prevention of central venous catheter infections are as follows:
- • Proper hand washing
- • Full barrier precautions dunng insertion of a central hne
- • Chlorhexidine for skin disinfection
- • Avoidance of the femoral insertion site
- a Removal of catheter(s) when no longer needed
- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) commonly infects B cells, stimulating them to enter the cell cycle and
- proliferate continuously (a process termed “transformation or ‘immortahzation). EBV is an
- oncogenic virus that promotes polyclonal B cell proliferation and heterophil antibody production
- The Monospot test is a highly specific test used to diagnose EBV infection; the test is positive
- when horse red blood cells are agglutinated in vitro by heterophil antibodies
- A total of 50,000 to 120,000 central venous catheters-associated bloodstream infections have
- been estimated to occur annually in the US. Indwelling central catheters predispose to bacteremia
- and sepsis and should be monitored regularly for signs and symptoms of infection and suspected
- in hospitalized patients with new-onset fever or bacteremia.
- The high mutability of HIV-1 allows for the evasion of host humoral and cellular immune
- responses and the development of resistance to anti-retroviral drugs Pol gene mutations are
- responsible for acquired resistance to HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitors and HIV protease
- Inhibitors. Env gene mutations enable escape from host neutralizing antibodies.
- 80
- There is only one clinically significant nral family in which the members are both non-enveloped
- and contain single-stranded DNA: Parvovihdae Parvovirus Bi 9 causes erythema infectiosum
- (fifth disease), aplastic crises in sickle cell anemia, and hydrops fetalis
- Red blood cel[s filled with multiple. smaller round nucleated cells suggests Plasmodia (malana)
- infection Erythrocytic forms of this parasite may be treated with chloroquine or mefloquine
- Primaquine is required to kill P v/vaKand P ova/eliverschizonts.
- Essential to viral invasion of cells and the viral tropism for specific tissues is the initial
- attachment of the virion
- envelope or capsid surface proteins to the complementary host cell surface receptors Many
- viruses bind to
- normal host cell plasma membrane receptors in order to enter host cells Known host cell receptor
- — virion/virion protein binding specificities include: CD4 and HIV gpl2O; CD21 and EBV
- gp350; and erythrocyte P
- antigen and parvovirus 819
- Pelvic inflammatory disease is most frequently caused by N. gononhoeae and C trachomatis If
- Neisserial or Chiamydial urethritis, cervicitis or PID is not treated, they can lead to scarring of
- the fallopian tubes and infertility or ectopic pregnancy Treatment of gonococcal genital tract
- infections must always include treatment for Chlamydia as well: the usual treatment is a third-
- generation cephalosporin as well as azithromycin or doxycycline.
- Candida a/b/cans is the most common cause of opportunistic mycosis It can affect any organ and
- cause generalized candidemia. Yeasts and pseudohyphae on light microscopy and a positive
- germ tube test are diagnostic of Cand/daa/b/cansinfection.
- A febrile upper respiratory illness in a child followed by the sudden appearance of red, flushed
- cheeks approximately 2-5 days later is characteristic of erythema infectiosum (parvovirus B 19
- infection) This virus is highly tropic for erythroid precursor cells and replicates predominantly in
- the bone marrOw.
- Escherich,à co/,strain 0157:H7 can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) HUS is a rare
- condition affecting mostly children under the age of 10 This strain of E coli is most commonly
- contracted after eating undercooked ground beef.
- Maternal rubella infection produces a low-grade fever, a maculopapular rash with cephalocaudal
- progression, and posterior auricular and suboccipital lyrnphadenopathy. Most adult women
- patients develop polyarthritis and polyarthralgia as sequelae. Congenital rubella syndrome is
- associated with serisonneural deafness, cataracts, and cardiac malformations (PDA).
- In patients with sickle cell anemia and other chronic hemolytic disorders, the most common viral
- cause of an aplastic crisis is infection of erythroid progenitor cells with parvovirus B19, a non-
- enveloped, single-stranded DNA virus
- 81
- Microbiology-Skeletal
- C. perfringens causes late-onset food poisoning and closthdial myonecrosis (gas gangrene) The
- food poisoning is toxin-mediated. late-onset. and chnically causes a transient watery diarrhea
- Methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA) is resistant to all —Iactam antibiotics. including beta-
- lactamase resistant antibiotics, because it has an altered penicillin binding protein in its
- peptidoglycan cell wall that does not bind beta-lactams as effectively
- Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) is caused by parvovirus B19 and is transmitted most
- commonly via the respiratory route Symptoms of this infection include a bright-red rash on the
- cheeks slapped cheeks”) and lacelike rash on the trunk and extremities.
- Lecithinase, also known as alpha toxin. is the main toxin produced by C perfrlhgens Its function
- is to degrade lecithin, a component of cellular phospholipid membranes, leading to membrane
- destruction, cell death and widespread necrosis and hernotysis.
- Hypo- or hyperpigmented skin patches that become more visible after tanning are characteristic
- of pitynasis versicolor, a condition caused by Malassezià fwñir KOH preparation of skin
- scrapings reveals a “spaghetti and meatballs” appearance on light microscopy
- Salmonella, followed by E co/, is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in patients with sickle
- cell anemia Patients with sickle cell disease have functional asplenia secondary to multiple
- infarctions of the spleen. which makes these patients more prone to infection by encapsulated
- Organisms.
- 1. Pulmonary anthrax, also known as woolsorters disease, is caused by inhalation of spores most
- commonly while working with goat hair or hides Hemorrhagic mediastinitis evident as widened
- mediastinum on chest- x ray is an important clue
- 2. On microscopy it forms long chains that are descnbed as being serpentine” or “medusa head’
- on appearance
- 3. Bacillus anthracis produces an antiphagocytic capsule that is required for pathogenicity The
- capsule is unique in that it contains 0-glutamate instead of polysaccharide.
- Protein A, characteristic for S aureus binds to the Fc portion of IgG at the complement-binding
- site, thus preventing the activation of complement This results in decreased production of C3b
- leading to impaired opsonization.
- Cutaneous anthrax leads to the formation of a necrotic skin wound with an erythematous and
- edematous border and a necrotic center after inoculation of spores of Bacillus anthracis into the
- skin. Anthrax is most commonly acquired occupationally by those who handle livestock that
- have not been immunized for the disease as well as those who handle the hides of such animals.
- Anthrax is also used as a biological weapon due to the near 100% mortality of the pulmonary
- form.
- 82
- Sporothrix schenck,lis a dimorphic fungus that causes a subcutaneous mycosis. It is often
- transmitted by a thorn pnck. The disease manifests with nodules that spread along Iymphatics
- Ecthyma gangrenosum is a cutaneous necrotic disease with a strong association with
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia and septicemia. It occurs after P aeruginosa invades
- penvascularly and releases tissue destructive exotoxins causing vascular destruction and resultant
- insufficiency of blood flow to patches of skin which become edematous and subsequently
- necrose. Pseudomonas infections are common in neutropenic patients. hospitalized patients,
- patients with bums and chronic indwelling catheters.
- Hematogenousosteomyelitis most commonly occurs in male children and is most frequently
- caused by Staphylococcus aureus after some bacteremic event Symptoms are vague and include
- fever, malaise and pain in the long bones most frequently.
- “Hot tub folliculitis” is a superficial and self-limited R aeruginosa infection of the hair follicles
- that tends to occur in minor outbreaks following exposure to a pool or spa where the chemicals
- have not been maintained at appropriate levels The culture of a pustule Will reveal Gram-
- negative. oxidase positive, non-lactose fermenting, motile rods that produce pigment
- Bacillus anthrac;ederna factor is an adenylate cyclase that causes massive increases in
- intracellular cAMP leading to neutrophil dysfunction and collection of fluid within and between
- cells with resultant edema This mechanism of action is similar to that of a toxin produced by
- Bo,detella pertussis simply called “extracellular adenylate cyclase”
- 83
- PATHOLOGY
- Cardiology 1
- Educational Objective:
- Mitochondrial vacuohzation is typcaIly a sign of irreversible cell injury, signifying that the
- involved mitochondria are permanently unable to generate ATP
- In contrast to angina, the chest pain of pericarditis is sharp and pleuritic, and may be exacerbated
- by swallowing or relieved by leaning forward, Early-onset pencarditis develops m about 10-20%
- of patients between days 2 and 4 following a transmural myocardial infarction It represents an
- inflammatory reaction to cardiac muscle necrosis that occurs in the adjacent visceral and parietal
- pericardium Late-onset post-myocardial infarction (MI) pencarditis (Dressier’s syndrome) begins
- one week to a few months following the MI, and affects less than 4% of cases. Dressier’s
- syndrome is thought to be an autoimmune polyserositis.
- Constitutional symptoms, a mid-diastobc rumbling murmur heard best at the apex. positional
- cardiovascular symptoms (eg, dyspnea and syncope), embolic symptoms, and a large
- pedunculated mass in the left atrium are the typical findings of athal myxoma Histologically,
- these tumors are composed of scattered cells within a mucopolysaccharide stroma, abnormal
- blood vessels, and hemorrhaging
- Left atnal enlargement can sometimes cause left recurrent laryngeal nerve impingement
- Neurapraxia resuLting in left vocal cord paresis and hoarseness may resuL
- The combination of jugular venous distension, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds is highly
- suggestive of cardiac tamponade Tachycardia and pulsus paradoxus are also frequently seen with
- tamponade Lung examination is normal, which can help distinguish cardiac tamponade from
- tension pneumothorax
- In 90% of individuals, occlusion of the right coronary artery can result in transmural ischernia of
- the inferior wall of the left ventricle, producing ST elevation in leads U, Ill, and aVF as well as
- possible sinus node dysfunction Occlusion of the proximal LAD would be expected to result in
- anteroseptal transmural ischernia, with ST elevations in leads V1—V4. Occlusion of the LCX
- would produce transmural ischemia of the lateral wall of the left ventricle, with ST elevations
- mainly in V5 and V6, and possibly also in I and aVL.
- Severe aortic stenosis (AS) presents clinically with exertional syncope, angina and dyspnea
- (SAD). In AS, a systolic ejection murmur is heard at the right second intercostal space (aortic
- area) and may radiate to the carotids Senile calcific aortic valve degeneration is the most
- common cause of AS. Senile calcthc aortic valve degeneration usually becomes clinically
- apparent in the decade of life, whereas the AS associated with congenitally bicuspid aortic valves
- tends to present by the 6th decade Rheumatic aortic heart disease usually produces combined AS
- and aortic regurgftatlon. Aortic valve infective endocarditis tends to cause aortic regurgitation.
- 84
- Patent ductus artenosus (PDA) is associated with prematurity and congenital rubella infection.
- Therapy with indomethacin successfully closes this defect in the majority of pahents.
- Aithough lightning injuries are rare. they are associated with a 25% fatahty rate Two-thirds of
- lightning-related deaths occur within the first hour after injury, with fatal arrhythmias and
- respiratory failure as the most common causes Patients with minor cutaneous involvement may
- still have major internal injury after lightning strikes and high-voltage electncal contact.
- Dystrophic calcification is a hallmark of preceding cell injury and necrosis
- The foramen ovale is patent in 20-30% of normal adults Aithough it usually remains functionally
- closed, any abnormality increasing nght atnal pressure above left atnal pressure can produce a
- nght-to-left shunt across a patent foramen ovale
- 1 Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often presents as sudden cardiac death in a young athlete Jmost
- all cases are due to autosomal dominant mutations in cardiac sarcomere proteins The most
- common protein involved is beta-myosin heavy chain
- 2. Approximately 1/3 of cases of dilated cardiomyopathy are genetic The malonty of these cases
- are due to autosomal dominant mutations of cardiac myocyte cytoskeletal proteins (dystrophin)
- or mitochondrial enzymes.
- Chronic constrictive pencarditis results in replacement of the normal pericardial space by a thick
- fibrous shell which can cause heart failure by restncting ventflcular filling Restncted nght
- ventricular filling produces a positive Kussmauls sign in most cases Restncted left venthcular
- filling may underlie the pulsus paradoxus that is seen in 1/3 of cases There may be a pencardial
- knock as well. The pericardial knock occurs earlier in diastole than an S3 qallop
- In patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
- is due to abnormal systolic anterior motion of the antenor leaflet of the mitral valve toward a
- hypertrophied interventric ular septum.
- Differential cyanosis restricted to the lower body m a child is most suggestive of patent ductus
- arteriosus with late-onset reversal of shunt flow (from left-to-right to right-to-left). Whole-body
- cyanosis results when there is shunt reversal in patients with septal defects or tetralogy of Fallot
- Coarctation of the aorta can limit lower- extremity exercise tolerance but does not cause cyanosis
- in children or adults.
- Prinzmetals (variant) angina is charactenzed by episodic. transient attacks of coronary
- vasospasm, typically occurring at rest and during the midnight-to-eaiiy morning hours These
- episodes generally produce temporary transmural myocardial schemia with ST-segment
- elevation Ergonovine can provoke this coronary vasospasm, and can aid in the diagnosis This
- condition can be effectively treated with vasodilating nitrates and calcium channel blockers.
- Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome is one of the most common congenital long-QT syndromes
- This is an autosomal recessive condition which is accompanied by congenital neurosensory
- 85
- deafness. QT-interval
- interval prolongation predisposes to synco
- syncopal
- pal episodes and possible sudden cardiac
- death due to torsades depointes
- Microemboh from the valvular vegetations of bacteral endocarditis are the most common cause
- of subungual splinter hemorrhages The presence of these lesions necessitates careful cardiac
- car
- auscultation to detect a possible new
- new-onset regurgitant murmur.
- Extreme myofiber disarray with interstitial fibrosis on cardiac histology strongly suggests
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) Aimost 100% cases of HCM result from mutations in
- genes encoding
- coding cardiac sarcomere proteins (most commonly beta
- beta-rnyosin
- rnyosin heavy chain).
- A vanety of autosomal and sex chromosomal
- chromosomal-inherited
- inherited disorders are associated with
- developmental cardiac and/or aortic defects or cardiac pathology. The major associations are as
- follows
- 1 Down syndrome endocardial cushion defects (ostium pnmum ASD. regurg regurgitant
- itant AV valves)
- 2. DiGeorge syndrome: tetralogy of Fallot and aortic arch anomahes
- 3. Friedreichs ataxia hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- 4. Marfan syndrome: cystic medial necrosis of the aorta
- 5. Tuberous sclerosis: valvular obstruction due to cardiac rha
- rhabdomyomas
- 6. Tume?s syndrome: coarctation of the aorta
- Organ susceptibdity to infarction after occlusion of a feeding artery is ranked from greatest to
- least as follows:
- central nervous system. myocardium. kidney, spleen. and liver The presence of a dual d andlor
- collateral blood supply (as seen in the liver, which is supplied by the hepatic artery and portal
- vein) enables an organ to tolerate arterial occlusion better than those with end-arterial
- end
- circulations.
- Unprovoked syncope in a previously aasymptomatic
- symptomatic young person may result from a congenital
- QT pcolongation syndrome The two most important congenital syndromes with QT prolongation
- — RomanoW ard syndrome and Jervell and Lange Lange-Nielsen syndrome — are thought to result
- from mutations in a K channel
- nel protein that contnbutes to the delayed rectifier current (1K) of the
- cardiac action potential.
- The adult (postductal) type of congentaI aortic coarctation can pcesent with symptoms/signs of
- hypertension in the arterial tree proximal to the coarctati
- coarctation,
- on, and of hypoperfusion of the lower
- 86
- extremities, especially duflng ambulation Collateral circulation to the distal aorta results in
- ditated intercostal arteries The triad of upper body hypertension, diminished lower extremity
- ptises, and enlarged intercostal artery colaterals is typical of adult-type coarctation and is not
- seen in other congenital cardiovascular maIformations
- After the onset of severe ischemia $eading to myocardial infarction (Ml), early signs of
- coagulative necrosis do not become apparent on light microscopy until 4 hours after the onset of
- ML
- Ion pump failure due to ATP deficiency during cardiac ischemia causes intracellular
- accumulation of Na and Ca2 The increased intracellular solute concentration draws free water
- into the cell, causing the cellular and mitochondrial swelling that is observed histologically
- Sydenham chorea is the most common acquired chorea of childhood and is the sole neurologic
- manifestation of acute rheumatic fever. A patient with this disorder would be at increased risk for
- Chronic rheumatic heart disease, including mitral and aortic valve involvement.
- Mitral valve prolapse is the most common cardiac abnormality predisposing to native vatve
- bacterial endocarditis (NVBE) in the 15-to 60-year-old age group in the United States Mitral
- valve prolapse predisposes to infected vegetations on mitral leaflets Rheumatic valvular disease
- is also a potential, although less common, precipitant of NVBE
- The major determinant of whether or not a coronary artery plaque will cause ischemic
- myocardial injury is the rate at which it occludes the involved artery A slowly developing
- occlusion would allow for formation of collaterals that could prevent myocardial necrosis A thin
- fibrous cap, a nch lipid core, and actrve inflammation in the atheroma would all decrease plaque
- stability and thus potentially promote rapid coronary occlusion via superimposed thrombosis it
- the plaque were to rupture
- An auscultatory finding of a mid systolic click followed by a murmur during the remainder of
- systole is quite specific for mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is thought to be predominantly
- caused by defects in mitral valve connective tissue proteins which predispose to myxomatous
- degeneration and stretching of the valve leaflets by chronic hemodynamic stress.
- The pathogenesis of nonbactenal thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) often involves a
- hypercoagulable state When the hypercoagulabhty is the result of the procoagulant effects of
- circulating products of cancers, the resulting cardiac valve vegetations may also be cal’ed
- marantic endocarditis The pathophysiology of NBTE is similar to that of Trousseaus syndrome
- (migratory thrombophiebitis) which may also be induced by disseminated cancers
- An acute transmural myocardial infarction marked by ST-elevation and subsequent Q-wave
- formation is most likely the result of a fuRy obstructive thrombus superimposed on a ruptured
- atherosclerotic coronary artery plaque A lesser degree of occlusion by a thrombus supenmposed
- on an acute plaque change would more likely cause unstable angina A stable atheromatous lesion
- without an overlying thrombus, but obstructing greater than 75% of the coronary artery lumen,
- would likely cause only stable angina.
- 87
- The most likely cause of fatigue and new-onset cardiac murmur in a young adult is bacterial
- endocarditis (BE). Acute, diffuse. proliferative glomerulonephntis secondary to circulating
- immune complexes may complicate BE and can result in acute renal insufficiency
- In the rare cases of lethal acute rheumatic fever (ARF), the cause of death is heart failure due to
- severe myocarditis. Mitral stenosis after ARF requires years or decades to develop.
- Lipofuscin is the product of lipid peroxidation. accumulating in aging cells (especially in patients
- with malnutrition and cachexia).
- In patients with Mart an syndrome. there are stnking skeletal abnormalities, including long
- extremities and long tapering fingers, as well as spinal scoliosis and/or kyphosis However,
- cardiovascular lesions are the most life-threatening features, Cystic medial degenerabon of the
- aorta predisposes these patients to aortic dissection Aortic dissection is the most common cause
- of death after infancy in patients with Marfan syndrome.
- Cyanotic spells are common with TOF Remember the five Ts of cyanotic congenital heart
- disease: tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia, transposition of the great vessels, truncus arteriosus,
- and total anomalous pulmonary venous return. Atrial septal defect ventricular septal defect
- patent ductus arteriosus, and aortic coarctation are generally considered noncyanotic congenital
- heart diseases
- Coronary artery disease is the underlying etiology in most cases of sudden cardiac death
- Typically, an acute plaque change will result in acute myocardial ischernia, which may
- precipitate ventricular fibrillation Cardiac arrhythmia is the most common cause of death in Ml
- patients dunng the prehospital phase Ventricular failure is the most common cause of death
- during the in-hospital phase Other later-onset, potentially lethal complications include ventncular
- rupture and mural thrombosis with thromboembohsm.
- Kawasaki disease is a vascuhtis of medium-sized arteries that presents with persistent fever,
- bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy. and mucocutaneous involvement Formation
- of coronary artery aneurysms is the most serious complication of Kawasaki disease
- Pulsusparadoxus is an important clue to cardiac tamponade It is defined as a decrease in the
- systolic pressure of 10 mmHg or more during inspiration as compared with the pressure during
- exhalation
- Orthopnea is a quite specific sign of left-sided heart failure. Bilateral lower extremity edema and
- congestive hepatomegaly are more specific for right-sided heart failure Left-sided heart failure
- may also produce a productive cough and exertional wheezing or chest tightness, but these are
- nonspecific signs seen in a variety of disorders.
- Atherosclerotic plaques develop predominantty in large elastic arteries (e.g., aorta, carotid, and
- iliac arteries), and in large or mediumsized muscular arteries (e.g.. coronary and pophteal
- 88
- arteries). In humans, the most heavily involved vessel is the abdominal aorta, followed by the
- coronary artenes, the pophteal arteries, the internal carotid arteries, and the circle of Willis.
- 1 Concentric ventricular hypertrophy uniformly thickens the ventricular wall while the outer
- dimensions of the ventricle remain virtually unchanged. thus causing a narrowed ventricular
- cavity Concentric ventricular hypertrophy is often seen in patients with longstanding
- hypertension because of the increased left ventricular afterload (pressure overload).
- 2 Volume overload of a ventricle, as seen in mitral regurgitation, results in dilatation of the
- ventricle, with an associated increase in chamber size. An increase in LV cavity size may also be
- seen in dilated cardiomyopathy and after myocardial infarction
- Acute-onset, mid-chest pleuritic pain that decreases on sitting up and leaning forward is
- characteristic of acute pencarditis. Fibcinous or serofibrinous pencarditis is the most common
- form Peñcardial friction rub is the most striking physical finding.
- SLE affects women 20-40 years of age and presents with a malar facial rash, photosensitivity,
- arthraigias and proteinuna Pericarditis is the most common cardiovascular syndrome associated
- with SLE It presents with chest pain that radiates to the neck and shoulders and is relieved by
- sitting up
- A diamond-shaped (crescendo-decrescendo) systolic murmur is characteristic for aortic stenosis.
- The most common cause of this valvular heart disease is degenerative (senile) calcinosis of the
- aortic leaflets.
- PATHOLOGY-Cardiology 2
- Cyanotic spells are common with TOF. Remember the five 7s of cyanotic congenital heart
- disease: tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia, transposition of the great vessels, truncus arteriosus,
- and total anomalous pulmonary venous return. Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect,
- patent ductus arteriosus, and aortic coarctation are generally considered noncyanotic congenital
- heart diseases
- A variety of autosomal and sex chromosomal-inhented disorders are associated with
- developmental cardiac and/or aortic defects or cardiac pathology. The major associations are as
- follows:
- 1. Down syndrome endocardial cushion defects (ostium pnmum ASD, regurgitant AV valves)
- 2 DiGeorge syndrome tetralogy of Fallot and aortic arch anomalies
- 3. Friedreich’s ataxia hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- 4. Marfan syndrome: cystic medial necrosis of the aorta
- 5. Tuberous sclerosis: valvular obstruction due to cardiac rhabdomyomas
- 6. Turner’s syndrome: coarctation of the aorta
- 89
- Extended consurnpbon (for longer than three months) of appetite suppressants such as
- fenfluramine or phentermine is associated with an increased incidence of pulmonary
- hypertension Pulmonary hypertension classically manifests with dyspnea on exertion, and can
- progress to cor pulmonale with right ventricular hypertrophy, potentially leading to sudden
- cardiac death
- Approximately 7 days following severe ischernia and myocardial infarction, granulation tissue
- begins to grow into and replace the zone of dead myocardaum This process is most prominent
- under bght microscopy during days 10-14 post-intarchon
- Decreased outward K current duhng the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential
- results in QT prolongation. The major cardiac pathophysological consequence of QT
- prolongation is an increased risk of episodic polymorphic verithcular tachycardia. including
- torsades depointes
- Myocardial infarction results in coagulative necrosis of cardiac myocytes Irreversible ischemic
- injury to the brain tissue results in hquefactive necrosis. Fibrinoid necrosis is seen Ki some
- vascuhtides Gaseous necrosis results from tuberculosis, Enzymatic fat necrosis results from the
- action of abnormally released pancreatic lipases on adipose tissue.
- Orthopnea is a quite specific sign of left-sided heart failure Bilateral lower extremity edema and
- congestive hepatornegaly are more specific for nght-sided heart failure Left-sided heart failure
- may also produce a productrve cough and exertional wheezing or chest tightness, but these are
- nonspecific signs seen in a variety of disorders.
- Atherosclerotic plaques develop predominantly in large elastic arteries (eg. aorta. carotid, and
- iliac arteries), and in large or medium-sized muscular arteries (e.g.. coronary and popliteal
- arteries). In humans, the most heavily involved vessel is the abdominal aorta. followed by the
- coronary arteries, the pophteal arteries, the internal carotid arteries, and the circle of Willis.
- 1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often presents as sudden cardiac death in a young athIete
- Almost all cases are due to autosomal dominant mutations in cardiac sarcomere proteins The
- most common protein involved is beta-myosin heavy chain
- 2. Approximately 1/3 of cases of ddated cardiomyopathy are genetic The majority of these cases
- are due to autosomal dominant mutatons of cardiac myocyte cyloskeletal proteins (dystrophin) or
- mitochondrial enzymes
- Chronic constrictive pencarditis results in replacement of the normal pericardial space by a thick
- fibrous shell which can cause heart failure by restricting ventncular filling Restncted right
- ventricular filling produces a positrve Kussmauls sign in most cases Restncted left ventricular
- filling may underlie the pulsus paradoxus that is seen in 1/3 of cases There may be a pencardial
- knock as well The pencardial knock occurs earlier in diastole than an S3 gallop.
- Dilated cardiomyopathy is a diagnosis of excluson once other etiologies of heart failure are ruled
- out, namely pericardial disease, valvular defects, coronary artery disease, and cardiac rhythm
- disturbances. It is characterized by dilation of all 4 chambers of the heart, systolic dysfunction,
- 90
- and myocardial failure A systolic pressure gradient between the left ventricle and aorta would
- not be expected m dilated cardiomyopathy and is more suggestive of left ventricular outflow
- tract obstruction (eg, aortic stenosis)
- The pathogenesis of nonbactenal thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) often involves a
- hypercoagulable state When the hypercoagulabahty is the result of the procoagulant effects of
- circulating products of cancers, the resulting cardiac valve vegetations may also be called
- marantic endocarditis The pathophysiology of NBTE is similar to that of Trousseaus syndrome
- (migratory thrombophiebdis) which may also be induced by disseminated cancers
- Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is the most common cause of ventricular fibrillation in
- individuals younger than 30 and the most common cause of sudden cardiac death ii a young
- athlete. Myocardial infarction, multifocal myocardial fibrosis, and dilated or restnctive
- cardiomyopathies can end in sudden cardiac death. but woukl be unlikely in a teenager with no
- past medical history
- The foramen ovale is patent in 20-30% of normal adults. Although it usually remains
- functionally closed, any abnormality increasing right atrial pressure above left atnal pressure can
- produce a right-to-left shunt across a patent foramen ovale.
- Extreme myofiber disarray with interstitial fibrosis on cardiac histology strongly suggests
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) Almost 100% cases of HCM result from mutations in
- genes encoding cardiac sarcomere proteins (most commonly beta-myosin heavy chain)
- SLE affects women 20-40 years of age and presents with a malar facial rash, photosensitivity,
- arthralgias and proteinuria Peñcarditis is the most common cardiovascular syndrome associated
- with SLE. It presents with chest pain that radiates to the neck and shoulders and is relieved by
- sitting up.
- Differential CyanOsis restricted to the lower body .i a child is most suggestive of patent ductus
- arteriosus with late-onset reversal of shunt flow (from left-to-nght to right-to-left). Whole-body
- cyanosis results when there is shunt reversal in patients with septal defects or tetralogy of Fallot.
- Coarctation of the aorta can limit lower- extremity exercise tolerance but does not cause cyanosis
- in children or aduRs
- The most likely cause of fatigue and new-onset cardiac murmur in a young adult is bacterial
- endocarditis (BE). Acute, diffuse, proliferative glomerulonephritis secondary to ciculating
- immune complexes may complicate BE and can result in acute renal insufficiency.
- Left atrial enlargement can sometimes cause left recurrent laryngeal nerve impingement
- Neurapraxia resulting in left vocal cord paresis and hoarseness may result.
- An acute transmural myocardial infarction marked by ST-elevation and subsequent 0-wave
- formation is most likely the result of a fully obstructive thrombus superimposed on a ruptured
- atherosclerotic coronary artery plaque A lesser degree of occlusion by a thrombus supenmposed
- on an acute plaque change would more likely cause unstable angina A stable atheromatous lesion
- 91
- without an overlying thrombus, but obstructing greater than 75% of the coronary artery lumen,
- would likely cause only stable angina.
- Valvular inflammation, damage. and scarring predispose to infective endocarditis, which is
- characterized grossly and on an echocardiogram by the presence of valvular vegetations
- The vegetations associated with bacterial endocarditis represent fibrin and platelet deposition at a
- site of bacterial colonization.
- Mitral valve prolapse is the most common cardiac abnormality predisposing to native valve
- bacterial endocarditis (NVBE) in the 15- to 60-year-old age group in the United States Mitral
- valve prolapse pi-edisposes to infected vegetations on mitral leaflets. Rheumatic valvular disease
- is also a potential, although less common, precipitant of NVBE
- Bicuspid aortic valve is the most common congen4al malformation affecting the heart in Turner
- syndrome. It is usually an isolated abnormality however, it may occur in combination with other
- anomalies, particularly aortic coarctation. A nonstenotic bicuspid aortic vatve can mandest as an
- earty systolic, high-frequency click over the cardiac apex and/or the right second interspace
- Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome is one of the most common congenital long-QT syndromes
- This is an autosomal recessive condition which is accompanied by congenital neurosensory
- deafness QT-interval prolongation predisposes to syncopal episodes and possible sudden cardiac
- death due to torsades depointes
- 1. Concentric ventricular hypertrophy uniformly thickens the ventricular wall while the outer
- dimensions of the ventricle remain virtually unchanged. thus causing a narrowed ventricular
- cavity Concentric ventricular hypertrophy is often seen in patients with longstanding
- hypertension because of the increased left ventricular afterload (pressure overload)
- 2. Volume overload of a ventricle, as seen in mitral regurgitation, results in dilatation of the
- ventricle, with an associated increase in chamber size An increase in LV cavity size may also be
- seen in dilated cardiomyopathy and after myocardial infarction.
- The combination of jugular venous distension. hypotension, and muffled heart sounds is highly
- suggestive of cardiac tamponade Tachycardia and pulsus paradoxus are also frequently seen with
- tamponade Lung examination is normal, which can help distinguish cardiac tamponade from
- tension pneumothorax
- Acute-onset, mid-chest pleuritic pain that decreases on sitting up and leaning forward is
- characteristic of acute pericarditis. Fibnnous or seroflbnnous pencarditis is the most common
- form, Pericardial friction rub is the most striking physical finding.
- Prinzrnetars (variant) angina is characterized by episodic, transient attacks 01 coronary
- vasospasm, typically occurring at rest and during the midnight-to-earty morning hos These
- episodes generally produce temporary transmural myocardial ,schemia with ST-segment
- elevation Ergonovine can provoke this coronary vasospasm, and can aid in the diagnosis, This
- condition can be effectively treated with vasodilating nrtrates
- in€1 riIri,ui cmmI bInckrc
- 92
- Congenital bicuspid aortic valves are strongly associated with accelerated onset of calcific aortic
- stenosis Clinically significant aortic stenosis may develop ri patients with bicuspid aortic valves
- beginning in the sixth decade, whereas senile calcific stenosis of normal aortic valves generally
- becomes symptomatic in the eighth decade.
- Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is characterized by asymmetric ventricular septal
- hypertrophy and variable dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction which may produce a
- systolic election murmur Decreases in the LV end diastolic volume increase the obstruction,
- causing the murmur of HCM to be enhanced Actions like standing suddenly from the supine
- position and the Valsalva maneuver decrease venous return and thus accentuate the murmur
- The normal morphological changes ui the aging heart include a decrease in left ventricular
- chamber apex-to-base dimensions, development of a sigmoed-shaped ventncular septum,
- myocyte atrophy with interstitial fibrosis, and accumulation of cytoplasmic lipofuscin p*gment
- Hypertensive heart disease is associated with concentric hypeftrophy of the left ventncle
- S atreus causes acute bactenal endocarditis with rapid onset of symptoms including shaking
- chills (rigors), high fever, dyspnea on exertion and malaise. In IV drug abusers it causes right-
- sided eridocarditis with septic ernbolization into the lungs leading to pulmonary abscesses. In
- non-!VDU, it causes rapid decompensation, heart failure, sepsis, septic embolization to the brain
- and other end organs
- Kawasaki disease is a vascuhtis of medium-sized arteries that presents with persistent fever,
- bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and mucocutaneous involvement Formation
- of coronary artery aneurysms is the most senous complication of Kawasaki disease.
- The aduft (postductal) type of congenital aortic coarctation can present with symptoms/signs of
- hypertension in the arterial tree proximal to the coarctation, and of hypoperfusion of the lower
- extremities, especially dunng ambulation, Collateral circulation to the distal aorta results in
- diLated intercostal arteries The triad of upper body hypertension, diminished lower extremity
- pulses, and enlarged intercostal artery coaterals is typical of adult-type coarctation and is not
- seen in other congenital cardiovascular maltorrnations
- Mitochondrial vacuolization is typically a sign of irreversible cell injury, signifying that the
- involved mitochondria are permanently unable to generate ATP.
- In patients with Marlan syndrome, there are striking skeletal abnormalities, including long
- extremities and long tapering fingers, as well as spinal scoliosis and/or kyphosts. However,
- cardiovascular lesions are the most life-threatening features. Cystic medial degenerabon of the
- aorta predisposes these pabents to aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is the most common cause
- of death after infancy in patients with Marfan syndrome.
- The carcinoid syndrome can cause predominantly right-sided endocardial fibrosis which may
- progress to pulmonic stenosis and/or restrictive cardiomyopathy The severity of carcinoid heart
- 93
- disease correlates with plasma levels of serotonin and urinary excretion of the serotonin
- metabolite. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid.
- Aft;r the onset of severe ischema leading to myocardial infarction (Ml), early signs of
- coagulative necrosis do not become apparent on light microscopy until 4 hours after the onset of
- M[
- Although lightning injuries are rare, they are associated with a 25% fatality rate. Two-thirds of
- lightning-related deaths occur within the first hour after injury, with fatal arrhythmias and
- respiratory failure as the most common causes. Patients with minor cutaneous involvement may
- still have major internal injury after lightning strikes and high-voftage electrical contact.
- In the rare cases of lethal acute rheumatic fever (ARF), the cause of death is heart fadure due to
- severe myocardths Mitral stenosis after ARF requires years or decades to develop
- Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is associated with prematurity and congenital rubella infection.
- Therapy with indomethacin successfully closes this defect in the majority of patients
- Organ susceptibility to infarction after occlusion of a feeding artery is ranked from greatest to
- least as follows:
- central nervous system, myocardium, kidney, spleen, and hver The presence of a dual and/or
- collateral blood supply (as seen in the liver, which is supplied by the hepatic artery and portal
- vein) enables an organ to tolerate arterial occlusion better than those with end-arterial
- circulations
- Almost all cases of mitral stenosis are caused by chronic rheumatic heart disease Infective
- endocarditis of the mitral valve tends to cause destruction and regurgitation Congenital heart
- defects may produce mitral regurgitation, but are generally not associated with stenosis Mitral
- valvular calcinosis generally does not impair valve function. Rheumatoid arthritis and tertiary
- syphilis only rarely affect cardiac valves.
- Severe aortic stenosis (AS) presents chnically with exertional syncope. angina and dyspnea
- (SAD). In AS, a systolic ejection murmur is heard at the hght second intercostal space (aortic
- area) and may radiate to the carotids Senile calcafic aortic valve degeneration is the most
- common cause of AS Senile calcific aortic valve degeneration usually becomes clinically
- apparent in the 7111 decade of life, whereas the AS associated with congenitally bicuspid aortic
- valves tends to present by the decade Rheumatic aortic heart disease usually produces combined
- AS and aortic regurgItation Aortic valve infective endocarditis tends to cause
- air+i, r#
- 94
- PATHOLOGY-Dermatology
- Dermatology
- BRAF is a protein kinase involved in activation of ságnaling pathways for melanocyte
- proliferation, and the
- BRAF V600E mutation is seen in 40
- 40-60% of patients with melanoma.
- Herpes zoster (shingles) develops due to reactivation of varicella
- varicella-zoster
- zoster vüus in the dorsal root
- ganglia It presents with a painful vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution. On light
- microscopy
- icroscopy intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes and multinucleated giant cells are seen
- Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by autoantibodies to the hemidesmosomes along the
- basement membrane of the dermal
- dermal-epidermal junction.
- Measurement of the depth pth of invasion (Breslow thickness) is the most important prognostic
- indicator for patients with malignant melanoma.
- Pemphigus vulgans is an autoimmune bullous disease characterized by autoantibodies directed
- against desmosomal proteins 3 and 1 Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by autoantibodies
- against hemidesmosomal proteins.
- Actinic keratosis develop in predisposed individuals on chronically sun
- sun-exposed
- exposed areas of the skin
- The lesions consist of erythematous papules with a central scale and a “sand
- “sandpaper
- paper-like texture.
- Actinic keratosis can convert to squamous cell carcinoma in approximately 1% of cases.
- Seborrheic keratosis is a benign epidermal tumor that presents as a tan to brown, round, flat,
- greasy, coinlike lesion with a “stuck on” appearance
- Keloids result from excessive collagen formation during tissue repair in susceptible individuals
- They present as soft or firm nodules that grow beyond the borders of the wounds with claw-like
- claw
- extensions into normal tissue. Keloids are composed of large. di
- disorganized
- sorganized collagen bundles and
- excess cellular connective tissue.
- Acanthosis nigncans presents with thickening and hyperpigmentation of skin in the fiexural areas
- The ‘esions have a classic “velvety’ texture. Acanthosis ngncans is commonly associated withw
- insulin-resistant
- resistant states (eg, diabetes mellitus. acromegaly. obesity) and gastrointestinal
- malignancies
- Xanthomas are suggestive of hyperhpidemia. especially when present in conjunction with a
- family history of early cardiac death.
- Urticaria is characterized
- haracterized by superficial dermal edema and lymphatic channel dilation. No
- epidermal changes are present.
- 95
- Granulomatous inflammation is a form of chronic inflammation characterized by aggregates of
- activated macrophages that assume an epithelloid appea appearance
- rance Persistent granulomatous
- inflammation with subsequent fibrosis can cause organ dysfunction, which is seen in a number of
- granuomatous diseases
- Cooper’s ligament infiltration by invasive breast cancer causes retraction of the overlying skin
- Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare condition that presents with erythematous, pruhtic papules,
- vesicles, and bullae that appear bilaterally and symmetñcally on the extensor surfaces Dermatitis
- herpetiformis is stron9ly associated with celiac disease
- Psoriasis
- riasis is characterized by hyperparakeratosis. acanthosis. rete ridge elongation, mitotic
- activity above the epidermal basal cell layer, and a reduced or absent stratum granulosum.
- Neutrophils may fomi spongiotic clusters in the superficial dermis and the parakeratotic stratum
- comeum (Munro microabscesses).
- Red blood cell extravasation into the skin or subcutaneous tissue results in the formation of
- petechiae (<5 mm in diameter), purpura (5 mm to 1 cm in diameter), or ecchymoses (>1 cm in
- diameter) These lesions do not completely blanch under pressure. unlike telangectasias
- A yellowish eyelid papule or plaque containing lipid
- lipid-laden
- laden macrophages is most hkety
- xanthelasma Xanthelasma may occur in association with pnmary or secondary hyperlipidemia
- Cholestatic
- atic conditions such as primary bihary cirrhosis are a potential cause of
- hypercholesterolemia leading to xanthelasma.
- The lepromin skin test will be positive in patients with tuberculoid leprosy because they exhibit a
- strong CD4+ Thi cellmediated immun
- immune response to M Ieprae.
- Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is a common inflammatory disorder of childhood It presents with
- pruritus and erythematous weeping papules and plaques that occur in response to certain
- environmental antigens Atopic dermatitis is associ
- associated
- ated with other atopic diseases, such as
- allergic rhinitis and asthma
- Actinic keratoses are small (usually < 1 cm), erythematous epidermal lesions with adherent scale
- Histologically, there is basal cell layer atypia. hyperkeratosis, and parakeratosis These
- Th lesions are
- the result of chronic sun exposure and thus affect sun sun-exposed
- exposed areas A small percentage of
- actinic keratoses progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma, thus monitonng is necessary.
- Axillary lymph node dissection is a risk factor for the development of chronic lymphedema
- invoMng the ipsilateral arm. Chronic lymphedema predisposes to the development of
- angiosarcoma (Stewart-Treves
- Treves syndrome)
- 96
- PATHOLOGY-Endocrinology
- Hemorrhage into a preexisting pituitary adenoma is called pituitary apoplexy It presents with a
- sudden severe headache and cranial nerve paralysis. with other more chronic symptoms of a
- pituitary tumor Since signs of meningeal irritation can be seen, it is very important to evaluate
- the visual fields for bitemporal hemianopsia. Cardiovascular collapse can occur due to
- adrenocortical deficiency.
- Cushrng syndrome caused by a pituitary adenoma or ectopic ACT1-l secretion will present with
- elevated ACTH levels High-dose dexamethasone suppression testing will suppress ACTH and
- cortisol levels when Cushing syndrome is caused by a pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease) but
- not when is caused by ectopic ACTH secretion (eg, small-cell Carcinoma).
- The most common pituitary adenoma is a prolactinoma. sometimes called a lactotroph adenoma:
- however, somatotrophs are the most common cell type in the normal pituitary
- Myocardial infarction is the most common cause of death in patients with diabetes
- The stimulatory effect of high estrogen levels during pregnancy causes the pituitary gland to
- enlarge and become more vascular If significant hypotension occurs while the pituitary is still
- enlarged ([e postpartum hemorrhage), the pituitary gland can undergo ischemic necrosis This
- results in deficiencies of multiple pituitary hormones (panhypopituitansm), including prolactin—
- and is called Sheehan syndrome
- Features of thyrotoxicosis. tenderness over the thyroid gland, increased ESR, and a markedly-
- reduced radioactive iodine uptake are diagnostic of granulomatous thyroiditis Mixed, cellular
- infiltration with occasional multinucleate giant cells are characteristic histologic findings.
- Pancreatic islet amoid deposition is characteristic of type 2 diabetes meibtus A strong linkage
- with HLA class II gene makeup, pancreatic islet infiltration with leukocytes (insuhtis), and
- antibodies against islet antigens are frequently seen in type I diabetes
- Autoimmune insubtis is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes Insulin resistance is the main
- mechanism responsible for type 2 diabetes
- Pheochromocytoma is usually a benign (90%) tumor arising from the adrenal medulla
- Pheochromocytomas typically produce episodic symptoms Diagnosis is confirmed by the
- measurements of urine and plasma catecholamines and catecholamine metabohtes such as
- metanephnnes
- Infiltrative dermopathy (1e, pretibial myxedema) and exophthalmos are symptoms more specific
- for Graves disease
- Patients with anorexia nervosa often experience amenorrhea due to loss of pulsatile secretion of
- gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. It is important to remember
- that the defect
- 97
- Patients with anorexia nervosa often experience amenorrhea due to loss of pulsatile secretion of
- gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothaIamus It is important to remember
- that the defect in anorexia-related amenorrhea begins in the hypothalamus. not the pituitary or
- ovahes Low estrogen levels over the long-term can result in osteoporosis if left untreated
- Sulfonylurea or megidinide abuse and insulinoma cause increased insulin, c-peptide, and pro-
- insulin leveIs The only way to distinguish between insulinoma and sulfonylurea or meglitinide
- abuse is by screening the urine or blood for hypoglycemic agents.
- Long-term use of supraphysiological doses of glucocorticoids causes suppression of the
- hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, which in turn leads to bilateral adrenocortical atrophy. if the
- patient then suddenly stops taking the doses of exogenous corticosteroids for whatever reason,
- adrenal crisis can result.
- Neonates of diabetic mothers may be exposed to high maternal glucose levels in utero and thus
- may develop compensatory insulin hypersecretion Th.s results in fetal macrosomia and can cause
- neonatal hypoglycemia Note that maternal insulin does not cross the placenta
- Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B consists of medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytomas,
- mucosal neuromas, and marfanoid habtus Pheochromocytomas should be excluded in all patients
- with medullary thyroid cancer
- Hydrochlorothiazide causes hypercalcerrna by increasing the distal tubular reabsorption of
- filtered calcium, The increased serum calcium levels usually suppress PTH
- Episodic hypertension, tachycardia. headaches. diaphoresis. and tremors are important clinical
- clues for the presence of catec holamine-secreting tumors
- Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B) is characterized by medullary carcinoma of the
- thyroid. pheochromocytoma, and oral and intestinal mucosal neuromas MEN2A is also
- associated with parathyroid hyperplasia, whereas MEN2B is not
- 1 The anterior pituitary is formed from an out-pouching of the pharyngeal roof and is called
- Rathke’s pouch The postenor pituitary gland arises from an extension of the hypothalamic
- neurons
- 2 Craniopharyngiomas are tumors ansing from Rathkes pouch remnants in the anterior pituitary
- They characteristically have three components. solid, cystic, and cakIaed. They present during
- childhood, usually, with mass effect and visual deficits.
- Type 1 diabetes mellitus typically presents subacutely with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia
- accompanied by fatigue arid weight loss In the United States, fasting blood sugar is the most
- preferred way to screen patients for diabetes mellitus. The USMLE will sometimes give you a
- history of recent viral infection and the patient wift often be a young Caucasian adult
- 98
- Hypercalcemia treated with neck surgery is hkely secondary to a parathyroid adenoma. A
- pituitary tumor that compresses the optic chiasm can produce temporal visual field defects. The
- MEN type 1 syndrome is characterized by tumors of the pituitary, parathyroid gland, and
- pancreas (the 3 Ps’) individuals who have ttwo
- wo out of the three tumors should be evaluated for the
- presence of the third tumor type.
- Mononuclear, parenchymal infiltration with well
- well-developed
- developed germinal centers is a characteristic
- histological finding of Hashimotos thyroidths
- High blood glucose lev&s in maternal circulation crosses the placenta causing fetal
- hyperglycemia and islet cell hyperplasia. Hypennsulinernia caused by islet cell hyperplasia is
- thought to cause fetal macrosomia.
- Males with classic, non-salt-wasting
- wasting 21
- 21-hydroxylase
- hydroxylase deficiency present at age 2-4 2 years with
- early virilization, increased linear growth, and elevated levels of 1717-hydroxyprogesterone
- hydroxyprogesterone and
- androgens Females with classic 21 21-hydroxylase deficiency (with or without salt--wasting) present
- with ambiguousous genitalia at birth.
- Treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia involves low doses of exogenous corticosteroids to
- suppress excessive ACTH secretion and reduce stimulation of the adrenal cortex.
- Distorted body image. inadequate diet, regular exer
- exercise
- cise while underweight, dry skin, and lanugo
- hair in a female teenager suggest anorexia nervosa, Anorexic females commonly have low levels
- of LH, FSH, estradiol. and estrone (hypogonadotropic amenorrhea).
- Hypertension with low plasma rerUn activity is ssuggestive
- uggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism, a
- condition biochemically characterized by hypokalernia and metabolic alkalosis
- Gastrinoma is characterized by upper GI ulcerations (jeunaI ulcers are quite specific), abdominal
- pain and diarrhea
- Activating mutations
- tations of the RET proto
- proto-oncogene
- oncogene are strongly associated with medullary thyroid
- cancer RAS mutations are common in follicular thyroid cancer and some follicular adenomas.
- Inactivating mutations of p53 are fairly common in anaplastic thyroid cancer
- Multiple
- iple endocnne neoplasia type 1 consists of hyperparathyroidism. pancreatic tumors
- (gastrinoma), and pftultary tumors (remember 3 ‘PsTM). The genetic defect in multiple
- endocnne type I neoplasia involves the MENIN gene on the chromosome 11. Gastrinomas are
- not present m the other MEN syndromes.
- Meningococcal sept cerna can cause adrenal hemorrhage leading to acute adrenal crisis.
- Psammoma bodies and ground glass. grooved nuclei are characteristic microscopic features of
- papillary cancer of the thyroid
- oid gland.
- 99
- Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland is characterized by extracellular deposits of amyloid
- formed by calcitonin secreted from neoplastic parafollicular C-cells.
- PATHOLOGY-Genitourinary
- A patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy would present with abdominal pain, vaginal
- bleeding, hemorrhagic
- A patient with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy would present with abdominal pain, vaginal
- bleeding, hemorrhagic shock, and a history of amenorrhea Endometnal biopsy would reveal
- decidual (gestateonal) changes in the endometrium but no chorionic villi
- TNF-o is one of the cytokines that induces the systemic inflammatory response In high
- concentrations. TNFc i causes symptoms of septic shock and cachexa Other cytoidnes
- responsible for inducing the systemic inflammatory response include IL-i and IL-6.
- A partial mole will have a tnploid karyotype Patients present with vaginal bleeding and lower
- abdominal pain Unlike complete moles, partial moles are associated with low risk of invasive
- trophoblastic disease
- Clear cell carcinoma is the most common subtype of renal ce carcinoma and is composed of
- large, rounded or polygonal cells with clear cytoplasrn The classic triad of hernaturia, flank pain,
- and palpable mass occurs in a minority of patients Non-specific symptoms and paraneoplastic
- syndromes are more common. These tumors are often detected incidentally at an advanced stage,
- and the lung is the most common site for metastasiS.
- Fever. maculopapular rash and symptoms of acute renal failure one to three weeks after
- beginning treatment with a f3.Iactam antibiotic or a number of other drugs are highly suggestive
- of acute interstitial nephntis Peripheral eosinophiha and eosinophiluna are important clinical
- clues Symptoms resolve completely after cessation of the medication.
- Massive interstitial infiltration with polymorphonuclear leukocytes is seen in acute
- pyelonephritis Neutrophils also fill the tubular lurnina. Tubulonhexis and microabscesses may
- also be present
- The suppression of endogenous flora, the colonization of the distal urethra by pathogenic gram-
- negative rods, and the attachment of these pathogens to the bladder mucosa are the stages of
- pathogenesis in lower UT1s. Anatomic or functional vesicouretera reflux is virtually necessary
- for the development of acute pyelonephntis.
- Histologically, chonocarcinoma is composed of an abnormal proliferation of both
- cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophob1asts No VdIi are present.
- 100
- Urine supersaturation
- tion is the mechanism underlying all types of kidney stones. Low fluid intake
- increases the concentration of stone
- stone-forming
- forming agents, thus encouragwg stone formation All
- patients with a history of nephrohthiasis should be advised to consume ample fluids
- Endometriosis
- dometriosis is the presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus It may be
- asymptomatic or present with severe dysmenorthea, dyspareunia and infertility.
- Serial measurements of 13—hCG hCG should be performed following evacuation of a hydatidiform
- hydatidi
- mole. Persistently elevated or rising levels may signify the development of an invasive mole or c
- horiocarcinoma
- The clinical presentation of tertiary syphilis includes neurosyphilis. cardiovascular involvement,
- and gummas. Gummas are necrotizing granulomas occumng on the skin, mucosa, subcutaneous
- tissue, bones, and within other organs.
- Polycystic ovarian syndromee (PCOS) is associated with oligomenorrhea, obesity, hirsutism and
- polycystic ovanes These pabents are at increased risk for developing endometrial
- adenocarcinoma and type 2 diabetes melhtus
- The simultaneous development of stroke. intestinal or foot isc ischemia,
- hemia, and renal infarction should
- make you think of embolic phenomena These emboli may anse from left atrial clots, left
- ventricular clots, vavular vegetations, or aortic atherosclerotic plaques
- WBC casts are formed in tubules. and are pathognomonic fo forr acute pyeionephritis when
- accompanied by systemic manifestations of febrile illness WBC casts are also seen with acute
- interstitial nephritis. but clinical presentation is different in that patients have only a low-grade
- low
- fever and do not experience painf painful urination Pyuna and bactenuria are non--specific and are
- found in both upper and lower UTIs.
- A patient with signs of renal failure and toe gangrene or livedo reticularis following an invasive
- vascular procedure likely has atheroembolic renal disea
- disease
- se Light microscopy shows cholesterol
- emboli obstructing renal arterioles
- A history of multiple sexual partners is a significant risk factor for development of squamous cell
- carcinoma of
- the cervix due to the increased nsk of transmission of carcinogen
- carcinogenic
- ic strains of the Human
- papdloma virus (16,
- 18, 31 & 33). Other nsk factors include cigarette smoking, lower socioeconomic status, and early
- coitarche
- Fibroadenomas are characterized by a cellular. often myxoid stroma that encircles and
- sometimes compresses
- esses epithehum.
- epithehum.-Iined glandular and cystic spaces
- 101
- Primary ciliary dyskinesia. caused by an autosomal recessive mutation in the microtubule-
- associated protein dynein, can cause Kartagener’s syndrome in about 50% of patients (vanable
- penetrance). Kartagener4s syndrome is characterized by male infertibty. situs inversus, recurrent
- sinusitis, and bronchiectasis.
- Fever, pharyngibs, Iymphadenopathy hepatosplenomegaly. atypical lymphocytosis, and a
- positive heterophile antibody reaction characterize infectious mononucleosis, which is caused by
- the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV infection is also associated with an increased incidence of
- Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
- Cystinuna results from a defect in the renal proximal tubules, which results in decreased
- resorption of the amino acid cystine. The clinical manifestation is recurrent stone formation from
- a young age Urinalysis shows pathognomonic hexagonal cystine crystals. The sodium cyanide-
- nitroprusside test, which detects
- rvctinp’c ci ilfhurfrvl nrni nc ic dinnnctir
- Cystinuna results from a defect in the renal proximal tubules, which results in decreased
- resorption of the amino acid cystine. The clinical manifestation is recurrent stone formation from
- a young age. Urinalysis shows pathognomonic hexagonal cystine crystals. The sodium cyanide-
- nitroprusside test, which detects cyshne’s sulfhydryl groups, is diagnostic
- Benign prostatic hyperplasia leads to intermittent bladder outlet obstruction and overflow
- incontinence. Urinary retention results in increased pressure in the urinary tract and resultant
- reflux nephropathy. Ultimately, hydronephrosis and renal interstitial atrophy and scarring ensue
- The condition should be promptly treated, as prolonged obstruction can cause permanent damage
- and chronic renal failure
- Famdial retinoblastoma occurs as a result of mutations of each of the two Rb genes (‘two hits”)
- These patients have an increased risk of secondary tumors, especially osteosarcomas, later in Iife
- Endornetnal cells undergo apoptosis upon withdrawal of endocrine stimulation by progesterone.
- Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) presents with sudden, painless, and permanent
- monocular blindness Funduscopic examination reveals a pale retina and a “cherry-red macula
- Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) presents with sudden, painless, and permanent
- monocular blindness. Funduscopic examination reveals a pale retina and a cherry-red” macula
- Idiopathic hypercalciuria is the most common cause of calcium lódney stone disease This
- condition is characterized by normal serum calcium levels with high levels of calcium excreted
- in the urine. Other causes of calcium nephrolithiasis include hyperoxaluna. hyperuricosuria, low
- urinary volume, and hypocitraturia.
- Idiopathic hypercalciuha is the most common cause of calcium kidney stone disease This
- condibon is characterized by normal serum calcium levels with high levels of calcium excreted
- 102
- in the unne Other causes of calcium nephrohtheasis include hyperoxaluna, hyperuricosuna, low
- urinary volume, and hypocitratuha
- Hydronephrosis a dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces due to obstruction of urine flow.
- Kidney enlargement and distortion, compression of the papdlae. thinning of the parenchyma
- around the calyces, and cortical atrophy are seen on gross examination Microscopic changes
- consist of dilation of the tubular lumen, flattening of the tubular epithelium, and interstitial
- fibrosis The most common cause of urinary tract obstruction in elderly male patients is benign
- prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- Unc acid stones are the only type of renal calculi that are radiolucent They can be detected on
- abdominal ultrasound or CT Afl other types of stones are radiopaque and can be seen on plain
- abdominal X-ray.
- PapiIary necrosis occurs in patients with sickle cell disease or trait, diabetes mellitus, analgesic
- nephropathy. or severe obstructive pyelonephritis. Acute colicky flank pain, gross hematuria and
- the passage of tissue fragments in urine are characteristic.
- In pahents with cryptorchidism. the seminiferous tubules become atrophic and hyalinized as a
- result of temperature-induced damage, resulting in a signihcantly depressed sperm count as well
- as decreased inhibin levels Hormonal function of Leydig cells is usually not impaired Thus,
- secondary sexual characteristics and sexual performance are normal Cryptorchidism should be
- surgically corrected early in life to prevent damage to the seminiferous tubules and decrease the
- pahent’s risk of testicular cancer
- Cystinuna is an InbOrn defect of the transporter of cystine, omithine, arginine and lysine It is
- inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion The only clinical manifestation of this disorder is
- nephrohthiasis that classically presents as renal colic dunng the 2nd or 3rd decades of life
- Unnalysis shows pathognomonic hexagonal cystine crystals.
- PATHOLOGY-Git1
- Shigeliosis is an infectious disease caused by vanous species of Sh.ieI!a S sonneiis the most
- common (-80%) etiological agent in the United States Shigella invades the gastrointestinal
- mucosa by first gaining access to M cells in Peye?s patches in the ileum through endocytosis
- Shigella subsequently lyses the endosome, multiplies, and spreads laterally into other epithelial
- cells, causing cell death and ulceration with hemorrhage and diarrhea
- Carcinoid syndrome may accompany extraintestinal metastases of GI carcinoids Octreotide is a
- synthetic somatostatin analog used to control the symptoms of carcinoid syndrome
- Pancrealk pseudocyst is a common complication of acute pancreatitis It is a col’ection of fluid
- rich in enzymes and inflammatory debns Its walls consist of granulation tissue and fibrosis
- Unlike true cysts, pseudocysts are not lined by epithelium
- 103
- 80% of the cases of acute pancreatitis are caused by gallstones and chronic alcohohsm A number
- of less common causes account for the other 20% of cases Inherited or acquired
- hypertriglyceridemia can cause an acute pancreatitis if the level of triglycerides in serum exceeds
- 1000 mg/dL
- IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase and IgA endomysial antibody are very sensitive and specific for
- the diagnosis of celiac disease Small intestinal biopsy is confirmatory, severe atrophy and
- blunting of the villi along with a chronic inflammatory infiltrate of the lamina propna is seen
- Symptoms of celiac disease (diarrhea, steatorrhea, and nutritional deficiencies) subside with
- exclusion of gluten-containing products from the diet.
- Intussusception most often occurs in ciNidren younger than 2 years ol age and in the region of
- the ileocecal valve. It manifests with intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain, “currant jelly”
- stools, and sometimes a palpable mass in the light lower abdominal quadrant
- Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus presents with progressive dysphagia as the tumor
- gradually obstructs the esophageal lumen Chronic alcohol consumption and cigarette smoking
- are 2 major risk factors On light microscopy, the tumor is composed of squamous cells with
- vanous degrees of atypia Foci of keratinization are present in well-differenbated tumors.
- Diarrhea, weight loss, and epigastnc region calcifications in a patient with chronic alcoholism
- suggest chronic pancreatitis with resutting pancreatic exocnne insufficiency and malabsorption
- Crohn’s disease is associated with increased activity of the NF-KB protein, which is responsible
- for cytokine production. When the appropriate immune response to intracellular microbes is
- blunted, the microbes persist and induce chronic inflammation within the gastrointestinal tract
- Carcinoid tumors are composed of nests or sheets of uniform cells. They have eosinophihc
- cytoplasm and oval-to-round stippled nuclei. These tumors are derived from enterochromaffin
- cells of intestinal mucosa.
- Colonic diverticula usually develop due to increased intraluminal pressure and are composed of
- mucosa and submucosa. The most common site is the sigmoid colon Diverticula may be
- asymptomatic or may manifest with painless rectal bleeding or acute diverticuhtis. Chronic
- constipation is a risk factor for this condition.
- Aicohol abuse is 1 of the 2 most common causes of acute pancreatitis (gallstones are the other)
- Macrocytosis, an ASTALT ratio > 2, and elevated gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) are
- indirect indicators of chronic alcohol consumption. Macrocytosis can occur independently of
- folate or cobalamin deficiency
- Crohn’s disease causes transmural inflammation of any area of the gastrointestinal tract The
- involvement of all layers of the intestinal wall explains the most common complications of
- Crohn’s disease strictures and fistula formation.
- 104
- Vitamin A deficiency can cause night blindness Vitamin A deficiency may result from any cause
- of fat soluble vitamin malabsorption, including ciwonic cholestasis from bihary obstruction
- Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with celiac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis describes
- groups of small vesicles that occur symmetrically on the extensor surfaces and are extremely
- pruritic. Immunofluorescence reveals IgA deposits in the tips of dermal papillae.
- Congenital pylohc stenosis ahses secondary to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscularis mucosae.
- In acute interstitial pancreatitis the pancreas is grossly edematous Focal areas of fat necrosis,
- calcium deposition and interstitial edema are seen on light microscopy. In necrotizing
- (hemorrhagic) pancreatitis, chalky-white areas of fat necrosis interspersed with hemorrhage are
- seen on macroscopic examination
- Adenomatous polyps contain dysplastic mucosa and are premalignant Regular screening with
- timely excision of polyps is effective for the prevention of colon adenocarcinoma. Studies have
- linked increased activity of COX-2 to some forms of colon adenocarcinoma and suggest that
- aspirin use decreases adenomatous polyp formation.
- In ulcerative colitis:
- 1. The rectum is always involved.
- 2. Inflammation is limited to mucosa and submucosa only
- 3. Mucosal damage is continuous
- Metastasis of gastric cancer can present as Virchows node, a Sister Mary Joseph nodule, or as
- Krukenberg tumor of the ovary
- Several factors are considered to be involved in the pathogenesis of Crohn’s disease Increased
- activity of T1 helper cells increases production of IL.2, interferon-y, and TNF, causing
- subsequent intestinal injury Nonc aseating granulomas, like the one seen on the slide above, are
- charactenstic of Crohn’s disease
- GERD is the most common cause of esophagitis. Gastroesophageal junction incompetence is the
- pnmary pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for GERD Repeated exposure of esophageal
- mucosa to acidic gastric contents causes chemical injury and inflammatory reachon Basal zone
- hyperplasia, elongation of lamina propria papillae. and inflammatory cells (eosinophils,
- neutrophils and lymphocytes) are characteristic histologic findings.
- The 2 most significant risk factors for the development of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
- in the United
- States are smoking tobacco and drinking alcohol. Betel nut chewing and the consumption of
- foods containing
- N-nitroso compounds are important risk factors in Asian countries.
- Toxic megacolon is a well-recognized comphcabon of ulcerative colitis Abdominal pain and
- distention, along with fever, diarrhea, and signs of shock are typical Plain abdominal X-ray
- 105
- should be used for diagnosis Banum contrast studies and colonoscopy are con(raindicated due to
- risk of perforation
- Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) is also referred to as Lynch syndrome It leads
- to occurrence of colonic adenocarcinomas at a young age (<50 years old), along with
- predisposition for extraintestinal malignancies. Mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes are
- responsible for this syndrome
- Zolhnger-Elhson syndrome occurs due to hypersecretion of gastrin by a pancreatic tumor Gastnn
- increases gastnc acid production, which causes peptic ulcers in the maionty of patients Mother
- common symptom of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, diarrhea, occurs due to the inactivation of
- intestinal and pancreatic enzymes by excess gastric acid.
- Cystic fibrosis is a genetic abnormality of exocrine secretion that leads to formation of thick,
- viscous mucus The respiratory tract and pancreas are the organs most commonly affected The
- pancreas characteristically shows duct obstruction by mucous plugs
- Caused by the gram-positive actinomycete Tropheryma iihiopefr/ Whipple disease is a rare
- systemic illness that involves the small intestine. joints, and central nervous system. Classic
- histologic findings include small intestine mucosa containing enlarged. foamy macrophages
- packed with both rod-shaped bacilli and PAS-positive, diastase-resistant granules.
- Because the splenic flexure and distal sigmoid colon he between areas of perfusion of major
- artenes. they are called “watershed” areas These two areas of the intestine are the most
- susceptible to ischemic damage during hypotension I low perfusion states.
- Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix is the first event in pathogenesis of acute appendicitis
- Fec aliths, hyperplastic lymphoid follicles, foreign bodies, or tumors may cause the obstruction
- Right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever are the typical
- manifestations of acute appendicitis
- Crohn’s disease is associated with oxalate kidney stones Impaired bile acid absorption in the
- terminal ileum leads to loss of bde acids in the feces with subsequent fat malabsorption Lipids
- then bind calcium ions, and the resulting soap complex is excreted. Free oxalate (which is
- normally bound by calcium ions to form an unabsorbable complex) is absorbed and forms
- urinary calculi.
- Adenomatous polyps are divided into tubular. villous. and tubulovillous according to their
- histologic appearance Villous adenomas tend to be larger. sessile, and more severely dysplastic
- than tubular adenomas. Villous adenomas can cause bleeding. secretory diarrhea, and partial
- intestinal obstruction.
- Intestinal metaplasia in the esophagus is a complication of long-standing GERD and is called
- Barrett esophagus. Originally a protective response to injury by acidic stomach contents. Barrett
- esophagus signitlcantty increases the nsk of esophageal adenocarcinoma
- 106
- Mallory-Weiss tears account for about 10% of cases of upper GI hemOrrhage. They occur due to
- increased intraluminal gastric pressure due to retching. vomiting, or other abdominal strainIng.
- The main manifestation of Crohns disease is abdominal pain. Diarrhea, low-grade fever, and
- symptoms of malabsorption are also common. Intestinal complications of Crohn’s disease
- include fistulas and intestinal stnctures
- The insèdious onset of nonbloody diarrhea. fever, maIase, and perianal fistulae should prompt an
- evaluation for Crohn’s Disease, a form of inflammatory bowel disease that may wwolve any
- portion of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus
- Long-standing ulcerative colitis is associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer The
- duration and extent of colitis are the most significant risk factors Unlike sporadic colorectal
- carcinomas, colitis-associated carcinomas are more likely to arise from non-polypoid dysplastk
- lesions, be multifocal in nature, develop early p53 mutations and late APC gene mutations, and
- be of a higher histological grade.
- An anal fissure is a tear m the lining of the anal canal distal to the dentate line that occurs most
- often on the posterior midline Patients complain of severe tearing pain associated with the
- passage of bowel movements. There may be a skin tag on physical examination. Anal fissures
- are associated with low-fiber diets and constipation.
- Barrett esophagus is an intestinal metaplasia of esophageal epithelium It occurs in GERD and is
- the most important risk factor for development of esophageal adenoc arc inoma As the sequence
- of GERD —.Barrett esophagus —esophageal adenocarcinoma is well-recognized, early
- diagnosis and regular monitonng of patients with gastroesophageal reflux is wnportant
- Colon adenocarcinoma is the most common GI malignancy. It is most frequently located in the
- rectosigmoid colon Patients with cancer at this location tend to present with obstructing
- symptoms (altered bowel habits, constipation, abdominal distension, nausea and vomiting).
- H. pyh,ninfection is associated with the formation of duodenal ulcers due to increased gastric
- acidity The increased gastric acidity is caused by a decrease in somatostatin-secreting cells in the
- gastric mucosa leading to unchecked gastrin production H pylonis also strongly associated with
- the formation of gastric ulcers, gastritis. gastric adenocarcinoma, and gastric lymphoma.
- Smoking is the most important environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer Age> 50 years,
- chronic pancreatftis, diabetes meibtus, and genetic predisposition also increase the risk of this
- malignancy.
- Type B chronic gastntis typically affects the gastric antrum and is usually the result of H. pylon
- infection of the gastric mucosa, This type of gastritis is associated with an increased risk of
- gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma.
- The rapid urease test is used in the diagnosis of HekcobacferpyIoriinfection Here, a samp’e from
- the gastric mucosa is added to a solution containing a pH indicator and urea Urease will convert
- 107
- urea to carbon dioxide and ammonia and cause a pH increase and resultant color change of the
- pH indicator, indicating alkahnization of the solution.
- Submucosal (Meissner) and myentenc (Auerbach) autonom,c plexi are absent in the affected
- se9ment of the bowel in Hirschsprung disease The submucosa of the narrowed area is the most
- superficial layer where the absence of ganglion cells can be seen
- PATHOLOGY-Git 2
- Carcinoid syndrome may accompany extraintestinal metastases of GI carcinoids Octreotide is a
- synthetic somatostatin analog used to control the symptoms of carcinoid syndrome
- Ulcers arising in the proximal duodenum in association with severe trauma or bums are called
- Curling ukers
- Ulcers arising in the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum in patients with high intracranial pressure
- are
- particularly prone to perforation and are called Cushing ulcers
- Educational Objective:
- Several factors are considered to be involved in the pathogenesis of Crohn’s disease Increased
- activity of T_I helper cells increases production of IL-2, interferon-y, and TNF, causing
- subsequent intestinal injury Nonc aseabng granulomas, like the one seen on the slide above, are
- characteristc of Crohn’s disease
- Shigellosis is an infectious disease caused by vahous species of Shigella S sonrielis the most
- common (—80%) etiological agent in the United States, Shigella invades the gastrointestinal
- mucosa by first gaining access to M cells in Peyer’s patches in the ileum through endocytosis
- Shigella subsequently lyses the endosome, multiplies, and spreads laterally into other epithelial
- cells, causing cell death and ulceration with hemorrhage and diarrhea
- Adenomatous polyps are divided into tubular. vitlous. and tubulovillous according to their
- histologic appearance. Villous adenomas tend to be larger, sessile, and more severely dysplastic
- than tubular adenomas. Villous adenomas can cause bieeding, secretory diarrhea, and partial
- intestinal obstruction.
- Toxic megacolon is a well-recognized complication of ulcerative colitis Abdominal pain and
- distention, along with fever, diarrhea, and signs of shock are typical Plain abdominal X-ray
- should be used for diagnosis Barium contrast studies and colonoscopy are contraindicated due to
- risk of perforation
- Colon adenocarcinoma is the most common GI malignancy. It is most frequently located in the
- rectosigmoid colon. Patients with cancer at this location tend to present with obstructing
- symptoms (altered bowel habits, constipation, abdominal distension, nausea and vomiting).
- 108
- He/icobacterpyloncan cause duodenal ulcers and is typically found in greatest concentration in
- the prepylonc area of the gastric antrum As a result, biopsy of the prepytonc area would have the
- greatest yield of the organism.
- Type B chronic gastntis typically affects the gastnc antrum and is usually the result of H.
- pyhxiinfection of the gastric mucosa This type of gastntis is associated with an increased risk of
- gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma
- The 2 most significant nsk factors for the development of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
- in the United
- States are smoking tobacco and drinking alcohol Betel nut chewing and the consumption of
- foods containing
- N-nitroso compounds are important risk factors m Asian countries.
- The insidious onset of nonbloody diarrhea, fever, malaise, and perianal fistulae should prompt an
- evaluation for Crohn’s Disease, a form of inflammatory bowel disease that may involve any
- portion of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus.
- An anal fissure is a tear in the lining of the anal canal distal to the dentate line that occurs most
- often on the posterior midline. Patients complain of severe tearing pain associated with the
- passage of bowel movements. There may be a skin tag on physical eXamination. Anal fissures
- are associated with low-fiber diets and constipation
- Non-neoplastic polyps (hyperplastic. hamartomatous. inflammatory) usually do not progress into
- adenoc arc inoma of the colon Adenomatous polyps, however, can undergo mahgnant
- transformation Villous adenomas are more likely than tubular adenomas to progress to adenoc
- arc inoma
- The rapid urease test is used in the diagnosis of H obacterpyIoiiinfection Here, a sample from the
- gastric mucosa is added to a solution containing a pH indicator and urea Urease will convert urea
- to carbon dioxide and ammonia and cause a pH increase and resultant color change of the pH
- indicator, indicating alkalinization of the solution
- The main manifestation of Crohn’s disease is abdominal pain Diarrhea. low-grade fever, and
- symptoms of malabsorption are also common. Intestinal complications of Crohn’s disease
- include fistulas and intestinal strictures.
- Colonic diverticula usually develop due to increased intraluminal pressure and are composed of
- mucosa and submucosa The most common site is the sigmod colon Diverticula may be
- asymptomatic or may manifest with painless rectal bleeding or acute diverticulitis Chronic
- constipation is a nsk factor for this condition.
- Smoking is the most important environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Age> 50 years,
- chronic pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, and genetic predisposition also increase the risk of this
- malignancy
- 109
- Carcinoid tumors are composed of nests or sheets of undorm cells They have eosinophilic
- cytoplasm and oval-to-round stippled nuclei These tumors are derived from enterochromaffin
- cells of intestinal mucosa
- AJcohol abuse is 1 of the 2 most common causes of acute pancreatitis (gallstones are the other).
- Macrocytosis, an ASTALT ratio >2, and elevated gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) are indirect
- indicators of chronic alcohol consumption. Macrocytosis can occur independently of folate or
- cobalamin deficiency.
- Atherosclerotic artehal changes diminEsh blood flow to the intestine causing chronic mesenteric
- ischemEa Its pathogenesis is similar to angina pectons. Postprandial abdominal pain, wesght
- loss, and pain out of proporbon to physical findings are common.
- GERD is the most common cause of esophagitis. Gastroesophageal junction incompetence is the
- primary pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for GERD. Repeated exposure of esophageal
- mucosa to acidic
- GERD is the most common cause of esophagitis Gastroesophageal junction incompetence is the
- primary pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for GERD Repeated exposure of esophageal
- mucosa to acidic gastric contents causes chemical injury and inflammatory reaction Basal zone
- hyperplasia, elongation of lamina propria papillae, and inflammatory cells (eosinophils,
- neutrophils and lymphocytes) are characteristic histologic findings
- Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level is increased in colon cancer, as well as in other
- malignancies and certain benign diseases CEA cannot be used to diagnose colon cancer, but is
- helpful for detecting disease recurrence
- Kaposi’s sarcoma usually involves the skin and (31 tract and is common in HIV patients not on
- antiretroviral therapy Endoscopy reveals characteristic lesions, which range from reddishMolet
- flat maculopapular lesions to raised hemorrhagic nodules or polypoid masses Biopsy can show
- spindle cells, neovascularization. and extravasated red blood cells.
- Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC) is also referred to as Lynch syndrome It leads
- to occurrence of colonic adenocarcinomas at a young age (<50 years old), along with
- predisposition for extraintestinal malignancies Mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes are
- responsible for this syndrome
- Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix is the first event in pathogenesis of acute appendicths
- Fecaliths, hyperplastic lyrnphoid follicles, foreign bodies, or tumors may cause the obstruction
- Right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea. vomiting, diarrhea, and fever are the typical
- manifestations of acute appendicitis.
- Uohns disease causes transmural inflammation ot any area 01 the gastrointestinal tract I he
- involvement of all layers of the intestinal wall explains the most common complications of
- Crohn’s disease stnctures and fistula formation
- 110
- There are two morphologcal variants of gastric adenocarcinoma Intestinal type forms a solid
- mass that projects into the stomach lumen and is composed of glandular-forming cuboidal or
- columnar cells Diffuse carcinoma (linitis plastica) infiltrates the stomach wall and displays a
- signet-ring pattern on light microscopy
- Subinucosal (Meissner) and myenteric (Auerbach) autonomic plexi are absent in the affected
- segment of the bowel in Hirschsprung disease The subrnucosa of the narrowed area is the most
- superficial layer where the absence of ganghon cells can be seen
- The glycoprotein in the cell walls of the actinomycete Tropheryma ih4eWcolors magenta with
- PAS and is diastase-resistant, making this stain an excellent choice in evaluating tissue for
- Whipple disease.
- Malabsorption isa syndrome of impaired intestinal digestion and absorption Diarrhea,
- steatorrhea, weight loss, and vitamin and mineral deficiencies are common Sudan Ill stain of
- stool identifies fecal fat and is used to screen for malabsorption
- H pyloninfection is associated with the formation of duodenal ulcers due to increased gastric
- acidity The increased gastric acidity is caused by a decrease in sornatostatin-secreting cells in the
- gastric mucosa leading to unchecked gastnn production. H. pyhnis aiso strongly associated with
- the formation of gastric ulcers, gastritis, gastric adenocarcinoma, and gastric lymphoma
- The size of adenomatous polyps determines their malignant potential. Adenomas <1 cm are
- unlikely to undergo malignant transformation, while those >4 cm are very likely (40%) to
- progress to adenocarcinoma K! asprotooncogene mutation facilitates the growth of adenomas by
- causing uncontrolled cell prohferation
- Cystic fibrosis is a genetic abnormality of exocrine secretion that leads to formation of thick,
- viscous mucus The respiratory tract and pancreas are the organs most commonly affected The
- pancreas characteristically shows duct obstruction by mucous plugs
- One of the earliest visceral manifestations of systemic sclerosis is esophageal hypomotihty and
- incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter due to atrophy and fibrous replacement of the
- esophageal muscles Esophageal dilatation causes reflux, which increases the nsk of Barrett
- esophagus and esophageal adenoc arc inoma,
- In ulcerative colitis:
- 1 The rectum is always involved
- 2. Inflammation is limited to mucosa and submucosa only.
- 3. Mucosal damage is continuous.
- APC mutation is required for the emergence of small adenomatous polyps from normal colonic
- mucosa. This mutation constitutes the first step of the adenoma-to-carcinoma sequence APC
- gene mutation is found in most cases of sporadic colon cancer and in all familial polyposis
- syndromes
- 111
- Zollinger-Ellison syndrome occurs due to hypersecretion of gastrin by a pancreatic tumor Gastrin
- increases gastric acid production, which causes peptic ulcers in the majonty of patients Mother
- common symptom of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, diarrhea, occurs due to the inactivation of
- intestinal and pancreatic enzymes by excess gastric acid.
- Acute erosive gastropathy can be caused by a number of factors, including nonsteroidal anti-
- inflammatory drug use, head trauma, severe bums, acute stress, and alcohol or tobacco use,
- Erosions are defined as mucosal defects that do not fully extend through the musculans mucosa.
- Acute erosive gastropathy can cause upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage that leads to meleria
- In acute interstitial pancreatitis the pancreas is grossly edematous Focal areas of fat necrosis,
- calcium deposition and interstitial edema are seen on light micrOscopy. In necrotizing
- (hemorrhagic) pancreatitis, chalky-white areas of fat necrosis interspersed with hemorrhage are
- seen on macroscopic examination.
- Congenital pyloric stenosis anses secondary to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscularis mucosae,
- Diarrhea, weight loss, and epigastric region calcitlcations in a patient with chronic alcoholism
- suggest chronic pancreatitis with resulting pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and malabsorption
- Abetalipoproteinemia is an inherited inability to synthesize apolipoprotein B, an important
- component of chylomicrons Lipids absorbed in the small intestine cannot be transported and
- therefore accumulate in the intestinal epithelium. Lack of lipids in the cell membranes causes
- abnormal red blood cells (acanthocytes) and neurologic deficits.
- Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor and are primarily found in the
- superficial region of gastric glands. Chief cells synthesize and secrete pepsinogen and are
- primarily found in the deeper region of gastric glands
- Pancreatic pseudocyst is a common complication of acute pancreatitis It is a collection of fluid
- hch in enzymes and inflammatory debns Its walls consist of granulation tissue and fibrosis
- Unlike true cysts, pseudocysts are not lined by epithehum
- Patients with Crohn’s disease affecting the terminal ileum are prone to the development of
- gallstones. Decreased bile acid reabsorption and its loss via feces increases the lithogenicity of
- bile Cholesterol precipitates and forms gallstones.
- Because the splenic flexure and distal sigmoid colon lie between areas of perfusion of malor
- arteries, they are called “watershed” areas. These two areas of the intestine are the most
- susceptible to ischemic damage during hypotension I low perfusion states.
- 112
- PATHOLOGY-Hepatic
- Absorbed copper is used to form ceruloplasmin, which accounts for 90-95% of circulating
- copper Senescent ceruloplasmin and the unabsorbed copper are secreted into bile and excreted in
- stool, which is the primary route for copper elimination.
- Hepatitis B virus infection is associated with a serum-sickness like syndrome in the prodromal
- period.
- Hepatocyte injury in vial hepatitis is characterized by a diffuse swelling termed Thallooning
- degeneration’ Hepatocyte death in wal hepatitis is charactenzed by lobular architectural
- disruption and confluent hepatocyte necrosis, a process called “bndging necrosis In response to
- the hepatocellular injury and death. mononuclear inflammation develops m the sinusoids and
- portal tracts.
- Gallbladder hypomotibty often results in bile precipitation and the formation of biliary sludge.
- Acute acalculous cholecysttis is an acute inflammahon of the gallbladder in the absence of
- gallstones It is most commonly seen in the hospitalized and severely ill
- The Kayser-Fleischer ring is an ophthalmologic finding most strongly associated with Wilsons
- disease It is seen most frequently in patients with neuropsychiatric complications. Basal gangha
- atrophy is typically present in these patients.
- The diagnosis of alpha-i antitrypsin deficiency should be suspected in all patients with premature
- onset (< 50 years) of chronic bronchitis. emphysema. or dyspnea, as well as in nonsmokers
- suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) A history of neonatal hepatitis
- with cholestasis should heighten suspicion for A1AT deficiency.
- Brown pigment stones typically arise secondary to infection of the biliary tract, which results in
- the release of 3-glucuronEdase by injured hepatocytes and bactena The presence of this enzyme
- contnbutes to the hydrolysis of bibrubin glucuronides and increases the amount of unconjugated
- bilirubin in bile
- To reduce the likelihood of cholesterol precipitahon (and gallstone formation), cholesterol
- quantities should be kept low and bile acid quantities kept high. High levels of
- phosphatidyicholine. a phospholipid that renders cholesterol soluble, are also associated with
- decreased risk of gallstones
- The most common hepatic lesion is a metastasis from another pnmary site (eg, breast, lung,
- colon), not hepatocellular carcinoma
- The cIassc picture of primary biliary cirhosis is a middle-aged Caucasian female with a long
- history of pruntus and fatigue who now develops pale stool and xanthelasma (suggestive of
- cholestasis)
- 113
- High levels of dietary aflatoxin exposure is associated with a G:C —a T:A transversion in codon
- 249 of the p53 gene, a mutation thought to greatly increase the risk of developing hepatocellular
- carcinoma
- Acute cakulous choecystitis is an acute inflammation of the gallbladder that is initiated 90% of
- the time by obstruction of the gallbladder neck or cystic duct.
- Total parenteral nutrition can induce gallstone formation secondary to biliary stasis from absent
- enteral stimulation or disturbance of the enterohepatic bile acid circulation in those with deal
- resections
- Late-stage hemochromatosis can be characterized by bronze diabetes, the tnad of skin
- hyperpigmentation, diabetes meUitus, and pigment cirrhosis with hepatomegaly
- Inhaled anesthetics, such as halothane. can be associated with a highly lethal fulminant hepatitis
- that cannot be histologically distinguished from acute viral hepatitis. Patients present with
- significantly elevated aminotransferase levels, a prolonged prothrombin time, and eosinophilia.
- Black pigment stones are associated with chronic extravascular hemolysis.
- Hepatocellular carcinoma is strongly associated with HBV infection. Integration of viral DNA
- into the genome of host hepatocytes triggers neoplastic changes Other risk factors for
- hepatocellular carcinoma include HCV, akoholic cirrhosis, aflatoxins and hemochromatosis.
- The most common outcome in HBV-infected adults (> 95%) is acute hepatitis with mild or
- subclinical symptoms that eventually completely resolve.
- Anorexia. nausea, and low-grade fever followed by bElirubnuria and right upper quadrant
- tenderness suggest acute hepatitis, which is most commonly caused by the Hepatitis A virus in
- young adults Acute hepatitis due to most hepatotropic viruses causes hepatocyte ballooning
- degeneration and apoptosis on histologic exam
- Cholecystectomy is recommended for those with porcelain galibladders because 11-33% of this
- patient population will eventually develop gallbladder carcinoma
- Dubin-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a defect in the hepatic excretion of bilirubin
- glucuronides across the canalicular membrane Grossly. the liver is stnkingly black Histological
- features are normal, though a dense pigment composed of epinephnne metabohtes within the
- lysosomes can be seen
- Individuals with stable. compensated cirrhosis who suddenly decompensate without apparent
- reason should be carefully evaluated for hepatocellular carcinoma, especially when serum AFP
- levels are also elevated.
- Primary biliary cirrhosis and graft versus host disease have similar histologic findings, including
- granulomatous bile duct destruction and a heavy lymphocyte-predominant poital tract infiftrate
- 114
- The genetic mutation of hemochromatosis prevents expression of the HFE protein on the
- basolateral surface of the intestinal cells where it normally binds to the transfemn receptor and
- regulates transferrin/iron complex endocytosis into the cells As a result. there is unregulated
- expression of the iron uptake proteins and an excessive amount of iron is absorbed
- gastrointestinally Liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma are two of the more ominous
- potential complications of this disease.
- Cirrhosis is microscopically charactenzed by diffuse hepatic fibrosis with replacement of the
- normal lobular architecture by fibrous-lined parenchymal nodules.
- Hepatitis B infection causes the hepatocellular cytoplasm to fill with the spheres and tubules of
- HBsAg (the hepatitis B surface antigen) and take on a finely granular. eosinophihc appearance
- commonly described as “ground glass.”
- Estrogen-induced cholesterol hypersecretion and progesterone-induced gallbladder hypomotility
- are responsible for the increased incidence of cholelithiasis in women who are pregnant or using
- oral contraceptives.
- The pathogenesis of alcohol-induced hepatic steatosis appears related primarily to a decrease in
- free fatty acid oxidation secondary to excess NADH production by the 2 major alcohol
- metabolism enzymes, alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase
- Stable chronic hepatitis is the most likely outcome for a patient acutely infected with hepatitis C
- virus, followed closely by chronic hepatitis progressing to cirrhosis.
- Physiologic iron loss through menstruation and pregnancy slows the progression of
- hemochromatosis in women.
- Alpha-i antitrypsin (AIAT) is a serum protein that reduces tissue damage caused by
- inflammation through the inhibition of neutrophil elastase, Histologically. A1AT deficiency is
- associated with reddish-pink, periodic acid-Schiff-positive granules of unsecreted, polyrnerized
- AIAT in the periportal hepatocytes
- Alcoholic liver injury develops through the stages of alcoholic steatosis. alcoholic hepatitis anJ
- cirrhosis. Increased AST and ALT are indicators of hepatocellular damage The serum albumin
- level and prothrombin time reflect liver function and are of greatest prognostic Significance.
- A positive HIDA scan confirms cystic duct obstruction, which is necessary for a definitive
- diagnosis of acute calculous cholecystitis Nonobstructing biliary stones seen by ultrasound are
- suggestive but not diagnostic of the condition
- Reye syndrome occurs in children with febrile illness treated with saIicyIates It consists of
- hepatic failure and encephalopathy The characteristic histological finding is microvesicular
- steatosis of hepatocytes without inflammation and cerebral edema.
- 115
- Staphylococcus aureus can cause hepatic abscess through hernatogenous seeding of the liver
- Enteric bacteria can cause hepatic abscess by ascending the biliary tract or directly invading from
- an adjacent area
- Extrahepatic bitiary atresia occurs due to complete obstruction of extrahepatic bile ducts Patients
- develop persistent jaundice beginning around the 3 or week of life, accompanied by dark urine,
- acholic stools and a conjugated hyperbihwbinemia Liver biopsy shows marked intrahepatic bile
- ductular proliferation, portal tract edema and fibrosis, and parenchymal cholestasis.
- The findings of fever. jaundice. and anorexia in an IV drug user suggest the diagnosis of viral
- hepatitis, most likely due to hepatitis C mfection. Acute viral hepatitis causes hepatocyte
- apoptosis and necrosis. Apoptotic hepatocytes shrink, undergo nuclear fragmentation and
- become intensely eosinophilic. They may also be referred to as acidophibc bodies, Councilman
- bodies, and apoptotic bodies.
- Primary biliary cirrhosis is a chronic hver disease characterized by autoimmune destruction of
- the intrahepatic bile ducts and cholestasis (elevated alkaline phosphatase). The condition is most
- common in middle-aged women, with severe pruntus (especially at night) one of the first
- symptoms reported.
- Aipha-fetoproteinis a useful marker in the evaluation of cirrhotic patients who are at increased
- risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma Regular monitoring of AFP in this patient
- population is recommended
- Cavernous hemangiorna is the most common benign liver tumor Microscopically, these tumors
- consist of cavernous, blood-filled vascular spaces of variable size lined by a single epithehal
- layer The biopsy of a suspected hemangioma is not advisable, as the procedure has been known
- to cause fatal hemorrhage and is of low diagnostic yield.
- The hemochromatosis gene (HLA-H) is on the short arm of chromosome 6 and encodes for a
- molecule that appears to affect iron absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
- Estrogenc influence facilitates the biosynthesis of cholesterol by increasing hepatic HMG-CoA
- reductase actMty Suppression of cholesterol 7cz-hydroxylase actMty (by medications such as
- fibrates) reduces the conversion of cholesterol to bile acids, resulting in excess cholesterol
- secretion in bile
- Advanced Wilson disease is often characterized by neuropsychiatnc symptoms, including
- Parkinsonian-hke tremor, rigidity, ataxia. slurred speech, drooling, personality changes.
- depression, paranoia, and catatonia OJmost all patients with neuropsychiatric involvement will
- also have Kayser-Fleisc her rings, which can be identified on slit lamp examination.
- Aspiration of hydatid cysts is generally inadvisable, as the spilling of cyst contents within the
- peritoneum can cause anaphylactic shock.
- 116
- Gallstone ileus is a rare type of mechanical bowel obstruction caused when a large gallstone
- erodes into the intestinal lumen. Pneumobiha (air in the bihary tract) is suggestive of the
- diagnosis.
- PATHOLOGY-Neuro 1
- Cerebral amyloid angiopathy is a common cause of recurrent lobar hemorrhage This type of
- intracranial hemorrhage has a lower mortality rate and more benégn clinical course than
- hemorrhagic strokes associated with hypertension
- Synaptophysin is a protein found in the presynaptic vesicles of neurons. neuroendocrine and
- neuroectodermal cells, CNS tumors of neuronal origin frequently stain positively for
- synaptophysin on immunohistology Neoplasms of glial origin (astrocytomas, ependymomas. and
- oligodendrogliomas) stain for GFAP
- Liquefactive necrosis is characterized by complete digestion and removal of necrotic tissue with
- formation of cystic cavity. Hypoxic CNS injury is often followed by hquefactive necrosis.
- Abscess formation due to bacterial or fungal infection is another example of this type of necrosis.
- The subthalamic nucleus is one of the components of the basal ganglia Damage to this nucleus
- (most often due to lacunar stroke) leads to hemibalhsm, The wwoluntary flinging movements of
- one side of the body (arm and/or leg) that constitutes hemiballism are always contralateral to the
- lesion
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a generakzed. excruciating headache It is classically
- described by patients as ‘The worst headache of my life.” Subarachnoid hemorrhage usually
- occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysms or artenovenous maWormatons. Berry
- aneurysms of the circle of Willis are associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney
- disease
- The hippocampus is the area of the brain demonstrating the greatest degree of atrophy in
- AIzheimers disease Hippocampal atrophy on MRI is highly suggestive of the diagnosis
- Duchenne muscle dystrophy manifests with proximal muscle weakness and atrophy. True
- hypertrophy of the distal muscle is noted early in the disease as distal muscles compensate for
- weak proximal ones. Later, muscle fibers of the distal extremities are replaced by fat and
- connective tissue (pseudohypertrophy).
- Both myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton syndrome are caused by poor sgnaI transmission at
- the neuromuscular junction Lambert-Eaton syndrome is associated with underlying malignancy
- Antibodies to voftage-gated presynaptic calcium channels are found in these patients
- 117
- Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with r,eurofibromatosis type 2, an autosomal
- dominant condition caused by mutation of the NF-2 gene on chromosome 2Z
- Severe vitamin E deficiency closely resembles the clinical presentation of Friedreich ataxia
- Vitamin E is a lipd-solubIe vitamin that has antiox,dative properties
- Pituitary adenornas cause symptoms from mass effect and often produce endocrine disorders
- from the vanous hormones that they can produce. Prolactinomas are the most common
- adenoma—excess prolactin causes amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Bitemporal hemianopsia from
- compression of the optic chiasm is common.
- A cystic tumor in the cerebellum of a child is most likely a pdocytic astrocytoma Biopsy will
- show a welld ifferentiated neoplasm comprised of spindle cells with hair-like ghal processes that
- are associated with microcysts These cells are mixed with Rosenthal fibers and granular
- eosinophilic bodies
- Subacute scierosing encephahtis is a rare complication of measles infection. It occurs several
- years after apparent recovery from initial infecbon Oligoclonal bands of antibodies to the
- measles virus are found in the CSF of these patients. Antibodies to the M component of the
- measles virus are absent
- CNS involvement in syphihs (neurosyphiks) may manifest as a number of syndromes Tabes
- dorsalis occurs due to demyelination of dorsal columns and dorsal roots of the spinal cord Loss
- of proprioception and vibration senses, ataxia. and Argyll Robeftson pupil may be seen.
- A cerebellar hernangioblastoma in association with congenital cysts of the kidneys, liver, and/or
- pancreas is highly suggestive of von Hippel—Lindau disease. a rare autosomal dominant
- condition
- Note: The syndromes descnbed above are common’y tested on USMLE exams It is important to
- be familiar with them.
- Counting down from 100 by 7 or3, reciting the months of the year in reverse order, and spelling
- “world” backwards are quick clinical tests to assess attention and concentration Attention and
- concentration are tested as part of the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE), a wdely used
- screening tool for cognitive impairment The MMSE also measures onentaton to time and place,
- short-term memory, calculation, language, and constructional praxis.
- 1. Holoprosencephaly results from failure of forebrain cleavage into cerebral hemispheres. It is
- an example of a congenital malformation, a primary abnormality in a development process
- 2 Amniotic band syndrome is an example of a disruption (secondary destruction of a previously
- well-formed tissue or organ).
- 3. Congenital hip dislocabon, clubbed feet and flat facies (Potter syndrome) are examples of
- deformations (secondary to extnnssc compression).
- 4. Potter syndrome is also an example of a sequence.
- 118
- Subdural hematoma occurs due to the rupture of cortical bridging veins In young patients, it
- results from a fall or motor vehicle accident, and manifests with gradual onset of headache and
- confusion In elderly patients it may occur after a minor trauma and present with a variety of
- neurologic symptoms. You should know how to recognize this on CT scan
- Meniére’sdEsease is characterized by the triad of tinnetus, vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss
- Its pathogenesis is related to an increased volume and pessure of endolymph in the vestibular
- apparatus
- Cluster headaches cause severe. episodic. unilateral periorbital and temporal pain associated with
- lacrimation, nasal congestion and ptosis Cluster headaches classically occur at the same time
- each day and are more common in males.
- A neuron that is responding to irreversible injury is called a red neurons Characteristic changes
- become evident 12-24 hours after the injurious event and include shrinkage of the cell body,
- eosinophilia of the cytoplasm. pyknosis of the nucleus and loss of Nissl substance
- The infusion of glucose without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency
- precipitates encephalopathy Confusion, ataxia. and ophthalmoplegia form the thad of Wemicke
- encephalopathy. Hemorrhage into the mamillary bodies is characteristic
- Picks disease causes pronounced atrophy of the frontal lobe. Clinically, it manifests with
- progressive dementia, behavioral disinhibition. and speech difficulties, such as dysarthna.
- aphasia, and echolalia
- Guillain-.Barre syndrome is an acute demyelinating peripheral neuropathy. It affects young
- adults and is usually preceded by a febrile illness. Segmental demyehnation of peripheral nerves
- and an endoneural inflammatory infiltrate are seen on light microscopy.
- Meningiomas are slowly growing. weli-circumscribed and benign tumors. Psammoma bodies are
- characteristic of meningiomas Psammoma bodies are composed of a core of dense calcification
- with surrounding collagen-fiber bundles
- Arnold-Chiari malformations are congenital abnormalities They are caused by impaired
- development of the posterior fossa Arnold-Chiari type I is relatively benign and may manifest in
- adulthood Arnold-Chiari type II is severe and is evident in the newbom
- Myelopathy associated wfth vitamin B2 deficiency is called subacute combined degeneration.
- “Combined refers to degeneration of both the ascending (dorsal columns) and descending
- (corticospinal tract) pathways Loss of position and vibration sensation. ataxia, and spastic paresis
- are common manifestations.
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-liriked condition. It occirs due to deletion of the
- dystrophin gene Dystrophin is a protein that allows interaction between extracellular connective
- tissue and the intracellular contraction apparatus The disease manifests in boys aged 3-6 with
- proximal muscle weakness and enlargement of the distal muscles.
- 119
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysm or arteriovenous
- malformation. Severe vasospasm 4— 12 days after the initial insult is the major cause of
- morbidity and mortality in patients recovering from SAH Nimodipine. a selective calcium
- channel blocker, is often prescribed to prevent this vasospasm.
- Demyelination (denudation means removal of covering) of axons in the white matter is a
- hallmark of multiple sclerosis. The areas of demyehnation form charactenstic plaques. The
- symptoms of the disease depend on the plaque location. Involvement of the MLF leads to
- internuclear ophthalmoplegia
- Tremulousness is commonly the first symptom of alcohol withdrawa[ Other common symptoms
- are GI distress, agitation, anxiety, and autonomic disturbance Delirium tremens is the most
- severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal and typically begin between 48 and 72 hours after the
- last drink
- Irreversible ischernic injury to the brain tissue results in liquefactive necrosis The infarcted CNS
- tissue is eventually replaced with a cystic astroglial scar In other organs, lethal Eschemic injury
- generally produces coagulative necrosis Fibnnoid necrosis is seen in some vasculitides Caseous
- necrosis results from tuberculosis Nonenzymatic f at necrosis follows local trauma to adipose
- tissue.
- Primary CNS lymphomas occur in immunosuppressed patients. such as those suffering from
- AiDS These tumors arise from B cells and are universally associated with EBV They are high-
- grade tumors with a poor prognosis.
- The changes in the body of a neuron after the axon has been severed are called axonal reaction.
- This process reflects an increased protein synthesis that facilitates axon repair Enlarged, rounded
- cells with peripherally located nuclei and dispersed finely granular Nissi substance are seen.
- Hemiparesis with the arm affected more than the leg occurs due to occlusion of the middle
- cerebral artery (MCA). If the occluded NCA is in the dominant hemisphere (usually the left),
- aphasia may also occur.
- Neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques are classic findings in Alzheimerrs dementia.
- Medulloblastoma is the second most common brain neoplasm of childhood It is located in the
- cerebellum. often at the vermis, and consists of sheets of small, blue cells, Like other PNE
- tumors, medulloblastomas are poorly differentiated and have a bad prognosis.
- Vitamin E deficiency can occur in indivdua1s suffering from fat malabsorption or
- abetalipoproteinemia. Deficiency of this fat-soluble vitamin is associated with increased
- susceptibility of the neuronal and erythrocyte membranes to oxidative stress.
- 120
- Rapid correction of chronic hyponatrerrna may lead to osmotic demyelination of the axons in the
- central part of the pons. This condition is called central pontine myehnolysis It manifests with
- spastic quadriplegia and pseudobulbar palsy.
- Friedre,ch ataxia is characterized by cerebellar ataxia. loss of position and vibration sensation,
- kyphoscohosis. and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Foot abnormalities and diabetes mellitus are
- also common.
- Neuropathy is a frequent complication of diabetes melhtus It is caused by diabetic
- microangiopathy which leads to nerve schemia Mother pathogenetic factor is the accumulation
- of sorbitol, which leads to osmotic nerve injury. The symmetric peripheral neuropathy descnbed
- in this vignette is common
- True hydrocephalus is an increase in CSF volume and pressure that occurs due to the abnormal
- production, flow, or absorption of CSF. The pressure increase then causes ventricular
- enlargement hi hydrocephalus e.r vacuc, ventricular enlargement occxs due to brain atrophy and
- is not accompanied by increase in CSF presSure.
- Proliferation of aStrOCyteS in an area of neuron degeneration is called gIiosis It leads to the
- formation of a glial scar which compensates for the volume loss that occurs after neuronal death
- Hypertension is the most common overall cause of intraparenchymal hemorrhage, usually
- through the formation of small Charcot-Bouchard pseudoaneurysms in the small arterio’es that
- penetrate the basal ganglia and thalami, This should be contrasted with rupture of a saccular
- aneurysm which typically presents with subarachnoid hemorrhage.
- Mu(tiple sclerosis is viewed as an autoimmune condition. Viral and environmental factors are
- also considered to play a role in its development Increased levels of lgG in the CSF. detected as
- an oligoclonal band on electrophoresis, supports the immunologic theory
- Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune dernyelinating disease Within the p’aques, loss of myelin
- sheaths and depletion of ohgodendrocytes is seen Ohgoclonal bands of lgG may be detected in
- cerebrospinal fluid Oligodendrocyte depletion is also seen in progressive multifocal
- leukoencephalopathy
- 121
- PATHOLOGY-Neuro 2
- CNS involvement in syphilis (neurosyphilis) may manifest as a number of syndromes Tabes
- dorsahs occurs due to demyehnation of dorsal columns and dorsal roots of the spinal cord Loss
- of propnoceptlon and vibration senses, ataxta. and Argyll Robertson pupd may be seen
- Syringomyelia is characterized by the formation of a cavity (syrinx) in the cervical region of the
- spinal cord. The syrinx damages the ventral white commissure, leading to bilateral loss of pain
- and temperature sensation that is limited to the affected levels (typically the arms and hands);
- distal sensation is preserved Destruction of the motor neurons in the ventral horns (due to
- extension of the syrinx) causes flaccid paralysis and atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
- Amold-Chiari malformations are congenital abnormalities. They are caused by impaired
- development of the posterior fossa Arnold-C hian type I is relatively benign and may manifest in
- adulthood Arnold-Chiari type II is severe and is evident in the newbom
- Multiple sclerosis is viewed as an autoimmune condition Viral and environmental factors are
- also considered to play a role in its development. Increased levels of lgG in the CSF, detected as
- an oligoclonal band on electrophoresis, supports the immunologic theory.
- Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune demyehnating disease. Within the plaques, loss of myelin
- sheaths and depletion of oligodendrocytes is seen Ohgoclonal bands of lgG may be detected in
- cerebrospinal fluid Oligodendrocyte depletion is also seen ii progressive multifocal
- leukoencephalopathy.
- Subacute sclerosing encephalitis is a rare complication of measles infection It occurs several
- years after apparent recovery from iwtial infection Ohgoclonal bands of antibodies to the
- measles virus are found in the CSF of these patients Antibodies to the M component of the
- measles virus are absent,
- A cerebellar hemangiobLastoma in association with congenital cysts of the kidneys, bver. and/or
- pancreas is highly suggestive of von Hippel—Lindau disease, a rare autosomal dominant
- condibon
- Vitamin E deficiency can occur in individuals suffering from fat malabsorption or
- abetahpoproteinemia Deficiency of this fat-soluble vitamin is associated with increased
- susceptibility of the neuronal and eMhrocyte membranes to oxidative stress
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysm or artenovenous
- malformation, Severe vasospasm 4— 12 days after the initial insult is the major cause of
- morbidity and mortality in patients recovering from SAl-I. Nimodipine. a selective calcium
- channel blocker, is often prescribed to prevent this vasospasm
- Primary CNS lymphomas occur in immunosuppressed patients, such as those suffering from
- AIDS These tumors arise from B cells and are universally associated with EBV. They are high-
- grade tumors with a poor prognosis
- 122
- Anemia associated with neurologic abnormalities is fairty specific to vitamin B12 deflciency
- Neurological damage associated with B12 deficiency includes subacute, combined degeneration
- of the posterior and lateral spinal columns Increased serum level of methylmalonic acid is
- diagnostic of vtamin B12 deficiency.
- A biphasic pattern (Antoni A and B areas) and S-100 positivdy indicate schwannoma Cranial
- nerves are covered by Schwann cells: therefore. schwannomas can arise from any cranial nerve,
- except CN II The acoustic neuroma, which is located at the cerebellopontine angle at CN Vill, is
- the most common schwannoma Melanomas are also S-tOO positive because both melanocytes
- and Schwann cells are derived from the neural crest.
- The hippocampus is the area of the brain demonstrating the greatest degree of atrophy in
- Alzheimer’s disease Hippocampal atrophy on MRI is highly suggestive of the diagnosis
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) causes both upper and lower motor neuron lesions Loss of
- neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord (LMN lesion) causes muscle weakness and
- atrophy Demyelination of the lateral corticospinal tract (UMN lesion) leads to spasticity and
- hyperreflexia
- Elevated protein, normal glucose. and lymphocytic predominance are characteristic of viral
- meningitis
- Transtentorial (i.e., uncal) hemiation is a complication of an ipsilateral mass lesion, such as a
- hemorrhage or brain tumor. The first sign of uncal herniation is a fixed and dilated pupil on the
- side of the lesion IpsiLateral paralysis of oculomotor muscles. contralateral or ipsilateral
- hemiparesis, and contralateral homonymous hernianopsia with macular sparing may also occur
- Lacunar infarcts are small ischernic infarcis (< 15 mm in diameter). usually rivoMng the basal
- ganglia, pons. internal capsule, or deep white matter of the brain Lacunar infarcts occur most
- often due to hypertensive artenolosclerosis of small, penetrating artenoles
- Liquefactive necrosis is characterized by complete digestion and removal of necrotic tissue with
- formation of cystic cavity. Hypoxic CNS injury is often followed by liquefactive necrosis.
- Abscess formation due to bacterial or fungal infection is another example of this type of necrosis.
- Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) causes the triad of urinary incontinence and ataxic gait,
- then dementia (wacky, wobbly & wet). NPH is a communicating hydrocephalus that occurs due
- to a diminished reabsorptive capacity of the arachnoid villi. CT scan of the bran shows
- symmetric dilation of ventricuk.
- Diabetic mononeuropathy often involves CN III. Nerve damage is ischemic. and only somatic
- nerve fibers are affected. Parasympathetic fibers of CN Ill retain function. Ptosis and a down and
- out” gaze in conjunction with normal light and accommodation reflexes indicate diabetic CN Ill
- neuropathy.
- 123
- 1 Holoprosencephaly results from failure of forebrain cleavage rito cerebral hemispheres lt is an
- example of a congenital malformation, a primary abnormality i a development process
- 2. Amniotic band syndrome is an example of a disruption (secondary destruction of a prevousIy
- well-formed tissue or organ)
- 3. Congenital hip dislocation, clubbed feet and flat facies (Potter syndrome) are examples of
- deformations (secondary to extnnsic compression).
- 4 Potter syndrome is also an example of a sequence.
- Both myastheniagravis and Lambert-Eaton syndrome are caused by poor signal transmission at
- the neuromuscular junction. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is associated with undertying malignancy.
- Antibodies to voltage-gated presynaptic calcium channels are found in these patients
- Severe vitamin E deficiency close’y resembles the clinical presentation of Friedreich ataxia
- Vitamin E is a lipid-soluble vitamin that has antioxidative properties.
- Epidural hematoma occurs due to tear of the middle meningeal artery It is often associated with
- temporal bone fracture, and is located between the bone and dura mater Clinical presentation is
- characterized by a “lucid interval”, followed by loss of consciousness
- Polymyalgia rheumatica occurs in more than half of patients with temporal arteritis It is
- characterized by neck, torso, shoulder, and pelvic girdle pain and morning stiffness Fatigue,
- fever and weight loss may also occur Monocular vision loss is a common complication of
- temporal arteritis
- In patients with Alzheimer disease. there are decreased levels of acetyicholine in the nucleus
- basalis of Meynert and hippocampus. Diminished activity of choline acetyftransferase in these
- cerebral structures is the cause.
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a generalized. excruciating headache It is classically
- described by patients as ‘The worst headache of my life.” Subarachnoid hemorrhage usuafly
- occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysms or artenovenous malformations Berry
- aneurysms of the circle of Willis are associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney
- disease
- Demyelination (denudation means removal of covering) of axons in the white matter is a
- hallmark of multiple sclerosis The areas of demyehnatiori form characteristic plaques The
- symptoms of the disease depend on the plaque location. Involvement of the MLF leads to
- internuclear ophthalmoplegia
- Rapid correction of chronic hyponatremia may lead to osmo& demyelination of the axons in the
- central part of the pons This condition is called central pontine myeIinolysis k manifests with
- spastic quadriplegia and pseudobulbar palsy.
- Microglia move to the area of ischerriic infarct approximately 3-5 days after the onset of isc
- hernia and phagocytize the fragments of neurons, myelin, and necrotic debris A cystic space
- replaces the necrosis. and astrocytes form a glial scar along the periphery
- 124
- Tremulousness is commonly the first symptom of alcohol withdrawal Other common symptoms
- are GI distress, agitation, anxiety, and autonomic disturbance Delinum tremens is the most
- severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal and typically begin between 48 and 72 hours after the
- last dnnk
- Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by median nerve compression. Pt is the most common
- example of compression (entrapment) neuropathy and is associated with repetitive wrist
- movements Carpat tunnel syndrome is also associated with hypothyroidism, diabetes meibtus,
- rheumatoid arthritis and diatysisa ssociated amyloidosis
- Pituitary adenornas cause symptoms from mass effect and often produce endocrine disorders
- from the various hormones that they can produce. Prolactinomas are the most common
- adenorna—excess prolactin causes amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Bitemporal hemianopsia from
- compression of the optic chiasm is common.
- Neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques are classk findings in Alzheimer’s dementia
- Hypeftension is the most common overall cause of intraparenchymal hemorrhage, usually
- through the formaton of small Charcot-Bouchard pseudoaneurysms in the small arterioles that
- penetrate the basal ganglia and thalami This should be contrasted with rupture of a saccular
- aneurysm which typically presents with subarachnoid hemorrhage.
- Proliferation of astrocytes in an area of neuron degeneration is called gliosis It leads to the
- formation of a glial scar which compensates for the volume loss that occurs after neuronal death
- Huntington disease is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait It manifests with progressive
- dementia and choreilorm movements. Loss of neurons in the caudate nucleus and putamen is
- characteristic.
- Counting down from I 00 by 7 or 3, reciting the months of the year in reverse order, and spelling
- world” backwards are quick clinical tests to assess attention and concentration Attention and
- concentration are tested as part of the Mine-Mental State Examination (MMSE), a widely used
- screening tool for cognitive impairment The MMSE also measures onentation to time and place,
- short-term memory, calculation, language, and constructional praxis.
- Paraneoplastic syndromes occur due to the tumor cells producing substances that frequently
- induce an autoimmune reaction and cause damage and degeneration of healthy organs and
- tissues Neurologic paraneoplastic syndromes such as paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration are
- considered to be autoimmune.
- The pineal region is the most common location of brain gerrninomas Histologically, germinomas
- are similar to testicular seminomas. Classic symptoms of pineal germinomas are precocious
- puberty, Pannaud syndrome, and obstwctive hydrocephalus.
- 125
- Accumulation of an abnormal prion protein is considered a cause of phon diseases. Characteristic
- microscopic findings are vacuoles in the gray matter (spongiform encephalopathy) with no
- inflammatory changes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is an example of pñon disease
- Friedreich ataxia is characterized by cerebellar ataxia. loss of position and vibration sensation,
- kyphoscoliosis, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Foot abnormalities and diabetes meflitus are
- also common.
- Normal pressure hydrocephalus occurs in elderly patients It causes the triad of ataxic gait and
- urinary incontinence, then dementia These symptoms are explained by distortion of
- periventricular white matter Bladder control is influenced by descending cortical fibers that run
- in the distended paraventricular area. Later, loss of cortical inhibition on the sacral mictuntion
- center causes the development of urge incontinence.
- Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia. and confusion form the triad of Wemicke syndrome Most of these
- symptoms resolve after thiamine admInistration. Korsakoff syndrome is a complication of
- Wemicke encephalopathy. The hallmarks of Korsakoff syndrome are permanent memory loss
- and confabulation
- Neuropathy is a frequent complication of diabetes mellitus. It is caused by diabetic
- microangiopathy which leads to nerve ischernia Another pathogenetic factor is the accumulation
- of sorbitol, which leads to osmotic nerve injury. The symmetric peripheral neuropathy described
- in thés vignette is common.
- The subthalamic nucleus is one of the components of the basal gangIia Damage to this nucleus
- (most often due to lacunar stroke) leads to hen-übaflsm. The involuntary flinging movements of
- one side of the body (arm and/or leg) that constitutes hemibalksm are always contralateral to the
- lesion
- PATHOLOGY-Oncology
- Symptoms of urinary urgency, noctuna. frequency, and hesitancy associated with constant back
- pain in an elderly man are suggestive of metastatic prostate cancer. Asymmetric nodular
- enlargement of the prostate on digital rectal examination is also suggestive. Metastatic prostate
- cancer has a strong predilection for bones (especially the axial skeleton). The bony metastases of
- prostate cancer are blastic (sclerotic), and can be detected by radionuclide bone scanning.
- Most chemical carcinogens enter the body in an inactive state (ie, as pro-carcinogens) These pro-
- carcinogens are converted into active metabolites by the cytochrome P450 oxidase system
- Individual susceptibility to chemical carcinogens depends on the activity of these P450 enzymes.
- which is genetically determined.
- 126
- Dysplasia is a reversible change in epithelial cells Epithelial malignancies progress through the
- sequence of low-grade dysplasia —. high-grade dysplasia/carcinoma in situ invasive carcinoma
- Once the dysplastic cells have breached the basement membrane (as seen in invasive carcinoma),
- the process is no longer considered reversible
- Follicular lymphoma is the most common indolent non-Hodgkin Iyrnphoma in adults It is of B-
- cell origin and presents with painless “waxing and waning” Iymphadenopathy The cytogenetic
- change t(14;18) is charactenstic and resuIts in overexpression of the bcl-2 oncogene
- Hereditary breast cancer is associated with mutation of BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 These are tumor
- suppressor genes that function in gene repair and regulation of the cell cycle. Mutation of these
- genes increases the risk of breast and ovarian cancer.
- Metalloproteinases are Zn-containing enzymes that degrade extracellular matrix They participate
- in the normal tissue remodeling and in tumor invasion through the basement membrane and
- connective tissue.
- A cerebellar tumor in a child is most likely a pilocytic astrocytoma or a medulloblastoma These
- two tumors can be differentiated on brain imaging Pilocytic astrocytomas have both cystic and
- solid components, while medulloblastomas are always solid.
- The Rb tumor suppressor gene encodes the Rb protein, which regulates the cell cycle Active
- (hypophosphorylated) Rb protein prevents damaged cells from proceeding past the Gi to S
- checkpoint, while the inactive (hyperphosphorylated) Rb protein allows the damaged cell to
- enter mitosis Abnormal phosphorylation of Rb protein results in its inactivation.
- Burkitt lymphoma is characterized by aggressive. rapid growth and a starry-sky” microscopic
- appearance Translocation of the c-myc oncogene on the long arm of chromosome 8 with the Ig
- heavy chain region on chromosome 14 produces a nuclear phosphoprotein (c-Myc) that functions
- as a transcription activator
- Cushing syndrome in a patient with small cell (oat cell) lung cancer is most likely the result of a
- paraneoplastic syndrome involving ectopc produchon of ACTH by the tumor cells
- Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant predisposition to a variety of Cancers.
- Sarcomas and tumors of the breast. brain, and adrenal cortex are most common. This syndrome
- is associated with mutation of the p53 gene.
- The majority of bladder carcinomas are urothelial (formerly known as transitional cell)
- carcinomas Painless gross hematuria is the main presenting symptom Tumor penetration of the
- bladder wall is the maior determinant of prognosis.
- Proliferation signals activate CDK4 (cyclin-dependent kinase-4), resulting in
- hyperphosphorylation of the Rb protein, Because hyperphosphorylated Rb is inactive, cells are
- allowed to transition unchecked from the Gi phase to the S phase in the cell cycle
- 127
- The P450 mcrosomaI oxidase system plays an important role in detoxification In carbon
- tetrachloride poisoning, however, it produces free radicals that start a vicious cycle of hepatic
- injury
- p53 is a tumor suppressor gene that controls cell division and apoptosis. It is inactivated in many
- tumors.
- The finding of a high peak in the gamma-globulin region on serum protein electrophoresis
- (SPEP) usually represents an M protein consisting of an overproduced monoclonal
- immunoglobulin Multiple myeloma causes an M protein peak on SPEP as well as anemia
- (weakness). lytic bone lesions (back pain, pathologic fractures), and renal insufficiency (related
- to amyloid deposition and hypercalcemia)
- Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary brain tumor in adults Areas of necrosis
- and hemorrhage are seen on gross examination Light microscopy showing pseudopalisading
- tumor cells around areas of necrosis is diagnostic.
- ERJPR positivity in breast cancer indicates expected sensitivity to tamoxifen treatment ERB-
- B2positMty in breast cancer is consistent with a more aggressive tumor that should respond to
- therapy with the monoclonal antibody trastuzumab.
- Gliobtastoma multiforme, meningioma. and acoustic neuroma are the most common primary
- brain tumors in aduits Glioblastoma multiforme arises within the cerebral hemispheres and
- frequently crosses the midline. Foci of necrosis and hemorrhage are seen on macroscopic
- examination.
- Peau dOrange descnbes the presence of pitting edema in subcutaneous breast tissue
- accompanied by skin thickening around exaggerated hair folhcles. The pitting edema occurs
- when neoplastic cells plug the dermal lymphatic channels.
- EBV virus causes infectious mononucleosis an teenagers and young adults It is also associated
- with a number of malignant conditions, including Burtatt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal
- carcinoma
- TNF-a was shown to induce a wasting syndrome (cachexia) in experimental animals It is thought
- to mediate paraneoplastic cachexia in humans by suppressing appetite. inhibiting lipoprotein
- lipase and increasing insulin resistance of peripheral tissues
- Oral contraceptives reduce the risk of non-hereditary ovarian and endometnal cancer. Muttiparity
- and breast-feeding also decrease the risk ot ovarian cancer.
- Prognosis of colorectaladenocarcinoma is directly related to the stage of the tumor (not to the
- grade!)
- 128
- Most tumors possess multiple cytogenetic abnormalities Activation of proto-oncogenes results in
- stimulation of cellular proliferation Inactivation of anti-oncogenes eliminates oversight of the
- cell cycle
- Cytokeratin is a commonly-used immunohistochemical marker of epithehai-dehved tissues.
- The HER2Ineu oncogene encodes for a 1 85-kD transmembrane glycoprotein that has
- intracellular tyrosine kinase activity and is a member of the family of epidermal growth factor
- receptors Overexpression of this protein is associated with increased rates of breast and ovanan
- cancer
- Integnn-mediated adhesion of cells to basement membrane and the extracellular matrix involves
- the binding of integrins to fibronectin, collagen, and Iaminin
- Kaposs sarcoma typically presents as blue-violet skin p’aques on the extremities and mucous
- membranes of HIV-positive patients This tumor arises from primitive mesenchymal cells and is
- strongly associated with human herpes virus type 8 (HHV-8)
- Reed-Stemberg cells are large binuceated cells with an owI’s eyes appearance that appear on a
- background of lymphocytic infiltrates. Reed-Stemberg cells must be present histopathologically
- in order to make the diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma.
- Benign lymph node enlargement in response to antigenic stimulation is associated with a
- polyclonal proliferation of lymphocytes. A monoclonal lymphocytic proliferation is strong
- evidence of nialignancy
- Keratin is a marler of epfthelial cell origin
- The key growth factors that promote angiogenesis ii neoplastic and granulation tissue are
- vascular endotheleal growth factor (VEGF) and fibroblast growth factor (FGF). Proinflammatory
- cytolanes (like IL-I and INF.y) can indirectly promote angiogenesis throu9h increased VEGF
- expression The larnanin in basement membranes may pose a physical barner to the sprouting of
- new blood vessels
- Apoptosss can occur through either the intrinsic (mitochondria-mediated) pathway or the
- extrinsic (receptor-initiated) pathway. Both pathways converge in the activation of caspases
- Caspases are proteolttic enzymes that cleave cellular proteins.
- The avid uptake of bromodeoxyuridine by the tumor reflects the high number of tumor cells in S
- phase (preparing to divide) that are present in this mans brain tumor A high proliferation rate
- suggests a high tumor grade and, therefore, a poor prognosis.
- Small cell carcinoma of the lung is the most aggressive lung neoplasm. This tumor is thought to
- have a neuroendocrine ongin. Tumor cells express neuroendocnne markers and contain
- neurosecretory granules in the cytoplasm.
- 129
- Overexpression of bc/-2leads to increased secretion of BcI-2 protein. which inhibits apoptosis
- and promotes survival of tumor cells, This overexpression occurs in follicular lymphoma
- secondary to translocation of the bcl-2oncogene from chromosome 18 to the Ig heavy chain
- locus on chromosome 14 [t(14j8)]
- Undifferentiated (anaplastic) tumors bear no resemblance to the tissue of origin They are
- composed of pleomorphic cells with hyperchromatic nuclei that grow in a disorganized fashion.
- Many abnormal mitoses and giant tumor cells may be seen.
- PATHOLOGY-Pulmonology
- Small cel carcinoma is the most aggressive type ol lung cancer Most patients have distant
- metastases at the time of diagnosis Surgery is usually not a treatment option, even when the
- disease is localized This tumor is sensitive to chemotherapy and radiation
- Secondary (reactivation) tuberculosis occurs in patients who have been previously infected with
- tuberculosis Primary tuberculosis causes the formation of Ghon foci in the lower lung fields
- Reactivation tuberculosis occurs in immunosuppressed patients, and is characterized by apical
- cavitary lesions and hemoptysis.
- Prolonged, burning substernal pain and ST segment elevation in leads I and V3-V6 is strongly
- suggestive of anterolateral left ventricle infarction. Common consequences of left ventricle
- infarction include left ventricular failure, cardiogenic acute pulmonary edema, pulmonary venous
- hypertension (congestion), and transudate of plasma into the lung interstitium and alveoli.
- Sarcoidos,s is a disease that is characterized by hilar adenopathy, pulmonary disease, and
- constitutional symptoms Histologically, non-caseating granulomas are seen, helping to
- distinguish sarcoidosis from tuberculosis infection
- Patients with a long history of asbestos exposure are at risk for developing asbestosis,
- bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma Bronchogenic carcinoma is the most common
- malignancy in this population, while mesothelioma is the second
- Bronchioloaiveolar carcinoma is a subtype of lung adenocarcinoma This uncommon tumor
- occurs in non-smokers and arises from alveolar epithelium It is located in the penpheral parts of
- the lun9 and is often multifocal On microscopc examination, it is composed of tall, columnar
- cells that line the alveolar septa without evidence of vascular or stromal invasion.
- The incidental chest x-ray finding of fibrocalcific panetal pleural plaques in the posterolateral
- mid-lung zones and over the diaphragm are highly suggestive of asbestosis.
- 130
- The interstitial and alveolar edema and exudate in ARDS result in large part from increased
- pulmonary capillary permeability. The result is a decrease in lung compliance, an increase in the
- work of breathing, and worsened V/Q mismatching. The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
- (PCWP) is typically normal. An elevated PCWP would be more suggestive of a cardiogenic
- cause in a patient with pulmonary edema.
- Thickened bronchial walls, neutrophil infittration, mucous gland enlargement, and patchy
- squamous metaplasia of the bronchial mucosa are features of chronic bronchitis Cigarette
- smoldng is the leading cause of chronic bronchitis.
- The green discoloraton of pus or sputum noted during bacteria’ infections is associated with the
- release of myeloperoxidase (MPO) from neutrophil azurophdic granules. MPO is a herne-
- containing pigmented molecule.
- Pulmonary hypertension develops in patients with scieroderma as a result of damage to the
- pulmonary arterioles It manifests with an accentuated pulmonary component of the second heart
- sound and signs of right-sided heart failure
- Metaplasia is an adaptive change that occurs in response to chronic epithelial irritation. Smoking
- induces squamous bronchial metaplasia, while long-standing reflux results in columnar
- metaplasia of the distal esophagus (BarretVs esophagus). Both these conditions increase the risk
- of malignancy and are therefore referred to as premalignant.
- Insidious-onset progressive exertional dyspnea. pulmonary function tests showing a restrictive
- profile, and surgical biopsy showing extensive interstitial fibrosis together with paraseptal and
- subpleural cystic airspace enlargement (honeycomb lung) are charactenstic of idiopathic
- pulmonary fibrosis.
- Use of concentrated oxygen therapy for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome may be
- complicated by retinopathy of prematurity This abnormal retinal neovascularization is a major
- cause of blindness in developed nations.
- Sarcoidosis most commonly affects young black women and presents with malaise, cough and
- varied cutaneous findings including erythema nodosum. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral hilar
- lymphadenopathy. Transbrorichial biopsy showing non-caseating granulomas is necessary for
- diagnosis.
- Leukotriene B stimulates neutrophil migration to the site of inflammation. Other significant
- chemotactic agents include 5-HETE (the leukotriene precursor) and complement component
- C5a.
- Tissue damage and resuftant abscess formation is pnmanly caused by lysosomal enzyme release
- from neutrophds and macrophages.
- 131
- Malignant mesothelioma is a rare neoplasm that arises from the pleura or pehtoneum It is
- strongly associated with asbestos exposure. Hemorrhagic pleural effusions and pleural
- thickening are characteristic. Electron microscopy is the gold standard for diagnosis, revealing
- tumor cells with numerous, long, slender microvilli and abundant tonofilaments.
- Erytherna nodosum, arthralgias. hilar Iyrnphadenopathy, and elevated serum ACE levels are
- common findings in sarcoidosis There may be evidence of liver involvement on histologic
- examination in up to 75% of cases Needle biopsy of the liver frequently demonstrates scattered
- noncaseating granulomas
- Sepsis and shock are two major risk factors for developing adult respiratory distress syndrome
- (ARDS, also known as ‘shock lung’). ARDS produces non-cardiogenic pulmonary interstitial
- and intra-atveolar edema, inflammation, and alveolar hyatine membranes
- Tumors located in the lung apex (superior sulcus) are called Pancoast tumors. Pancoast
- syndrome is characterized by ipsitateral Homer’s syndrome, rib destruction, atrophy of hand
- muscles, and pain in the distribution of C8. Ti. and T2 nerve roots
- An obstructive lesion in a mainstern bronchus can prevent ventilation of an entire lung, leading
- to lung collapse Characteristic findings on chest x-ray include unilateral pulmonary opacification
- and deviation of the mediastinum toward the opacified lung.
- Intrathoracic spread of bfonchogenic carcinoma may lead to compression of the superior vena
- cava causing impaired venous return from the upper part of the body Signs and symptoms
- include facial swelling and headache.
- Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a common cause of congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens,
- resuLting in azoospermia. A diagnosis of CF can be made based on this urogenital anomaly with
- an abnormal sweat chloride test or an abnormal nasal transepithehal potential difference.
- Adenocarcinoma Es the most common lung cancer in the general population ft is also the most
- common subtype in women and nonsmokers It is located peripherally and consists of tumor cells
- that form glandular or papillary structures
- In lobar pneumonia. the inflammation involves an entire lobe of the lung. The course of the
- disease includes four morphologic stages: congestion, red hepatization1 gray hepatization and
- resolution
- Peptostreptococciand Fusobacterià are anaerobèc bacteria normally found in the oral cavity
- They cause lung abscesses associated with aspiration R’sk factors for such abscesses include
- alcoholism, seizure disorder, CVA and dementia.
- Patients with sarcoidosis or other granulomatous diseases are prone to developing hypercalcemia
- secondary to high levels of active vitamin 0 (calcitriol).
- 132
- Intermittent respwatory symptoms in a patient with a normal CXR, occasional sputum
- eosinophils, and reduced FEV1 suggest a diagnosis of asthma Extnnsic allergic asthma provoked
- by inhaled allergens such as animal dander is the most common type
- Acute necrotizing pancreatitis is a major risk factor for progression to adult respiratory distress
- syndrome (ARDS). Diffuse injury to the alveolocapillary membrane resu*s in interstitial and
- intraalveolar edema, acute inflammation, and alveolar hyahne membranes Hyahne membranes
- result from alveoocapitlary membrane leakage and consist of fibnn exudate and plasma protein-
- nch edema fluid mixed with the cytoplasmic and lipid remnants of necrotic epithehal cells
- (Hyahne membranes are produced by a different mechanism of alveolocapillary injury in
- neonatal respiratory distress syndrome).
- The development of respiratory distress. diffuse neurological impairment (e.g. confusion), and an
- upper body petechial rash (due to thrombocytopenia) within days of severe long bone fractures is
- characteristic of the fat embolism syndrome. The multiple fat emboli occluding the pulmonary
- microvasculature stain black with osmium tetroxide.
- Asthma develops due to the interaction of genetic and environmental factor& Patients are born
- with a genetic predisposition to have an imbalance between Thi and Th2 lymphocytes.
- Environmental irritants, such as smoking, trigger bronchospasm in predisposed IndMduals
- Fat embolism syndrome should be strongly suspected in a patient with severe long bone and/or
- peMc fractures who then develops acute-onset neurologic abnormalities, hypoxemia, and a
- petechial rash. Occlusion of the pulmonary microvessels by fat globules is an early histologic
- finding of this syndrome.
- Chronic rejection can occur months to years following transplantation. In lung transplantation,
- the immune reaction affects the small airways, causing bronchiohtis obliterans syndrome
- Symptoms include dyspnea and wheezing.
- Rupture of apical subpleural blebs is the most common cause of primary spontaneous
- pneumothorax. These blebs may arise due to distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema Tall, thin,
- young adult males are most commonly affected Other types of emphysema may predispose to a
- secondary spontaneous pneumothorax. Compensatory and obstructive hypennflation cause
- distention of normal lung parenchyma and would be unlikely to cause pneumothorax.
- al-antitrypsin deficiency is associated with chronic panacinar emphysema. which is preferentially
- localized to the lower pulmonary lobes. Centnacinar emphysema has a predominantly upper lung
- lobe distnbution and is strongly associated with chronic smoking.
- Small cell carcinoma is strongly associated with smoking and usually is centrally located. This
- tumor arises from the primitive cells of the basal layer of the bronchial epithelium
- Immunohistochemical stains are frequently positive for neuroendocrine markers, such as neuron
- specific enolase, chromogranin and synaptophysin
- 133
- Dry cough, pulmonary infiltrates, and hilar adenopathy in an African American female strongly
- suggest sarcoidosis. This diagnosis may be confirmed by the finding of non-caseating
- granulomas on lung biopsy.
- The tissue destruction caused by Al &,bercc.*sis infection is the direct resuk of host immune
- activation and inflammation through a type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction The
- characteristic pathologic lesion consists of granulomatous inflammation and caseous necroSis.
- Lung abscess is a common comphcation of aspiration pneumonia, Aspiration pneumonia occurs
- in individuals with impaired consciousness or decreased ability to swallow (alcoholics,
- demented, chronically ill patients). The anaerobic bactena of the gingivodental sulcus are the
- most common cause of lung abscesses.
- Pulmonary tuberculosis is a disease passed from person to person through the transmission of
- aerosolized respiratory secretions that contain Mycobact er/urn tubercuksis Organisms. The
- smaller droplets deposit organisms in the alveoli of lower lung fIelds These organisms are
- engulfed by alveolar macrophages that allow for intracellular bacterial proliferatIon.
- Primary infection by M tuberculosis occurs after inhaling the organism in the aerosolized
- respiratory secretions of an infected person Initial M tuberculosis infection is characterized by a
- Ghon complex, which consists of a lower lobe lung lesion (Ghon focus) and ipsilateral hilar
- adenopathy
- Recurrent sinopulmonary infections and exocnne gland fibrotic atrophy in a young Caucasian are
- suggestive of cystic fibrosis (CF), CF can lead to pancreatic insufficiency, fat malabsorption. and
- a deficiency of vitamins A, 0, E and K. Vitamin A maintains ordedy differentiation of
- specialized epitheha, including the mucus-secreting columnar epitheha of the ocular conjunctiva,
- respiratory and urinary tracts, and pancreatic and other exocnne ducts Avitaminosis A can cause
- squamous metaplasia of such epethelia to a keratinizing epithelium.
- PathOphySIOIOgiCaHy, deep venous thrombosis arises due to Virchows triad of endothelial
- injury, venous stasis, and a hypercoagulable state.
- Of the pneumoconioses that can cause exertional dyspnea and interstitial densities on chest x-ray,
- silicosis is the only one that produces eggshell calcifications of hilar nodes and birefringent
- particles surrounded by fibrous tissue on histologic exam Asbestosis is associated with calcified
- pleural plaques and ferruginous bodies Berylliosis and hypersensitivity pneumonitis may
- produce noncaseating granulomas Coal mine?s lung is associated with penlymphatic
- accumulations of coal dust-laden macrophages
- 134
- PATHOLOGY-Renal
- Membranous glomerulopathy is one of the most common causes of nephrotic syndrome in
- adufts, It can occur secondary to underlying malignant tumors, infections, and certain
- medications Diffuse increased thickness of the glomerular basement membrane on light
- microscopy (without increased cellularity), “spike and dome” appearance on methenamine silver
- stain, and granular deposits on immunofluorescence are diagnostic
- lschemic ATN is one of the most common causes of intrinsic renal failure (acute renal failure) in
- hospitalized patients. Renal ischernia triggers hypoxic changes in tubular epithelial cells
- (especially in proximal tubules and the thick ascending limb of Henles loop), decreasing their
- functional capacity Muddy brown casts are pathognomonic for ATN.
- The most common renal malignancy is clear cell carcinoma, which arises from renal tubular
- cells. Routine histological staining of this tumor shows rounded or polygonal cells with abundant
- clear cytoplasm. These cells have this appearance because they are packed with glycogen and
- lipids On any histologic preparation. clear cells” are generaity those with a high glycogen or lipid
- content
- Henoch-Schônlein purpura (HSP) generally affects young children and is classically preceded by
- an upper respiratory infection This IgA-mediated hypersensitivity (leukocytoclastic) vasculitis
- commonly causes abdominal pain, joint pain, lower extremity palpable purpura and hematuria
- Poststreptococcal glomerulonephntis occurs most frequently in cMdren, but adults can be
- affected, too. Immunofluorescence microscopy shows granular deposits of lgG. 1gM, and C3 in
- the mesangium and basement membranes, producing a ‘starry sky’ appearance.
- Idiopathic membranous nephropathy is associated with circulating IgG4 antibodies to the
- phospholipase A2 receptor, which might play a role in the development of the disease
- Age is an important prognostic factor in poststreptococcal glomenilonephritis 95% of affected
- children, but only 60% of affected adults. recover completely
- During the recovery phase (polyuric phase) of acute tubular necrosis, patents can become
- dehydrated and can develop severe hypokalemia due to high volume. hypotonic urine
- ANCA-associated RPGN is also ca$ed pauci immune GN due to the absence or scarcity of Ig
- and C3 deposits Pahents present with renal failure, pulmonary symptoms (cough, dyspnea,
- hemoptysis), and upper respiratory tract symptoms (epistaxis. mucosal ulceration, chroruc
- sinusitis). Crescents are found on light microscopy.
- The histological picture of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis includes
- I Enlarged. hypercellular glomeruh on light microscopy
- 2 “Lumpy-bumpy” granular deposits of lgG and C3 on immunofluorescence
- 3. Electron-dense deposits on the epithehal side of the basal membrane on electron microscopy
- 135
- Nephrotic syndrome isa hypercoagulable state. Sudden onset abdominal or flank pain, hematuria
- and lefts ided varicocele together suggest renal vein thrombosis, a well-known complication of
- nephrotic syndrome. Loss of anticoagulant factors, especially antithrombin Ill, is responsible for
- the thrombotic and thromboembolic complications of nephrotic syndrome
- Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria (>35 gm/day), hypoalbuminemia,
- generalized edema. hyperlipidemia, and hpiduria. Depending on the ratio of low- to high-
- molecular weight proteins in the urine with nephrotic syndrome, proteinuna can be either hgh’or
- p004’ selective, Minimal change disease is an example of a highly selective proteinuna mostly
- low-molecular weight proteins, such as albumin and transferrin, are excreted.
- Goodpasture syndrome is caused by anti-GBM antibodies that react with a component of the
- alpha3-chain of collagen type IV. Patients typically present with rapidly progressive
- glomerulonephritis resulting in acute renal failure and hemoptysis due to pulmonary hemorrhage
- Mti-GBM antibodies react with the a3 chain of collagen type IV, found in the glomerular
- basement membrane Anti-GBM antibodies are found in Goodpasture syndrome, a condition
- characterized by pulmonary hemorrhages (hemoptyss) and rapidly progressive
- glomerulonephr*is (RPGN) On light microscopic examination, there is glomerular crescent
- formation On immunofluorescence, linear deposits of lgG and C3 along the glomerular basement
- membrane are characteristic
- Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease manifests in patients 40-50 years old with
- enlarged kidneys, hypertension, and renal failure. In newborns, the kidneys are of normal size,
- and the cysts are too small to be detected on abdominal ultrasonography. As the cysts enlarge.
- they compress the renal parenchyma and cause symptoms
- The ureters are at hsk of injury during pelvic surgeries Hysterectomies are especially risky
- because the ureters course just posterior to the utenne arteries, which are ligated in this procedure
- Most patents with ATN experience tubular re-epithelization and regain renal function When
- ATN is associated with multi-organ failure, renal function may be permanently impaired (foci of
- interstitial scarring can be seen on light microscopy).
- Crescent formation on light microscopy is diagnostic for rapidly progressive glomerulonepliritis.
- Crescents consist of glomerular parietal cells monocytes, macrophages as well as abundant fibrin
- Crescents eventually become sclerotic, disrupting glomerutar function and causing irreversible
- renal injury
- Granulomatosis with poiyangiitis (Wegeners) is a cause of rapidly progressive (crescentic)
- glomerulonephritis (RPGN) type 3 (pauci-immune). The symptoms of nephntis are accompanied
- by signs of upper and lower respiratory tract involvement. Crescents on bght microscopy, the
- absence of deposits on immunofluorescence, and elevated serum c-ANCA are diagnostic
- Minimal change disease (MCD) presents as a nephrotic syndrome in children between 2-8 years
- ol& The pathognomonic finding is a diffuse effacement of the foot processes of podocytes found
- 136
- on electron microscopy Light microscopy shows normal glomeruh and immunofluorescence fails
- to reveal any immunoglobulin or complement deposits. Renal function is also norma[ An
- important feature of this condition is its rapid response to corticosteroid therapy.
- Acute renal allograft rejection can be an anhbodymediated or cell-mediated pcocess The latter of
- the two is associated with lymphocytic infiltration of the renal parenchyrna
- Anti-CD3 antibodies such as muromonab-CD3 (OKT3) inhibit T-lyrnphocytes. which is useful
- in the treatment of acute rejection in patients with kidney, heart, and liver transplants.
- Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder typically presents as gross hematuna m an elderly
- man, A history of smoking or occupational exposure to rubber, plastics, aromatic amine-
- containing dyes, textiles, or leather increases the nsk of developing transitional cell carcinoma.
- NephntiC syndrome is manifested by hypertenson. mild proteinuna (<1 g/day), RBC casts or
- dysmorphic red cells in the urine, and azotemia. In contrast, the nephrotic syndrome is
- manifested by heavy proteinuria (>3.5 glday), lipiduria, absence of RBC casts in the urine, and
- usua*y normal renal function.
- Painless hematuna 2-3 days following an upper respiratory tract infection is suggestive of IgA
- nephropathy (Berger disease). Diagnosis is made via the detection of IgA deposits in the
- mesangium of glomerub on immunofluorescence microscopy. When IgA nephropathy is
- accompanied by extrarenal symptoms (e.g., abdominal pain, purpuric skin lesions), the diagnosis
- is Henoc h-Sc honlein purpura.
- ADPKD is one of the most common inherited disorders in humans It is the most frequent genetic
- cause of renal failure in adults, accounting for 10% of patients on dialysis in the United States Its
- mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant (ADult PKDAD).
- Hemolybc-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a common cause of acute renal failure ii children k is
- associated with shiga toxin-producing organisms like E cok0157:H7 and Shigeffa dysentenàe
- HUS is characterized by the triad of acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and
- thrombocytopenia
- Medullary sponge kidney (MSK) is a relatively common and benign congenital disorder
- characterized by cystic dilatations of the medullary collecting ducts Cysts usually do not involve
- the renal cortex Kidney stones are the most common complication of the disease Patients with
- MSK do not typically develop chronic renal failure
- Microalbuminuna detection is the preferred method for diagnosing incipient diabetic
- nephropathy, the leading cause of end stage renal disease in the United States
- Easy fatigabihty. constipation, back pain, and azotemia in an elderly patient are the classic
- constellation of findings for multiple myeloma. On kidney biopsy, large eosinophilic casts
- composed of Bence-Jones proteins are seen in the tubular lumens.
- 137
- Ethylene glycol ingestion leads to acute renal fadure due to the precipitation of calcium oxalate
- crystals in renal tubules and subsequent damage to tubular epthehum Typical clinical findings
- include anion gap metabolic acidosis, increased osmolar gap. and presence of calcium oxalate
- crystals in urine
- Although nephrotic syndrome can result from a number of different disease processes, the
- pathogenesis underlying its symptoms is consistent in the vast majority of patients This process
- involves increased permeability of the glomerular capillary wall to plasma proteins, decreased
- plasma oncotic pressure of the blood, fluid shift into the interstitium, increased aldosterone
- synthesis, and increased antidiuretic hormone release, with resultant sodium and water retention,
- hypertipidemia. and subsequent lipiduria
- Most renal cell carcinomas (also known as clear ccl carcinomas) originate from the epithelial
- cells of the proximal renal tubules Clear cell carcinoma is the most common type of kidney
- tumor. it is easily recognizable on both macroscopic and microscopic examination due to its high
- lipid content On gross examination, this tumor appears as a golden yellow mass. On light
- microscopic examination, these tumors are composed of cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and
- eccentnc nuclei.
- Laboratory findings in poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis include: elevated anti-streptolysin 0
- (ASO) titers, elevated anti-DNase B titers, decreased C3 and total complement levels, and the
- presence of cryoglobulins C4 level is usually normal.
- The selective protenuna (loss of albumin only) of minimal change disease is currently explained
- by a loss of negatively charged components in the glomerular basement membrane The loss of
- negative particles destroys the negative-negative repulsion between the GBM and albumin.
- Diabetic nephropathy starts with glomerular hyperfiltration and leads to an increase m mesangial
- matrix and thickening of GBM, Diabetes affects glomeruh and the arterioles, The classic
- morphologic features of diabetic nephropathy inchide nodular glomerulosclerosis (i.e. K-W
- nodules), diffuse glomeruloscierosis, and hyaline artenolosclerosis. ACE inhibitors and ARBs
- can prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
- The electron-dense deposits on the epithehal side of the glomerular basement membrane
- (subepithehal humps) seen in patients with poststreptococcal glomerulonephnt3s represent
- immune complexes composed of lgG, 1gM and C3.
- 138
- PATHOLOGY-Reproductive
- Anovulation is common during the first five to seven years after menarche and the last ten years
- before menopause, and manifests with marked menstrual cycle vanabihty
- Granulosa cell tumors are sex-cord strornal tumors that secrete estrogen.
- Prolactinomas are the most common pfluitary adenomas The excess prolactin produced by these
- tumors can cause galactorrhea and amenorrhea Visual changes may also occur due to
- compression of the optic chiasm
- CenAcal epitheliahnfection with human papilloma virus (HPV), especially HPV 16 and HPV 18.
- is the strongest known risk factor for development of CIN and invasive cervical carcinoma Early
- age at first intercourse and multipe sexual partners increase the incidence of HPV infection.
- A uniformly enlarged uterus with normal appearing endometrial tissue within the myometrium
- indicates a diagnosis of adenomyosis Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea are common presenting
- syrnptoms
- PCOS is clinicaHy charactenzed by obesity, hyperandrogenism, ohgomenorrhea, nfertility, and
- enlarged ovanes with multiple cysts
- Patients with PCOS who desire fertility are treated with clomiphene. which is an estrogen
- receptor modulator that decreases negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus by
- circulating estrogen and thereby increases gonadotropin production.
- Granulosa cell tumors are estrogen-secreting primary ovarian tumors. The hyperestrogenemic
- state that results can cause endometnal hyperplasia and abnormal uterine bIeeding it also
- predisposes to endometrial adenoc arc inoma
- Pre-eclampsia is the triad of hypertension. proteinuria and edema. Eclampsia is pre-eclampsia
- with seizures Pre-eclampsia may also progress to HELIP syndrome (Hemolytic anemia, Elevated
- Liver enzymes, and Low PlateletS).
- Ovarian malignancy is the most likely explanation for an adnexal mass in an elderly female
- Approximately 90% of ovarian malignancies originate from the ovars surface epithehum CA-125
- is produced by malignant ovarian epithelial tumors and can be used as a serum marker of this
- condition.
- Comedocarcinoma (DCIS) is characterized by solid sheets of pleomorphic, high-grade cells with
- central necrosis
- A positive ‘whifr test — production of a fishy odor on addition of potassium hydroxide (KOH)
- to vaginal discharge — is a sign of bacterial vaginosis. Clue cells on saline wet mount
- microscopy also suggest this diagnosis.
- 139
- PATHOLOGY-Skeletal
- Pathologic atrophy generally occurs secondary to one of the following mechanisms: decreased
- physical workload, loss of innervation, decreased blood supply, inadequate nutrition, absent
- endocrine stimulation aging, or pressure
- Enthesopathies (inflammation at sites of tendon insertion) are common in ankyosing spondyhtis
- Involvement of the costovertebral and costosternal junctions may cause Iimation of chest
- movements, resulting in hypoventilation.
- Osteogenesis imperfecta results from defective synthesis of type 1 collagen. Clinical findings
- include a history of fractures after only minimal trauma abnormal (blue) sclerae, and small,
- malformed teeth. In most patients, osteogenesis imperfecta is transmitted by autosomal dominant
- inheritance
- • The most common defect in achondroplasia is an activating mutation of the fibroblast growth
- factor receptor-3 at the epiphyseal growth plate which inhibits growth at the epiphyseal growth
- plate. The result is short, thick tubular long bones in the appendicular (limb) skeleton and normal
- axial (spine) length
- • Short stature in growth hormone I IGF-1 deficiency is proportional; that is, the axial and
- appendicular skeleton are proportionate
- Parvoviws B 19 causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) in children and arthritis in adults
- Parvovirus arthritis can mimic rheumatoid arthritis, but is unique in that it is usually self
- resoMng
- In the United States. vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) is most often seen in severely malnourished
- individuals (the homeless, alcoholics, drug users). Vitamin C is necessary for the hydroxylation
- of proline and lysine residues in pro-collagen. Patients with vitamin C deficiency demonstrate
- perifollicular hemorrhages. easy bruising and gum disease. Additionally, in children, bony
- deformities and subperiosteal hemorrhages are characteristic.
- Severe injury to living tissue can cause necrosis. There are several morphologic types of
- necrosis. Coagulative necrosis is the most common
- Osteoarthrrtis usually involves the distal interphalangeal joints whereas rheumatoid arthntis
- typically affects the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints
- Fibromyalgia is a chronic disorder with unclear etiology that presents most commonly in women
- 20 to 50 years of age with diffuse musculoskeletal pain, insomnia and emotional disturbances
- During wound heahng, excessive matrix metalloproteinase activity and myotibroblast
- accumulation in the wound margins can result in contracture Contractures produce deformities of
- the wound and surrounding tissues, most often on the palms. soles. anterior thorax, or at serious
- bum sites.
- 140
- Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a neuromuscular disorder presenting wfth
- proximal muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, and autonomic symptoms Approximately
- half of all patients with LEMS also have a malignancy (classically, small-cell lung cancer)
- • Metaphysis of long bones are typic ally affected by hernatogenous osteomyehtis due to rich
- vascularization and capdlary fenestrae
- • Staphylococcus aureus and Strtococcuspyogenes(Group A Strep) are the first and second most
- common causes of this disease, respectively, and hematogenous osteomyelitis most frequently
- affects children and young adults
- • Pseudomonas aeiz.çzinosa frequently plays a role in osteomyelitts resulting from chronic
- wounds such as in diabetics
- Digital clubbing is often associated w4h prolonged hypoxia It can be found m patients with
- large-cell lung cancer, tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis, and suppurative lung diseases such as
- empyema, bioncheectasis. and chronic lung abscesses.
- Osteoporosis (porous bones) represents loss of “total bone mass” that results in trabecular
- thinning. Subperiosteal resorption with cystic degeneration is characteristic of
- hyperparathyroidism Vitamin D deficiency result in “excessive unmineralized osteoid. resulting
- in low mineral densy. Osteopetrosis is characterized by “the persistence of pnmary,
- unminerahzed spongiosa in the medullary canals.”
- Dactyhtis (painful swelling of hands and feet) is a common presentation of sickle cel disease in
- young children. It is one of many vasoocclusive symptoms that occur in this condition In the
- case of hemolysis, haptoglobin levels decrease by binding to free hemoglobin, and the complex
- is hepatically cleared
- Gottron papules are flat-topped violaceous papules over the joints of the fingers This cutaneous
- symptom, along with a heliotrope rash. is characteristic for dermatomyositis
- Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is associated with sickle cell disease, steroid therapy,
- SLE and alcoholism. It presents with acute onset of hip pain that is exacerbated by weight
- bearing. No swelling, erythema or temperature change is seen. MRI is the diagnostic modality of
- choice.
- Presbyopia and skin wrinkles are age-related changes. Presbyopia occurs due to sclerosis of the
- lens Decreased synthesis and increased breakdown of collagen and elastin contnbute into
- development of skin wrinkles
- CREST syndrome (limited scleroderma) manifests with calcinosis. Raynaud’s phenomenon,
- esophageal dysmotility, scierodactyly and telangiectasias. Anti-centromere antibodies are found
- in about 40% of patients with CREST syndrome. Anti-DNA topoisomerase I (Scl-70) antibodies
- are highly specific for systemic sclerosis.
- 141
- The presence of rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals is diagnostic of pseudogout
- These crystals are positively birefringent under polarized light The knee joint is involved in more
- than 50% of cases.
- The histological hallmark of rickets is an increase in unminerahzed osteoid matrix and widened
- osteoid seams. Clinically, there are many notable features. including bowed legs, a rachitic
- rosary, Harrison’s sulci, craniotabes, and growth retardation.
- A psoas abscess can occur as the result of hernatogenous or lymphatic seeding from a distant site
- or by spread from an adjacent site. Patients can present with fever, back or flank pain, inguinal
- mass, and difficulty walking Inflammation of the psoas muscle causes pain when the hip is
- extended (psoas sign)
- Dystonia is a syndrome of prolonged. repetitive muscle contractions This condition may be the
- result of impaired function of the basal gangha Cervical dystonia (spasmodic torticollis),
- blepharospasm, and writer’s cramp are the most common types of focal dystonia
- Hypercalcernia in sarcoidosis is caused by increased extrarenal formation of 1 25-dihydroxy
- vitamw D by activated macrophages The hypercakemia of sarcosdosas suppresses PTH secretion
- Reactive arthritis is an HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathy that can occur following infection by
- Chiamydia. Campylobacter, Salmonella. Shigella or Yersinia. It is an asymmetric large joint
- arthritis with sterile synovial fluid on joint aspiration.
- Gout results from the deposition of monosodium urate, not uric acid, in the joints and soft
- tissues. Under polarized light, monosodium urate crystals appear needle-shaped and negatively
- birefringent The subcutaneous deposition of monosodium urate leads to the formation of tophi
- Shaken baby syndrome is the combination of subdural hematoma with bilateral retinal
- hemorrhages in an infant Any suspicion of child abuse should be reported to state protective
- agencies
- 142
- PATHOLOGY-Vascular
- Marked, one-sided kidney atrophy is suggestive of renal artery stenosas (RAS) It occurs in
- elderty individuals due to atherosclerotic changes in the artenal intima or in women of
- chddbeanng age due to fibromuscular dysplasia Hypertension and an abdominal bruit are present
- Familial hypercholesterolemia. one of the most common autosomal dominant disorders, is the
- result of heterozygous or homozygous LDL receptor gene mutations, which cause hepatocyte
- under-expression of functional LDL receptors. This condition can lead to accelerated
- atherosclerosis and early-onset coronary artery disease.
- Intermittent muscle pain reproducibly caused by exercise and relieved by a brief period of rest
- defines claudication, Claudication is almost always the result of atherosclerosis of larger, named
- arteries The obstruction of blood flow in these arteries is the result of fixed stenohc lesions
- produced by atheromas, which are lipid-filled intimal plaques that bulge into the artenal lumen
- The stenoses prevent sufficient increases in blood flow to exercising muscles, resulting in
- ischemic muscle pain.
- Hyperplastic arteholosclerosis in renal arterioles can result from and perpetuate malignant
- hypertension The pathological lesion is an onion-like concentnc thickening of artenolar walls in
- the renal vasculature and elsewhere.
- Severe retrosternal pain that radiates to the back is the classic presentation of an aortic dissection
- An intimal tear is thought to be the initiating process in a dissecting aortic aneurysm. The
- dissection can extend through the media along the aorta, both proximally and distally The
- intramural hematoma dissects through the media and can compress major arterial branches.
- Unilateral renal artery stenosis is a cause of secondary hypertension in two to five percent of
- hypertensive patients The kidney affected by the stenosis may become atrophied due to oxygen
- and nutrient deprivation.
- Small vessel leukocytoclastic angiltis associated with IgA and C3 deposition is typical of HSR
- HSP is most common in children 3 to 11 years old and is most often related to a recent infection
- Most children present with palpable skin lesions, with or without abdominal pain and arthralgias
- Although usually self-limiting, patients afflicted with HSP should be observed carefully because
- glomerulonephritis and even end-stage renal disease are possible complications.
- Takayasu arteritis and temporal arterdis involve artenal vessels of different sizes and locations
- (aorta and proximal aortic arterial branch involvement versus more distal carotid artery branch
- involvement, respectively), and have different clinical presentations Even so. they may share a
- common pathologic morphology, consisting of granulomatous inflammation of the media.
- Xanthelasmas. a type of xarithoma. are yellowish maculeslpapules found on the medial eyelids.
- They are dermal accumulations of macrophages containing cholesterol and triglycerides, and are
- generally associated with a primary or secondary hypeilipidemia or dyslipidemia An LDL
- receptor abnormality is the most common cause.
- 143
- Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease) is usually seen among heavy cigarette smokers
- with onset before age 35, and is associated with hypersensitivity to intradermal injections of
- tobacco extracts This segmental thrombosing vasculitis often extends into contiguous veins and
- nerves, encasing them in fibrous tissue.
- GCAis characterized by granulomatous inflammation of the media, with fragmentation of the
- internal elastic lamina of medium and small branches of the carotid artery. GCA is most common
- in patients older than 50. and jaw claudication is the most specific symptom. Irreversible
- blindness due to ophthalmic artery occlusion is a severe complication of GCA, and can be
- prevented by immediate prednisone therapy.
- Patients with adult-type coarctation of the aorta commonly die of hypertension-associated
- complications, including left ventricular failure, ruptured dissecting aortic aneurysm, and
- intracranial hemorrhage. These patients are at increased risk for ruptured intracranial aneurysms
- because of the increased incidence of congenital berry aneurysms of the Circle of Willis as well
- as aortic arch hypertension
- Hepatic angiosarcoma is associated with exposure to carcinogens such as arsenic, thorotrast, and
- polyvinyl chloride Tumor cells express CD 31, an endothelial cell marker
- Abdominal pain due to acute pancreatitis is the most likely presentation for
- hyperchylomicronemia (hypertriglyceridemia). Patients with this disorder are not usually at
- increased risk for premature coronary artery disease. Skin xanthomas may be present in
- hypertriglyceridemia. but tubular/tendon xanthomas and xanthelasmas are present with
- hypercholesterolemia (high LDL).
- Cutaneous, strawberry4ype capillary hemangiomas are common. benign, congenital tumors,
- which are composed of unencapsulated aggregates of closely packed, thin-walled capillanes
- Initially, strawberry hemangiomas grow in proportion to the growth of the child, before
- eventually regressing In 75-95% of cases, the vascular tumor will regress completely by age 7
- Cherry hemangiomas are small. red. cutaneous papules common in aging adults They do not
- regress spontaneously and typically increase in number with age Light microscopy of these
- lesions shows piohferabon of capillanes and post-capdlary venules in the papillary dermis
- The malor cause of AAA is atherosclerosis Atherosclerotic atheromas can sufficiently progress
- to weaken the underlying media of the aortic wall.
- Asnificantrnrnatched defect on ventilation-perfusion scan is a specific finding for a pulmonary
- embolism, which is usually the result of a deep vein thrombosis and part of a continuum of the
- same disease known as pulmonary thromboembolism.
- A benign glomus tumor (glomangioma) can produce a very tender, small (a few millimeters in
- diameter); red-blue lesion under the nail bed. This type of tumor onginates from the modified
- smooth muscle cells that control the thermoregulatory functions of dermal glomus bodies.
- 144
- ChurgStrauss syndrome is an idiopathic systemic vasculitis associated with adult-onset asthma,
- eosinophilia, and p-ANCA. Additional clinical criteria for this diagnosis include a history of
- allergy, mono- or polyneuropathy, migratory/transient pulmonary infiltrates, and paranasal sinus
- abnormalities.
- Persistent lymphederna (with chronic dilatation of lymphatic channels) predisposes to the
- development of lymphangiosarcoma. a rare malignant neoplasrn of the endothekal lining of
- lymphatic channels This cancer may arise approximately 10 years after radical mastectomy with
- axiflary lymph node dissection for breast cancer
- Myxomatous changes in the media ol large arteries are found m cystic medial degeneration.
- which predisposes to the development of aortic dissechons and aortk aneurysms Medial
- degeneration is frequently seen in younger individuals with Marfan syndrome.
- Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome (hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia) is an autosomal dominant
- condition marked by the presence of telangiectasias in the skin as well as the mucous membranes
- of the lips, oronasopharynx, respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and urinary tract Rupture of
- these telangiectasias may cause epistaxis, gastrointestinal bleeding, or hematuria
- Incompetent venous valves in the lower extremities allow retrograde blood flow from deep to
- superficial veins. This increases the pressure in the superficial veins, leading to their dilation
- (vancose veins). The resulting chronic venous insufficiency causes stasis dermatitis, which
- manifests as erythema and scaling with progressive dermal fibrosis and hyperpgmentation.
- PAN is segmental. transmural. necrotizing inflammation of medium- to small-sized arteries
- Renal artery involvement is often prominent Vessels of the kidneys, heart liver, and
- gastrointestinal tract are most commonly involved in resulting ischemia, infarction, or
- hemorrhage Cutaneous manifestations occur in up to one-third of patients, and include palpable
- purpura The lung is very rarely involved
- Strawberry hemangiomas (capillary hernangiomas) are benign vascular tumors of childhood
- They appear during the first weeks of life, initially grow rapidly, and typically regress by 5-8
- years old These tumors are composed of capillaries separated by connective tissue
- Homogeneous deposition of eosinophilic hyahne material in the intima and media of small
- arteries and arterioles characterizes hyaline artenoloscierosis, which is typically produced by
- long-standing nonmalignant hypertension and/or diabetes
- Fatty streaks are the earliest lesion of atherosclerosis and are present in all individuals after age
- 10. They are composed of intimal, lipid-filled foam cells, derived from macrophages and SMC
- that have engulfed lipoproteins Although some fatty streaks may progress to full-fledged
- atherosclerotic plaques later in life, in general their occurrence and location in a child do not
- predict the occurrence or location of atheromatous plaques later in life.
- 145
- Pulmonary embolism is common in hospitalized patients. Large emboli lodge in the pulmonary
- artery bifurcation. Smaller emboh occlude the peripheral branches of the pulmonary artery,
- producing wedge-shaped, red Themorrhagic” infarcts This condition is precipitated by
- hypercoagulability and can be prevented by the anticoagulant heparin
- A paraneoplastic syndrome of hypercoagulability may be seen in some patients with cancer,
- especially adenocarcinomas of the pancreas, colon, or lung Superficial venous thromboses may
- thus appear in one site and then resolve, only to recur in another site, producing “Trousseau’s
- syndrome.” or migratory superficial thrombophlebitis—an indication of visceral cancer.
- Temporal (giant cell) arteritis is characterized by granulomatous inflammation of the media, and
- is the most common form of systemic vascuhtis in adults It predominantly involves medium to
- smaller branches of the carotid artery, especially the temporal artenes, The resulting headache,
- facial pain, jaw claudication, and visual deterioration generally respond well to glucocorticoid
- therapy.
- Hypertension is the single most important nsk factor for the development of intimal tears leading
- to aortic dissections. In addition to hypertension, smoking, diabetes, and hypercholesterole.ma
- are all major nsk factors for atheroscleios,s, which predisposes to aortsc aneurysm formahon
- more than to aortic dissection.
- Necrotizing vasculitis of the upper and lower respiratory tract (causing nasal ulcerations,
- sinusitis, hemoptysis) and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis—producing a variable degree
- of renal failure—is characteristic of granulomatosis with polyangutis (Wegeners) This disease is
- associated with C-ANCAs,
- Necrotizing vasculitis of the upper and lower respiratory tract (causing nasal ulcerations,
- sinusitis, hemoptysis) and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis—producing a variable degree
- of renal failure—is characteristic of granulomatosis with polyangiltis (Weqener’s). This disease
- is associated with C-ANCAs, which may target neutrophil proteinase 3.
- Among the arterthdes. transmural inflammation with fibhnOid necrosis is most characteristic of
- PAN Fever. malaise, weight loss, abdominal pain, and melena are frequent symptoms of PAN.
- PAN is associated with hepatitis B infection in 10 to 30% of cases
- Varicose veins are dilated. tortuous veins resulting from prolonged increases in intraluminal
- pressure and loss of vessel wall tensile strength Incompetent venous valves, venous
- stasis/congestion, edema, and an increased incidence of superficiaI venous thrombosis may result
- However, thromboembolism is a very infrequent complication of vancose veins Venous stasis
- ulcers are very common and often occur over the medial malleolus
- Tertiary syphilis can result in thoracic aortic aneurysm. It the aneurysm compress adjacent
- structures and dilates the aortic valve ring, a murmur and mediastinal widening might be present,
- as in this pabent. The pathogenesis of such an aneurysm begins with vasa vasorum endarteritis
- and obhteration, resufting in inflammation, ischemia, and weakening of the aortic adventitia.
- FTA.-ABS is a test specific for syphilis.
- 146
- PATHOPHYSIOLOGY-Cardiology+Renal
- The major determinant of the ratio of forward4o-regurgitant left ventricular (LV) output in
- patients with mitral regurgitation (MR) is LV afterload. An increase in steady state LV afterload
- tends to decrease this ratio. An increase in steady state LV end diastolic volume may contribute
- to or worsen MR.
- Decreased cardiac output triggers a number of compensatory mechanisms. Renin-angiotensin-
- aldosterone activation and increased sympathetic output raise arterial resistance (aftertoad) and
- exacerbate heart failure by making it more difficult for the failing heart to pump blood to the
- tissues.
- Pulsus paradoxus is defined by a decrease in systolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg
- with inspiration, and occurs in the setting of acute cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis,
- severe obstructive lung disease, and restrictive cardiomyopathy.
- Pulsus paradoxus can occur in the setting of severe obstructive pulmonary disease such as
- asthma Beta-adrenergc agonists control acute asthma exacerbations by causing bronchial smooth
- muscle relaxation via increased intracellular cAMP
- In patients with chronic aortic stenosis (AS) and concentric left ventricular hypertrophy:
- 1 The loss of the contribution of atnal contraction to ventricular tilling that occurs with acute
- atrial fibrillation (AF) can reduce left ventricular peload and cardiac output sufficiently to result
- in dangerous systemic hypotension, and
- 2. Acute AF might also increase steady state pulmonary Venous pressures sufficiently to cause
- acute pulmonary edema.
- Collateral microvessels form adjacent pathways for blood flow to areas distal to an occluded
- vessel Adenosine and dipyridamole are selective vasoddators of coronary vessels that can cause
- coronary steal, a phenomenon in whsch blood flow m ischemic areas is reduced due to artenolar
- vasodilabon in nonischemic areas Coronary steal can lead to hypoperfusion and worsening of
- existing ischemia
- Loss of cardiomyocyte contractility occurs within 60 seconds after the onset of total ischemia.
- When
- ischernia lasts less than 30 minutes, restoration of blood flow leads to reversible contractile
- dysfunction
- (myocardial stunning), with contractility gradually returning to normal over the next several
- hours to days
- However, after about 30 minutes of total ischemia, ischemic injury becomes irreversible.
- Under normal circumstances, the right ventñcular (RV) thickness is between 3-4mm during
- diastole, significantly thinner than the left ventricular wall thickness (1 cm). RVH is a feature of
- cor pumonale. a condition caused by pulmonary hypertension resulling from disease of the lung
- parenchyma or the pulmonary vasculature. In young females between the ages of 20 and 40.
- primary pulmonary hypertension may be responsible for cor pulmonale.
- 147
- The abnormally large (wide) pulse pressure caused by aortic regurgitation (AR) is responsible
- for many of the symptoms and signs of AR
- An abnormally prominent (regurgitant) left atrial v wave during cardiac catheterization is a
- major hemodynamic finding indicative of mitral regurgitation.
- Diastolic heart failure is characterized by a decrease in ventricular diastolic compliance but
- normal ventricular contractile performance As a result, LVEDP must be increased En order to
- achieve a normal LVEDV and stroke volume Systolic heart failure results from a decrease ii
- ventricular contractile performance (decreased ejection fraction) and requires an increase in both
- LVEDP and LVEDV to imp1ove stroke volume
- Heart failure due to left ventricular (LV) diastolic dysfunction is the result of a decrease in
- diastolic LV compliance. Restrictive cardiomyopathy, as can be caused by amyloidosis, may
- cause diastolic dysfunction. Infectious myocarditis and cardiotoxic agents inckiding alcohol and
- doxorubicin tend to produce a dilated
- The renal hypoperfusion characteristic of renal artery stenosis activates the renin-angiotensin-
- aldosterone system. The hypertrophied smooth muscle cells of the afferent and efferent
- glornerular arterioles synthesize renin, which increases angiotensin Il-mediated vasoconstnction
- and aldosterone- mediated sodium and water retention
- A presystohc sound on cardiac auscultation that immediately precedes Si is most often an S4
- gallop An S4 requires normal atrial contraction and results from rapid emptying of atnal blood
- Into a ventricle with reduced compliance (stiff ventncle).
- On jugular venous pressure tracings. the first peak is the a wave. which is generated by atrial
- contraction This is notably absent in patients with atnal fibrillatIon.
- Calcthcation and thickening of the pencardium > 4 mm are common features of constrictive
- pencarditis on CT Clinical findings include slowty pogressrve dyspnea, peripheral edema, and
- ascites
- In the kidney, angiotensin II preferentially constricts the efferent arteriole, thereby maintaining
- the GFR ACE-inhibitors promote efferent arteriolar dilation, causing GFR reductions.
- Paradoxical thromboembolism occurs when a blood clot from the venous system crosses directly
- into the arterial circulation via an abnormal connection between right arid left cardiac chambers,
- such as an ASD or ventricular septal defect, Auscultatory findings in an ASD include a wide and
- fixed sphtting of S2. Additional associations between auscultatory findings and cardiac lesions
- are as follows
- 1 Systolic ejection murmur accentuated by standing hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
- 2. Early diastolic decrescendo murmur decreased by amyl nitrite: aortic regurgitation
- 3. Late diastolic murmur eliminated by atnal fibrillation: mitral (and/or tricuspid) stenosis
- 148
- Brain Natnuretic Peptide (BNP) is elevated in patients with heart failure and is often used as a
- laboratory test in the clinical setting to determine a patient is siifering from a CHF exacerbation
- It is released by the ventncles when they are stretched as they often are in CHF from systolic
- dysfunction ft acts along with ANP to cause vasodilatation (decreased preload) and diuresis Both
- ANP and BNP activate guanytate cyclase. which induces an increase of intracellular cycbc GMP
- The murmur of AR is a diastolic decrescendo murmur, heard loudest in early diastole when the
- pressure gradient between the aorta and the left ventncle is maximal The murmur of AR is
- typically best heard at the left sternal border, with the patient leaning forward and at end
- expirahon
- In patients with TOF, the degree of RV outflow tract obstruction is the major determinant of the
- degree of nght4o-Ieft intracardiac shunting, and thus of hypoxemEc symptom severity.
- Left ventricular dysfunction can lead to increased pulmonary arterial pressure due to reactive
- vasoconstriction secondary to pulmonary venous congestion. Reactive changes in the pulmonary
- vasculature (e.g., endothelial dysfunction resulting in further vasoconstriction) also contribute to
- pulmonary hypertension
- Cardiac (or pencardial) tamporiade presents clinically with hypotension, tachycardia, and an
- elevated central venous pressure that produces jugular venous distension (JVD). Heart sounds
- may be muffled on cardiac auscultation and systolic blood pressure may drop more than 1
- OmmHg on wispiration (pulsus paradoxus).
- In a patient with mitral regurgitation (MR). the most reliable auscultatory finding indicating a
- high regurgitant volume (severe MR) and left ventricular volume overload is a left sided S3
- gallop Intensity of a holosystolic murmur due to MR may not correlate well with regurgitant
- volume A left sided S4 would suggest end stage decompensation of severe MR to left ventncular
- failure, however, many patients with severe MR may not have developed left heart failure
- Isolated mitral stenosis (MS) elevates the left atrial end diastolic pressure and can therefore cause
- an elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP), pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary
- vascular sclerosis and decreased compliance, nght venincular dilatation, and functional tncuspid
- regurgitation Note that in patients with isolated MS, PCWP does not reflect the left ventricular
- end diastolic pressure, which may be normal.
- Acute hemodynamic changes can produce functional heart murmurs, in the absence of any fixed
- valve lesion Dilatation of the left venincle in response to increased preload can result in
- functional mitral regurgitation, which can be eliminated by preload reduchon and reduced by
- afterload reduction
- Aortic stenosis (AS) may cause exertional syncope The murmur of AS is a systolic ejection-type,
- crescendo-decrescendo murmur that starts after the first heart sound and typically ends before the
- A2 component of the second heart sound. The intensity of the AS murmur is proportional to the
- magnitude of the left ventricle-to-aorta pressure gradient during systole.
- 149
- An accessory AV conduction pathway (Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome) can manifest
- clinically as recurrent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia in an otherwise healthy
- individua[ The baseline ECG generally shows a triad of abnormalities corresponding to
- ventricular pre-excitation: a shortened PR-interval, a delta wave at the start of the QRS complex.
- and a widened QRS intervaL
- Wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound is a characteristic auscultatory finding in patients
- with ASD A hemodynamically significant ASD can produce chronic pulmonary hypertension as
- a result of left-to-right intracardiac shunting Eisenmenger syndrome is the late-onset reversal of a
- left-to-right shunt due to pulmonary vascular sclerosis resulting from chronic pulmonary
- hypertension. Closure of the ASD may be required to prevent irreversible pulmonary vascular
- sclerosis and a permanent Eisenmenger syndrome
- The major long-term hemodynamic compensatory response to the volume overload of aortic
- regurgitation includes an increase in left ventncular preload (LV end-diastohc volume) in
- association with eccentric left ventricular hypeitrophy
- A significant increase in blood oxygen saturation between 2 nght-sided vessels or chambers
- indicates the presence of a left-to-right shunt. If such an oxygen step-up occurs between the right
- atrium and right ventricle, a ventricular septal defect (VSD) is most likely responsible VSD is the
- most common congenital heart disease, and a small VSD produces a holosystohc murmur that is
- loudest over the left mid-sternal border.
- The triad of muffled heart sounds. elevated jugular venous pressure. and profound hypotension
- indicates pericardial tamponade Rupture of the ventricular free wall as a consequence of an acute
- transmural Ml can cause tamponade Rupture usually occurs 3 to 7 days after the onset of total
- ischemia, when coagulative necrosis, neutrophil infiftration, and enzymatic lysas of connective
- tissue have sufficiently weakened the infarcted myocardium.
- In patients with TOF. squatting increases SVR and decreases right-to-’eft shunting, thereby
- increasing pulmonary blood flow Squatting thus counteracts arterial desaturation during
- hypoxemic speIIs
- Patients with mitral stenosis due to abnormal mitral valves may have an opening snap in early
- diastole shortty after the aortic component of the second heart sound (A2) The opening snap
- occurs shortly after the mitral valve opens.
- Patients with acute mitral regurgitation have near-normal left atrial (LA) compliance. Therefore,
- they tend to develop marked pulmonary hypertension and pulmonary edema Patients with
- chronic mitral regurgitation acquire an adaptive increase in LA volume and compliance Thus,
- they are less prone to pulmonary hypertension/edema but are more prone to atrial fibrillation and
- mural thromboembolism
- 1. Both ventricular hypertrophy and volume overload cause release of both ANP and BNP from
- the ventricular myocytes to facilitate natriuresis and diuresis
- 2. Reperfusion injury is thought to result from generation of oxygen-free radicals.
- 150
- • A persistent or repetitive low flow state causes myocardial hibernation that can be reversed by
- reperfusion. Myocardial stunning is a less severe form of ischemia-induced reversible loss of
- contractile function
- • Repetitive stunning can result in hibernation lschemic preconditioning is the development of
- resistance to infarction by cardiac myocytes previously exposed to repetitive non-lethal ischemia.
- • Ventricular remodeling involves chronic changes in mass, volume, shape, and myocyte
- composition of the heart, to compensate for an increased hemodynamic load.
- The best, most reliable, and most continuous auscultatory indicator of the severity of mitral
- stenosis is the A2-OS interval The shorter this interval, the more severe the stenosis Other
- auscultatory findings that may accompany MS include a diastolic rumble (intensity vanes
- depending on patient anatomy) and pre-systohc accentuation due to left atnal contraction. A
- nght-sided S3 andlor S4 might anse with end-stage MS critical enough to produce severe
- pulmonary hypertension.
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- Pathophysiology-Endcrine+Vascular+Neuro
- Glucagon increases serum glucose by increased production of glucose from the liver Glucagon
- stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas However, patients with type 1 diabetes rarely have
- significant residual beta cells. Unlike epinephnne. glucagon has an insignificant effect on skeetal
- muscle cells and adipocytes
- Reduced gallbladder contractility. due to decreased cholecystokinin secretion, is responsible for
- biliary stones in patients with somatostatinoma.
- Most patients with diabetic ketoacidosis have normal to increased serum potassium levels despite
- low intracellular potassium. Replacement of potassium is a crucial step in management of
- patients with diabetic ketoacidosis.
- Atherosclerosis is inthated by repetitive endothelial cell injury, which leads to a chronic
- inflammatory state in the underlying intima of large elastic artenes as well as large and medium-
- size muscular arteries
- Hypothyroidism is a common cause of an elevated creahne kinase level due to hypothyroid
- myopathy
- Sometimes. it can be the first manifestation of hypothyroidism. Other common causes of
- elevated creatine
- kinase include medicahons such as HMG Co-A reductase inhibitors (stahns), autoimmune
- disease
- (polymyositis/dermatomyositis), and muscular dystrophies (Duchenne muscular dystrophy).
- One-aipha-hydroxylation transforms calcidiol to calcithol in the renal tubules In chronic kidney
- disease, the conversion of 25-hydroxy vitamin D to I ,25-dihydroxy vitamin D is impaired,
- leading to decreased circulating levels of I ,25-dihydroxy vitamin D. Low levels of the active
- form of vitamin D cause an increase in circulating PTH, called “secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Note that 24,25-dihydrocholecalcderol is an inactive substance
- DUnrig a water deprivation test. most patients with primary polydipsia will demonstrate a
- significant increase in urine osmolality. Additionally, patients with primary polydipsia will have
- low serum sodium levels and osmolality. Restriction of water intake normahzes unne output in
- patients with primary polydipsia
- Increase in levels of thyroid binding globulin lead to increase wi circulating total T4 and total T3
- However, the level of free thyroid hormone is normal. Increase in TBG is typically seen m
- pregnancy, with use of oral contraceptives, or with hormone replacement therapy
- Sertoli cells maintain spermatogenesis. release inhibin, and secrete Mullerian inhibiting factor
- during male embryogenesis. Inhibin provides negative feedback on FSH secretion by the anterior
- pituitary
- 152
- I 7ahydroxyiase deficiency impairs the synthesis of androgens. estrogens. arid cortisol but does
- not inhibit mineralocorticoid production Boys appear phenotypically female at birth, but gills
- develop normal genitalia Patients typically present with hypogonadism, hypertension, and
- hypokalemia
- Frothy or foamy urine may be caused by proteinuna Heavy proteinuria, as in nephrotic
- syndrome, can cause regional or generalized interstitial edema because the decrease in serum
- albumin and total protein concentrations lowers the plasma oncotic pressure and increases net
- plasma filtration in capillary beds
- Acetyicholine release from presynaptic terminal vesicles at the neuromuscular junction depends
- upon the influx of extracellular calcium into the presynaptic terminal. Calcium influx into the
- nerve terminal occurs following neuronal depolarization and opening of voftage-gated calcium
- channels
- The syndrome of inappropnate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SLADH) is characterized by low
- plasma sodium and osmolality. inappropriately concentrated unne, increased unnary sodium, and
- clinically normal body fluid volume An important cause of SIADH is a paraneoplastic effect
- secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.
- Adrenal adenoma and carcinoma will have low levels of ACTh in combination with the clinical
- features of Cushing syndrome ACTH levels are elevated in pituitary adenomas, and are
- suppressed by high-dose, but not low-dose, dexamethasone Serum ACTI-I levels are generally
- markedly elevated in ectopic ACTH production by malignant tumors; even high-dose
- dexamethasone does not suppress these levels
- Depression of the entire hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis by glucocorticoid therapy is the
- most common cause of adrenal insufficiency Adrenal crisis can be precipitated in these patients
- under stressful situations (i. e., infections or surgery) if their glucocorticoid dose is not
- appropnately increased
- Serum TSH level is the single most important screening test m diagnosing pnmary
- hypothyroidism Although TSH is not elevated in patients with hypothyroidism in central
- hypothyroidism, central hypothyroidism is uncommon.
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism is seen in patients with chronic renal failure These patients have
- an elevated serum PTH, accompanied by normal to low serum calcium levels, and high serum
- phosphorus levels. Circulating 1 ,25-dihydroxy vitamin D levels are low due to the deficiency of
- 1-alpha hydroxylase, an enzyme that resides in the kidneys.
- Pufferfish poisoning is caused by tetrodotoxin, a neurotoxin produced by microorganisms
- associated with the fish Tetrodotoxin binds to vottage-gated sodium channels in nerve and
- cardiac tissue, preventing sodium influx and depolarization.
- The likelihood of acute plaque change (especially rupture) producing an acute coronary
- syndrome via supenmposed thrombosis and/or thromboembohsm is most related to plaque
- 153
- stabibty Plaque stability depends significantly on mechanical strength of the fibrous cap
- Inflammatory macrophages in the intima may reduce plaque stability by secreting
- metalloproteinases, which degrade collagen
- An age-related decrease in compliance (increased stiffness) of the aorta and its proximal major
- branches often causes isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)
- Patients with clasc, salt-wasting 21-hydroxylase deficiency have deficient cortisol and
- aldosterone synthesis combined with adrenal androgen overproduction. Male infants have
- normal genitalia and present 1-2 weeks after birth with vomiting, hypotension. hyponatremia.
- and hyperkalemia Females present at birth with ambiguous genitalia
- The diarrhea caused by cehac disease can lead to vTtamin D deficiency through malabsorption
- Patients with vitamin D deficiency have decreased serum phosphorus. increased serum
- parathyroid hormone (secondary hyperparathyroidism), and low serum calcium. They may also
- have symptoms such as bone pain and muscle weakness.
- Anytime a patient has bitemporal hemianopsia, a pituitary tumor should be suspected. The most
- common
- functional pituitary tumor is a prolactinoma Secreting prolactinomas thhibit the entire axis of
- GnRH-LHIFSH-sex hormones, causing impotence in men and amenorrhea in women of
- reproductive age
- (hypogonadotropic amenorrhea).
- Reperfuson injury is thought to occur secondary to oxygen free radical generation, mitochondrial
- damage, and inflammation.
- Sex hormones promote both growth and epiphyseal plate closure: hence, precocious puberty may
- resuLt in a shorter stature, despite an initial growth spurt Gigantism is caused by excessive
- pituitary production of growth hormone, these patients achieve enormous heights because, unlike
- excessive sex steroids, excessive IGF-1 does not lead to premature closure of the epiphysis
- Hyperproactinernia causes hypogonadism, which leads to reduced estrogen in women Low
- estrogen due to any cause is risk factor for accelerated bone loss.
- When the central venous piessure (CVP) is increased, as in right heart failure, the interstitial
- fluid pressure rises due to an increase in net plasma filtration, As the interstitial fluid pressure
- increases, so does lymphatic drainage Increased lymphatic drainage can compensate for
- moderate CVP elevations to prevent the development of clinically apparent interstitial edema
- With large CVP elevations, the net capillary filtration increases in excess of the lymphatic
- reabsorptive capacity and overt edema develops
- More than a 10% increase in urine osmolality following administration of vasopressin dunng a
- water deprivation test suggests central D[ A urine osmolality increase above 50% is strongly
- suggestive of complete central Dl.
- 154
- The dominant effect of the hypothalamus on prolactiri secretion is inhibitory via dopamine
- production Prolactin regulation by dopamine is a commonly tested concept on USMLE Step 1
- In response to calcium loading. PTh decreases. cakitonin increases, and the renal synthesis of the
- active form of vitamin D decreases
- The adrenal cortex consists of three distinct zones: the outer zona glomerulosa. the middle zona
- fasciculata, and the inner zona reticularis (remember GFR) The zona glomerulosa synthesizes
- mineralocorticoids (e.g. aldosterone), the zona fasciculata predominantly produces cortisol, and
- the zona reticulans predominantly produces androgens
- 21-hydroxylase deficiency is the most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Affected
- female infants present at birth with ambiguous (virilized) genitaha Male infants have normal
- genitalia and present later with salt-wasting or precocious puberty. A high serum level of 17-
- hydroxyprogesterone is diagnostic.
- An ACTH surge with a resultant increase in steroid half-product’ excretion is a normal reaction
- to metyrapone administration, because metyrapone blocks the last step of cortisol synthesis
- Patients with type I diabetes mellitus are prone to develop other autoimmune endocrinopathies,
- including Hashimoto thyroiditis, Graves’ disease. and Mdison’s disease (hypoadrenocorticism).
- These patients are at increased risk for other non-endocnne autoimmune disorders as well,
- including vitiligo and pernicious anemia.
- Low bone density is a well-known complication of hyperprolactinemia that is associated with
- prolactin-induced hypogonadism (i.e.. low estrogen), Vaginal dryness is another very common
- manifestation of estrogen deficiency.
- ACTH is the major trophic hormone of the zona fasciculata and reticularis, whereas the zona
- glomerulosa is primarily regulated by angiotensin I. Prolonged ACTH stimulation causes
- hyperplasia of the zona fasciculata and reticulans, resulting in excessive cortisol production
- (Cushing syndrome).
- FFA and serum tnglycendes are bebeved to increase insulin resistance in overweight individuals.
- 1 1-hydroxylase deficiency typically results in excessive adrenal androgen and
- riNneralocorticoid (11- deoxycorticosterone) production. Females are born wdh ambiguous
- genitalia, and affected individuals develop hypertension and hypokalemia early in life
- Visceral obesity as measured by waist-to-hip ratio is an important determinant of insulin
- resistance.
- If a hypersecrehng-adrenal tumor has the functionality of the outer. intermediate, or inner layers
- of the adrenal cortex, the hormone(s) released and clinical syndrome produced will be
- aldosteronelConns syndrome, cortisoLlCushings syndrome, and androgens/hirsutism and
- vinkzation, respectiveIy
- 155
- Morphine tolerance is a common problem in the treatment of pain. The exact mechanism of
- tolerance is unknown but may involve increased phosphorylation of opioid receptors, increased
- adenylyl cylcase activity, or increased nitric oxide levels Activation of NMDA receptors by
- glutamate is believed to enhance morphine tolerance by increasing phosphorylation of optoid
- receptors and increasing nitric oxide evels NMDA receptor blockers, like ketamine. block the
- actions of glutamate and effectively decrease morphine tolerance
- Subpenosteal thinning is a characteristic feature of hyperparathyroidism Radiologically, this
- thinning appears as subperiosteal erosions in the medial sides of the second and third phalanges
- of the hand, and as a granular, salt-and-peppe?’ appearance of the calvarium.
- In the pathogenesis of atherosclerotic plaques. release of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
- by locally adherent platelets, endothelial cells, and macrophages promotes the migration of
- smooth muscle cells from the media into the intima and their subsequent prohferation
- 1. Growth hormone increases linear growth by stimulating the production of IGF-1 from the liver
- 2. Defective growth hormone receptors will lead to decrease in linear growth and is called Laron
- dwarfism. It is characterized by hágh serum levels of growth hormone in the piesence of low
- IGF-1 leve1s
- The vascular reaction to endothelial and intimal injury is intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis,
- predominantly mediated by reactive smooth muscle cells that migrate from the media to the
- intima
- During hyperglycemia. excess plasma glucose is converted to sorbitol by aldose reductase
- Sorbitol accumulates within some cells and attracts water into these tissues leading to osmotic
- cellular injury This mechanism is implicated in the pathophysiology of cataracts and penpheral
- neuropathy in diabetes
- Pathophysiology-GIT+Pulm+Haem+Hepa+Skeletal
- After vasectomy, viable sperm remain in the portion of the vas deferens proximal to the ligation
- Twenty percent of patients still have viable sperm in their ejaculate after 3 months and at least 20
- ejaculations
- Aromatase converts androgens into estrogens in the ovaries, testes, placenta and other peripheral
- tissues Genetic deficiency of this enzyme leads to an inability to synthesize estrogens It presents
- with maternal vinlization during pregnancy and masculinization of the female fetus
- Trypsin activates all proteolytic pancreatic enzymes including itself I activated prematurely (i.e.
- before reaching the duodenal lumen), it can cause autodigestion of the pancreatic tissue A
- number of inhibitory mechanisms exist to prevent premature activation of trypsin A gene
- mutation that renders trypsinogen insensitive to inhibhon causes hereditary pancreat.tis
- 156
- Diffuse esophageal spasm (DES) occurs due to uncoordinated contractions of the esophagus
- These contractions are both inefficient in propelling food mto the stomach and may cause
- symptoms of dysphagia and chest pain This chest pain may mimic unstabie angina, thus,
- complete cardiac work-up should be considered in every patient suspected of having DES, so
- that a cardiac cause may be ruled oul
- The pathogenesis of centnacinar emphysema associated with chronic, heavy smoking
- predominantly involves intraalveolar release of proteases, especially elastase, from infdtrahng
- neutrophils and from alveolar macrophages.
- A moderately elevated alkaline phosphatase of unclear etiology should be followed up with y-
- gtutamyl transpeptidase.
- ViPomas are non-beta cell pancreatic islet cell tumors that hypersecrete VIP ViP increases
- intestinal chloride loss into the stool, which causes excess losses ol the accompanying water,
- sodium and potassium as well. ViP also inhibits gastric acid secretion. Somatostatin inhibits the
- secretion of VIP and is used to treat the symptoms of ViPoma
- In cystic fibrOSis, abnormalities of the CFTR transmembrane protein reduce luminal chloride
- secretion and increase sodium and net water absorption, resulting in dehydrated mucus and a
- widened, negative transepithelial potential difference These electrolyte changes occur in most
- exocrine glands (other than sweat glands).
- Duodenal ulcers are not associated with an increased risk of carcinoma in the same location. In
- contrast, esophageal, gastric, and colorectal cancers are frequently identified as ulcerative lesions
- on endoscopy
- Cheyne-Stokes respiration describes cyclic breathing in which apnea is followed by gradually
- increasing tidal volumes, and then gradually decreasing tidal volumes until the next apneic
- period It is commonly seen in advanced congestive heart faifure
- Lactase-deticient individuals have increased stool osmotic gap, increased breath hydrogen
- content, and decreased stool pH upon lactose challenge.
- Airway challenge testing with methachohne is a highly sensitive but nonspecific measure that
- can detect the degree of bronchial hyperreactivity in patients suspected of having asthma A
- negative methacholine challenge test can help to exclude (rule out) the diagnosis Chest x-ray,
- blood eosinophil count, serum IgE level, and skin reactivity to vanous allergens are less
- sensitive, normal findings on these tests cannot exclude the diagnosis
- Hepatic encephalopathy appears to be secondary to increased levels of ammonia in circulation
- Frequently, hepatic encephalopathy is precipitated by a stressor that alters the ammonia balance
- (eg, gastrointestinal bleeding)
- 157
- Gilbert syndrome is the likely diagnosis in patients with no apparent liver disease who have mild
- unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia that appears provoked by one of the classic triggers.
- Arterial PaCO. is a direct indicator of the status of alveolar ventilation Hypocapnia implies
- ongoing alveolar hyperventilation Upper airway obstruction, reduced ventilatory drive,
- respiratory muscle fatigue, and decreased chest wall compliance are possible causes of alveolar
- hypoventilation and cause hypercapnia
- Renal calculi occur when there is an imbalance of the factors that facilitate and prevent stone
- formation. Increased concentrations of calcium, phosphate. oxalate. and uric acid promote salt
- crystallization, whereas increased citrate and high fluid intake help prevent calculi formation.
- The RANK receptor/RANK-Ugand interaction is essential for the formation and differentiation
- of osteoclasts. The over-expression of RANK receptors in hypoestrogenic states causes increased
- bone resorpUon due to increased osteoclastic activity. In short, low estrogen means a lower bone
- mass.
- Patients with osteoporosis have low bone mass. resulting in increased susceptibihty for fragihty
- fractures In primary osteoporosis (osteoporosis not caused by a medical disorder), serum
- calcium, phosphorus, and PTH levels are typically normal.
- Patients with CF produce eccrine sweat that contains high concentrations of sodium and chloride
- compared to normal individuals
- Although numerous substances are thought to play a role in the pathogenesis of allergic asthma,
- only leukotrienes (LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4) and acetyicholine have pharmacologc receptor
- antagonists that offer clear therapeutic benefit.
- Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high arterial blood pH. HCO3 and pCO2. It is most
- commonly caused by vomiting, NG suction, diuretic use or hyperaldosteronism Measuring the
- urinary chloride concentration and determining the patienUs volume status helps to identify the
- cause of metabolic alkalosis
- Hyperestrinism in alcohohc cirrhosis arises due to decreased catabolism of estrogens as well as
- increased sex hormone-binding globulin (which decreases the free testosterone-to-estrogen
- ratio). This imbalance leads to gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, decreased body hair, and spider
- angiomata
- Emphysema most commonly results from chronic smoking. but can also occur in genetically
- predisposed individuals with alpha-i antitrypsin deficiency Patients with emphysema have a
- decreased FEV1/FVC ratio, increased total lung volume, and decreased diffusing capacity
- Sunlight exposure catalyses the first reaction in the chain of active vitamin D synthesist 7-
- dehydrocholesterol transforms to cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3). Then, 26-hydroxylation occurs in
- the liver and the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase catalyzes the final step in the synthesis of
- active vitamin D
- 158
- Chgler-Najjar syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder of bdirubin metabolism caused by a
- genetic lack of the UGT enzyme needed to catalyze bile glucuronidation. Unconjugated
- hyperbilirubinemia develops in these infants, causing kemicterus and often death.
- Chronic obstwctive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a heavy smoker may consist of both
- emphysema and chronic bronchitis and thus may present with both progressive exertional
- dyspnea (characteristic of emphysema) and frequent respiratory infections (charactenstic of
- chronic bronchitis) On pulmonary function testing, all COPD yields a decreased FEV1!FVC
- ratio Emphysema also tends to increase TLC and RV In contrast, restrictive lung diseases can
- cause reduced lung volumes and increased FEV1/FVC.
- Decreased esophageal body peristalsis and poor relaxation of the LES on manometry are typical
- for achalasia Achalasia presents with progressive dysphagia chest pain, food regurgitation and
- aspiration Barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus and a “bird’s beak deformity of the LES
- D-xylose is a monosaccharide: thus. its absorption does not require pancreatic enzymes and is
- not affected by pancreatic insufficiency. Oral administration of a fixed dose of D-xylose can be
- used to differentiate between malabsorption of pancreatic versus gastrointestinal mucosal
- etiology.
- Paroxysmal breathlessness and wheezing in a young patient that is unrelated to ingestion of
- aspirin, pulmonary infection, inhalation of irritants, stress, and/or exercise should raise a strong
- suspicion for extrinsic allergic asthma. Classic sputum findings include easinophils and Charcot-
- Leyden crystals. Eosinophils are recruited and activated by IL-5 secreted by T2 type helper T-
- cells
- In patients with emphysema. total lung capacity. residual volume, and funcbonal residual
- capacity are generally increased, due to decreased lung elastic recoil. Air trapping in
- emphysematous patients tends to increase expiratory reserve volume and thereby further
- contnbutes to an increased FRC
- The abnormal activation of trypsin within the pancreas is a central event in the pathogenesis of
- acute necrotizing pancreatitis All pcoteolytic pancreatic enzymes are converted into their active
- forms by trypsin. Intracellular pancreatic activation of trypsin leads to activation of other
- proteolytic enzymes and pancreatic autodigestion
- Gastrin increases gastric acid secretion and stimulates parietal cell proliferation, thus increasing
- parietal cell mass (trophic effect). Both these effects are seen in patients with Zollinger-Ellison
- syndrome
- The work of breathing is minimized in patients with increased elastic resistance (eg, pulmonary
- fibrosis) when their respiratory rate is high and tidal volume is low (fast, shallow breaths) In
- contrast, patients with diseases that increase airflow resistance (e.g asthma, COPE)) breathe at a
- lower rate/higher tidal volume (slow, deep breaths) in order to minimize the work of breathing.
- 159
- hi patients with an al -antitrypsin deficiency, smoking dramatically increases the risk of
- developing panacinar emphysema
- Osteoclasts originate from hematopoietic progenitor cells. RANK-L and M-CSF play an
- important role in osteoclast differentiation Paget’s disease of the bone is caused by excessive
- osteoclastic resorption.
- Major basic protein released by eosinophils normally functions to kill helminths. It is also
- thought to contribute to the bronchial epithelial damage sustained by patients with atopic
- (extrinsic allergic) asthma
- A normal bleeding time indicates adequate platelet hemostatic function. A normal aPTT
- indicates an intact intnnsic coagulation system. A prolonged PT indicates a defect in the extrinsic
- system at a step not shared with the intrinsic system.
- Remember the risk factors for osteoporosis:
- 1 Smoking
- 2. Menopause
- 3. Corticosteroid therapy
- 4 Physical inactivity
- 5. Caucasian race (immutable)
- 6. Low total body weight
- 7. Aicohol use
- Digestive disorders such as cholestasis can cause malabsoiption and nutritional deficiencies of
- the fat-soluble vitamins This may result in osteomalacia, which is frequently associated with
- vitamin D deficiency
- The hypercalcernia associated with squamous cell lung cancer, and several other tumors, is
- usually due to over-production of parathyroid hormone-related peptide and is termed the
- ‘humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy”
- Systemic mastocytosis is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of mast cells and increased
- histamine secretion Histamine increases the production of gastric acid by parietal cells Gastric
- hypersecretion, therefore, is a common occurrence r systemic mastocytosis
- Intectous esaphagths is common in HIV-positive patients The most common cause s Candida
- a/b/cans. although CMV and HSV-1 are also frequently implicated Diagnosis relies on
- endoscopic and microscopic findings.
- 5a-reductase converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT mediates development of
- the external genitaha in the male fetus Male neonates with 5cs4eductase deficiency are born with
- feminized external genitalia that typically masculinize at puberty. Small phallus and hypospadias
- are commonly found
- 160
- Cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction is a condition caused by diminished relaxation of
- pharyngeal muscles dunng swallowing The subsequently increased intraluminal pressure in the
- oropharynx causes the mucosa to herniate through the wall at a point of muscle weakness,
- forming a Zenker diverticulum Clinically, patients (elderly) present with oropharyngeal
- dysphagia, coughing, choking, and recurrent aspiration
- Reduced expiratory airflow velocity, decreased bdal volume, and increased residual volume
- together characterize chronac obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Chronic bronchitis and/or
- emphysematous destruction of interalveolar walls may be responsible In companson, restnctive
- lung disorders tend to decrease all lung volumes without significantly affecting expiratory flow
- rates
- COPD can cause hypoxia sufficient to stimulate increased erythropoietin production by the
- cortical cells of the kidney
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- PHARMACOLOGY-Cardiology
- Bipolar disorder is commonly treated with lithium, an anti-manic medication Lhium has been
- linked to cases of Ebstein’s anomaly in infants exposed in utero Ebsteins anomaly is
- characterized by apical displacement of the tncuspid valve leaflets, decreased right ventricular
- volume, and atrialization of the right ventricle
- Clearance (CL) determines the dose rate required to maintain a steady-state plasma concentration
- (CpJ:
- Maint.nanc. dos. • Cp x CL I [Bloavaflability fraction]
- The bioavailabihty fraction = 1 if administered intravenously
- 1 Warfarin inhibits the carboxylahon of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and
- X. Prothrombin time should be monitored regularly during treatment with this medication. The
- most common adverse effect is bleeding
- 2. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used for monitonng unfractionated heparin
- Class Ill antiarrhythmics such as amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide and dofetilide will slow potassium
- efflux from the ventricular myocyte, prolong repolarization and prolong the refractory penod.
- Nitrate drugs mimic the action of endothelial derived relaxing factor (nitric oxide, NO) They are
- transformed to NO at the vascular smooth muscle cell membrane which leads to increased
- cGMP, decreased intracellular calcium and myosin dephosphorylation.
- The best treatment of chronic dry cough caused by an ACE inhibitor is replacement of this drug
- with an angiotensin receptor blocking drug (ARB), such as losartan Remember that ARBs are
- also beneficial for both hypertension and diabetic nephropathy and do not interfere with the
- catabolism of bradykinin as ACE inhibitors do.
- receptors are found in cardiac tissue and on renal juxtaglomerular cells, but not on vascular
- smooth
- muscle. Blockade of the , receptor leads to decreasing cAMP levels in cardiac and renal tissue
- without
- affecting cAMP levels in vascular smooth muscle.
- Daptomycin is a lipopeptide antibiotic with activity limited to Gram-positive organisms,
- including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus It causes depolarization of bacterial
- cellular membrane and inhibition of DNA RNA. and protein synthesis. Daptomycin is associated
- with increased CPK levels and an increased incidence of myopathy
- Amiodarone along with the class IA and the remainder of the class Ill antiarrhythmic agents will
- cause a prolongation of the QT interval on the EKG. These drugs have this effect because they
- all slow phase 3 repolarization in the ventncular myocardium Amiodarone is unique in that it
- does not predispose to torsade de pointes as the remainder of these agents do
- 162
- Patients taking daály maintenance nitrates need to have a nitrate-free period every day to avoid
- tolerance to the drug
- Lidocaine is a class lB antiarrhythmic agent which very specifically binds rapidly depolarizing
- and depolarized cells lschemic myocardium is depolarized tissue: this is why ocaine is specific
- for ischernic tissue and is the agent of choice for prevention and treatment of post-myocardial
- infarction arrhythmias Currently amiodarone has replaced the lidocaine in the management of
- ventricular tachycardia
- Nitrates can lead to a reflex tachycardia by causing a relative hypotension that the body responds
- to with catecholamirie release This adverse effect can be prevented by administering beta-
- adrenergic blockers with nitrates
- It is important to know the difference in the cardioselectivity and vascular selectivity of the 3
- classes of calcium channel blockers, Verapamil has the most effect on the heart while nifedipine
- is most selective for the peripheral vasculature with diltiazem having an effect somewhere in
- between The most frequent adverse reactions noted with verapamil are constipation and gingival
- hyperplasia, though they also are known to cause bradycardia as well as first. second or third
- degree AV nodal block in 1-2% of patients treated.
- Class I antiarrhvthmics
- 1A
- nterrnediate bindrng to Na but also blocks K :hannels j Vfl;( pro1o
- APD
- 1B ate of binding and release is so raped no :hange (fl is seen Since they APD j,
- also block la window current, they APD
- 1C very tight binding and slow release U M’&)
- In patients with hypertension and chronic ischernic myocardial failure, ACE inhibitors are
- considered to be the most effective long-term treatment option, as they inhibit myocardial
- remodeling and the associated deterioration of ventricular contractile function, m addition to
- reducing blood pessure A beta-blocker would also be beneficial for these patients.
- 163
- In this case, digoxin toxicity manifested as changes in color vision and anorexia Digoxin toxicity
- can also cause ventricular dysrhythmias. headache, fatigue and confusion
- Isoproterenol is an agonist at both 31 and 32-adrenergic receptors and has little or no a-
- adrenergic agonist effects It causes a dose-dependent increase in myocardial contractility and a
- dose-dependent decrease in systemic vascular resistance
- The mechanism of action of digitalis is the inhibition of the Na-K-ATPase in cardiac pacemaker
- cells leading to AV nodal blockade (increased diastolic filling time for greater contraction by the
- Frank-Starling mechanism) and increased contractility from increased intracellular calcium
- Procainamide and hydralazine have the highest risk of causing drug-induced lupus
- erythematosus (DuE), which is charactenzed by the development of lupus-like symptoms in
- addition to positive ANA and anti-histone antibodies Unlike with SLE, anti-dsDNA antibodies
- are rarely seen
- Using nitrates together with phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors used for erectile dysfunction and
- pulmonary hypertension causes a profound systemic hypotension because they both increase
- intracellular cGMP which causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation. Their use together is
- absolutely contraindicated
- Sotalol has both beta-adrenergic blocking properties and class 3 antiarrhythmic (K channel
- blocking) properties. It prolongs both the PR interval and the QT interval.
- Adenosine is a rapidly acting antiarrhythmic used to quickly convert people out of PSVT (drug
- of choice) It is also rapidly cleared and has a half-life of only less than 10 seconds It commonly
- causes chest burning (bronchospasm), flushing and high grade block as adverse reactions
- (remember, this is the drug used for chemical stress tests!)
- Thiazide diuretics cause elevations in the serum LDL, calcium, unc acid and glucose levels They
- lower serum potassium. serum sodium and blood pressure
- Class 3 antiarrhythmic agents block potassium efflux from cardiac myocytes and prolong phase
- 3 of the myocyte action potential.
- It is important that students know the correlation between the EKG waves and the cardiac cycle,
- and how drugs that act on the heart affect both of these. Beta-blockers, includmg esmolol, slow
- AV conduction Delayed conduction through the AV node causes PR interval prolongation.
- Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by blocking the Na-K-ATPase in cardiac myocytes
- leading to an increased intracellular calcium concentration, and it will decrease AV nodal
- conduction by a mechanism of increased parasympathetic tone
- Phosphodiesterase inhibitors lead to increased cardiac contractility via increased intracellular
- cAMP concentration. cAMP promotes increased intracellular calcium in cardiac myocytes and is
- normally metabolized by phosphodiesterases k vascular smooth muscle, increases in cAMP
- 164
- cause vasodilation, a well-known side effect of phosphodiesterase inhibitors which can
- occasionally limit their use in hypotensrve patients.
- The QRS complex corresponds to ventricular depolarization and phase 0 on the action potential
- graph. Ventncular myocyte depolarization is mediated by inward sodium movement and can be
- modulated by class I antiarrhythmics.
- The anthracycline chemotherapeutic agents (doxowbicw, daunorubicm. epirubicin and
- idarubicin) form free radicals in the myocardium. Their most severe side effect is a cumulative
- dose-related dilated cardiomyopathy. It presents with symptoms of left and right ventricular
- CHF.
- Nifedipine causes peripheral vasodilatation which may result in reflex tachycardia Therefore this
- antihypertensive drug is useful for patients with bradycardia.
- Beta-blockers inhibit the production and release of rerun from renal juxtaglomerular cells
- through antagonism of 131 receptors on these cells Inhibition of renan release causes suppression
- of the renin-angiotensina ldosterone pathway, which results in decreased vasoconstnction and
- decreased renal sodium and water retention
- All nitrates, both long and short acting. are most commonly associated with the side effects of
- headache and facial flushing. These reactions occur because of the vasodilatory properties of
- nitrates in the meninges and skin.
- Nitroglycerin is primarily a venoddator It decreases preload which decreases myocardial oxygen
- demand and thereby treats angina pectons.
- Nitroglycenn and Isosorbide dinitrate undergo considerable first-pass metabolism in the liver
- when taken by the oral route. Interestingly, isosorbide mononitrate is nearly 100% bioavailable
- when taken by the oral route.
- Torsades de pointes is a form of ventricular tachycardia with characteristic ECG findings that is
- always associated with an underlying prolongation of the QT riterval. It is most commonly
- precipitated by pharmacologic agents that prolong the QT interval such as some antiarrhythmics,
- TCAs and others.
- Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that works by inhibiting the platelet surface ADP receptor It
- is as efficacious as aspirin in the pcevention of thromboernbolic disease.
- Dobutamine is a relatively selective 31-adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate, contractility,
- conduction velocity, and myocardial oxygen consumption
- Sublingual or aerosohzed nitroglycehn is a rapidly acting agent taken by patients with stable
- angina pectoris as needed to rapidly relieve their symptoms, Nitrates act primanly as venodilators
- causing a decrease in cardiac work by decreasing left ventncular fiNing volume o preload.
- 165
- Digitalis (digoxin) is a commonly used drug with a well-characterized side effect profile making
- it a favorite testing item among question writers ft leads to AV block and ventricular
- tachyarrhythmias Hyperkalemia is frequently found in acute digoxin toxicity However, please
- note - hypokalemia increase patient susceptibility to the toxic effects of digoxin.
- The class IA antiarrhythmacs (quindine. procainamide, and disopyramide) are sodium channel
- blocking agents that slow phase 00! the ventncular myocyte action potential and prolong
- repolarization as well as the refractory period of these cels
- ôJI diuretics except for the potassium-sparing class cause potassium loss They do this by
- increasing the volume delivered to the collecting duct, where aldosterone then attempts to
- reclaim the additional volume at the expense of potassium. êJl of the potassium-spanng diuretics
- act at the collecting duct
- Direct arteriolar vasodilators like hydralazine and minoxidd are effective antihypertensives
- Because they cause significant arterial vasoddation, they also cause reflex sympathetic activation
- resulting in tachycardia and edema To counteract these compensatory effects, these agents are
- often given in combination with sympatholytics and diuretics.
- Patients who have overdosed on beta blockers should be treated with glucagon, which increases
- heart rate and contractility independent of adrenergic receptors Glucagon activates G-protein-
- coupled receptors on cardiac myocytes, causing activation of adenylate cyclase and raising
- intracellular cAMP The result is calcium release from intracellular stores and increased sinoatnal
- node firing
- Combined use of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (eq. verapamil, diltiazem) and
- 3-adrenergic blockers (eg, atenolol) can have additive negative chronotropic effects yielding
- severe bradycardia and hypotension
- Beta-blockers, and carvedilol in particular. have been shown to slow the progression of heart
- failure and reduce all.-cause mortality in patients with CHF Beta-adrenergic blockers decrease
- cardiac work by slowing the ventricular rate and decreasing afterload
- PHARMACOLOGY-Endocrine+Dermatology
- Treatment of psonasis ranges from topical therapies to systemic treatment with conventional and
- biological drugs. Topical vitamin D analogs (calcipotriene. calcitriol, and tacalcitol) bind to the
- vitamin D receptor and inhibit keratinocyte proliferation and stimulate keratinocyte
- differentiation
- Exophthalmos is due to increased soft tissue mass within the bony orbit, which results from
- enlargement of the extraocular muscles and increased fibroblast proliferation and ground
- substance production Exophthalmos does not typicafly improve with beta-blocker therapy.
- 166
- Non-selective B-blockers exacerbate hypoglycernea and mask s adrenergic symptoms For this
- reason, they should not be used in patients with diabetes melLitus Selective (, antagonists should
- be used instead if a B-blocker is necessary
- Acyclovir, the acyclovir prodrug vaiacyclovir, famciclovir, and ganciclovir are all nucleoside
- analogues that require both herpes viral and cellular kinases for conversion to their active
- nucleoside triphosphate form. Cidofovir is a nucleoside monophosphate (ie, a nucleotide) that
- requires only cellular kinases for activation
- The acute effects of corticosterods on the CBC inck,de increased neutrophil count. and decreased
- lymphocyte, monocyte, basophd, and eosinophil counts The increase in neutrophd count results
- from 0dargition of neutrophils previousty attached to the vessel wal
- The desmopressan analog DDAVP is used in patients with von Willebrand disease because it
- induces endothelial procoagulatory protein release (including vWF). Remember, that
- desmopressin tablets can also be used for the treatment of enuresis.
- Isotretinoin is used to treat severe acne refractory to topical therapies. Its main adverse effects
- are hypertriglyceridemia and teratogenicity. Pregnancy is an absolute contraindication to its use
- Sexually active females should be advised to use two forms of contraception and to have
- monthly pregnancy tests.
- 1. TZDs decrease insulin resistance by binding to peroxisome prohierator activated receptor
- gamma (PPAR-gamma), which is a transcriptional regulator of genes involved in glucose and
- lipid metabolism.
- 2. Adiponectin levels are low in type 2 diabetes, and treatment with TZDs increases the levels of
- adiponectin.
- Anastrozole is a selective inhibitor of aromatase. the enzyme responsible for the conversion of
- androgens to estrogens Ketoconazole is an antifungal agent that decreases androgen synthesis by
- inhibiting multiple enzyme pathways involved En the synthesis of androgens. lnhibion of the
- epidermal growth factor and HER2Jneu pathways by trastuzumab leads to the apoptosis of breast
- cancer cells Activation of the HER2Ineu receptor leads to activation of tyrosine lanase.
- Thionamides (e.g.. methimazole and propyithiouracil) act as antithyroid medications by
- decreasing the formation of thyroid hormones via inhibition of the enzyme thyroid peroxidase
- Propyithiouracil also decreases the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
- Thiazolidinediones bind to peroxisome prohferatoractivated receptor-gamma (PPAR-y), a
- receptor that belongs to the steroid and thyroid superfamily of nuclear receptors.
- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents as volume depletion (hypotension and tachycardia) with
- ketones and glucose in the unne It occurs most commonly in type 1 diabetics Regular insulin is
- preferred for the acute treatment of DKA.
- 167
- Male pattern baldness is an inherited trait that produces a distinctrve pattern of progressive hair
- loss The anterior (frontal) scalp is affected first, then the vertex Pathogenesis involves scalp 5-ci-
- reductase activity and the androgenic effects of the resulting dihydrotestosterone. 5-a-reductase
- inhibitors like finasteride can be used to treat this condition.
- Thyroid function tests should be monitored in patients receiving amiodarone therapy
- Amiodarone is associated with many side effects: thyroid dysfunction, comeal micro-deposits,
- blue-gray skin discoloration, drug-related hepatitis, and pulmonary flbrosis
- Insulin is the medication of choice fo the treatment of gestational diabetes in patients for whom
- diet and light exercise have failed to control blood glucose levels.
- The secretion of prolactin is controlled by the inhibitory effect of hypothalamic dopamine
- Hyperprolactinemia causes hypogonadism by inhibiting the release of gonadotroph releasing
- hormone from the hypothalamus Risperidone and other antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinemia
- by their antidopaminergic action.
- The mechanism of action of 13 receptor blockers i thyrotoxicosis is dual: there is a decrease in
- the effect of sympathetic adrenergic impulses reaching target organs and a decrease in the rate of
- peripheral conversion ofT4toT3.
- Fluid retention, with resultant weight gain and edema. is a common side effect of
- thiazolidinedione therapy. This excess fluid can exacerbate underlying congestive heart failure.
- Terbinafine is used for treatment of dermatophytosis. It inhibits synthesis of fungal membrane
- ergosterol by suppressing the enzyme squalene epoxidase.
- Diabetic patients often need 2 types of insuhn. a basal long-acting insulin and a postprandial
- short-acting insulin. The best basal long-acting insulins are glargine and detemir insulin
- (administered as once-a-day shots) NPH is good for about 18 hours (shots given twice a day) The
- best short-acting insulins are lispro, aspart, and glulisine (shots given 3 times a day with meals).
- They have a very rapid onset of action with peak effects coinciding with peak postprandial
- hyperglycemia.
- Flutamide is a non-steroid anti-androgen that competes with testosterone and DHT for
- testosterone receptors It is used for treatment of prostate cancer in combination with GnRH
- agonists
- High-dose glucocorticoids such as prednisone are used to control severe Graves’
- ophthalmopathy They are helpful in decreasing the severity of inflammation and decreasing
- extraocular voIume Conventional antithyroid drugs do not improve ophthalmopathy
- Glucocorticoids are predominantly catabolic, causing muscle weakness, skin thinning, impaired
- woundh ealing, osteoporosis, and immunosuppression However, they ricreasekver protein
- synthesis, specifically the enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis This, along
- 168
- with peripheral antagonism of the effects of insulin, contnbutes to the development of
- hyperglycemia
- Tamoxifen and raloxifene are called “selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)” because
- of their tissue-selective estrogen agonist and antagonist properties Tamoxifen is useful for the
- treatment of osteoporosis and breast cancer. However, it is associated with an increased
- incidence of endometrial cancer and thromboembolic disease.
- Nafcilhn, methiciHin and oxacillin are penicdlinase-resistant pemcdhns active against isolates of
- S aureus and S epdetmidis that are resistant to other peniciflins They are not effective against
- MRSA. however
- FinasterideisaS-aipha-reductase inhibitor that suppresses peripheral conversion of testosterone to
- dihydrotestosterone ft is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenetic
- alopecia
- Local cutaneous adverse effects of chronic topical corticosteroid administration include
- atrophy/thinning of the dermis that is associated with loss of dermal collagen, drying, cracking,
- andlor tightening of the skin, telangiectasias. and ecchymoses
- Agranulocytosis is a rare but very serious comphcation of antithyroid drugs A WBC count with a
- differential is necessary in any pabent receMng eher methimazole or PTU who presents with a
- fever
- Administration of potassium iodide may prevent thyroid absorption of radioactive iodine
- isotopes by competitive inhibition.
- 1 Anion inhibitors (perchiorate. pertechnetate) block iodide absorption by the thyroid gland via
- competitive inhib4ion
- 2. Thionamides (methemazole and propylthiouracd) decrease the formation of thyroid hormones
- by inhibiting thyroid peroxidase
- 3. Iodide salts inhabit synthesis as well as release of thyroid hormones.
- 1. Because troghtazone was withdrawn from the market due to hepatotoxicity, periodic liver
- function tests are now recommended in all patients treated with thiazohdinediones
- 2. The other important side effect of TZDs includes fluid retention, which can exacerbate
- congestive heart failure in patients with underlying cardiac dysfunction.
- Loss of consciousness brought about by severe hypoglycemia is typically treated with
- intramuscular glucagon in the non-medical setting and with intravenous dextrose in the medical
- setting
- Metformin is absolutely contraindicated in patients with renal failure, due to a risk of lactic acid
- accumuIation In fact, metformin is contraindicated in any situation that might precipitate lactic
- acidosis, such as liver dysfunction, congestive heart failure, alcoholism, and Sepsis.
- 169
- The ideal treatment for patients in adrenal crisis is administration of stress-dose corticosteroids.
- Response to vasopressors in the presence of adrenal insufficiency is generally suboptimal.
- TZDs activate PPAR-gamma. whkh is the nuclear receptor that alters the transcription of genes
- responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism Thiazohdined*ones (TZDs) exert their glucose-
- lowering effect by decreasing insulin resistance
- Hirsutism is an excessive growth of terminal hair in a male-like pattern. It occurs due to
- increased testosterone secretion or increased conversion of testosterone to DHT Spironolactone
- has anti-androgenic properties and is used for treatment of hirsutism The other drugs that can be
- used for hirsutism include antiandrogens flutamide (inhibits binding to testosterone receptors)
- and finastende (5-aipha-reductase inhibitor).
- PABA esters are widely used UVB radiation absorbers However, they do not significantly
- absorb or block radiation in the UVA wavelength range
- Aipha-glucosidase inhibitors decrease the activity of the membrane-bound disaccharidases on the
- intestinal brush border. Carbohydrates are absorbed as monosacchahdes. therefore, the action of
- alpha-glucosidase inhibitors in preventing disaccharide breakdown allows the delay in
- carbohydrate absorption In the United States, acarbose and miglitol are the two alpha glucosidase
- inhibitors available for clinical use.
- Leuprolideis a GnRH agonist that causes first a transient increase. then a decrease in both
- testosterone and DHT leveIs Finasteride causes a discordant decrease in DHT level.
- PHARMACOLOGY-GIT + Genitourinary
- Clinical features of adult lead toxicity include abdominal colic. constipation, headache, lead line
- and peripheral neuropathy Microcytic hypochromic anemia and basophihc stippling is also
- present.
- Polyethylene glycol is an osmotic Iaxat,ve. Diarrhea associated wflh lactase deficiency is also
- osmotic and occurs due to accumulabon of nonabsorbable lactose m the intestinal lumen
- Magnesium hydroxide (and other magnesium-containing compounds, such as magnesium citrate)
- is another osmotic laxative that is often used, although its efficacy is questionable and there is
- not enough evdence to support its widespread use
- Oral metronidazole can cause disulfiram-hke effects when combined with alcohol It is used to
- treat giardiasis, tnchomonas vaginitis and bacterial vaginosis
- D-AIa-D-Ala is the amino acid sequence on peptidoglycan precursor molecules that is
- recognized by the enzyme transpeptidase Penicilhns are structural analogs of D-Ala-D-Ala that
- 170
- inhibit this enzyme by binding covalently to its active site. The result is failed synthesis of the
- bactenal peptidoglycan cell wall.
- The mec hanism of varicomycin resistance in organisms such as VRE is a substitution of 0-
- lactate in the place of D-alanine during the process of peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis This
- prevents the binding of vancomycin to its usuai D-alanyt-D-alanine binding site in the cell wall.
- Opioid analgesics can cause contraction of smooth muscles in the sphincter of Oddi leading to
- increased pressures in the bile duct and the gall bladder. Increased pressures can lead to a rare
- painful crisis known as biliary colic Although meperidine has been reported to cause less
- constriction of the sphincter of Oddi, there is little evidence to support this notion.
- Mifepristone is an anti-progestin agent that can be used to terminate earty pregnancy The
- prostaglandin-El analogue, misoprostol, is available for clinical use in combination with the
- abortifacient, mifepristone
- References:
- 1. Review of medical abortion using mifepristone in combination with a prostaglandin analogue
- 2. Progesterone rec.ptor blockag.: Effect on uterine contractility and early pr.gnancy
- Enterococci produce aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes that transfer different chemical groups
- (acetyl, adenyl or phosphate) to the aminoglycosáde molecule and therefore impair antibiotic
- binding to ribosomal subunits
- 1. Diphenoxylate is an opiate anti-diarrheal structurally related to meperidine It binds to mu
- opiate receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and slows motihty Low therapeutic doses allow for
- potent anti-diarrheal effects without euphonc effects Since higher doses can lead to euphoria and
- physical dependence, the drug is combined with atropine at therapeutic doses to discourage
- abuse
- 2. Octreotide is helpful for secretory diarrhea.
- Urge incontinence, or overactive bladder syndrome, is caused by uninhibited bladder
- contractions (detrusor instabdity). It results in a sense of urgency accompanied by an iwoluntary
- loss of urine If behavioral therapy alone is unsuccessfuL pharmacologic therapy with an
- antimuscannic drug (targeting M3 receptors) can help improve symptoms. These agents should
- be used with caution m the elderly, as they may cause confusion and functional decline
- References:
- 1 Antimuscannic agents: implications and concerns in the management of overactive bladder In
- the elderly.
- Postoperative urinary retention. wfth incomplete bladder emptying. is a common complication
- thought to involve decreased micturition reflex activity, decreased contractility of the bladder
- detrusor, and/or increased vesical sphincter tone. This condition may be treated with a
- muscarinic agonist (bethanechol) or an al blocking drug
- 171
- Clavulanic acid. sulbactam and tazobactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors that extend the
- spectrum of penicillin-family antibiotics to include beta-lactamase producing organisms such as
- S aureus. if ,nfluenzae. Bacteroides. and other gram-negative bacteria.
- The absolute contraindications to the use of OCPs are:
- 1. Prior history of thromboembohc event or stroke
- 2. History of an estrogen-dependent tumor
- 3. Women over age 35 years who smoke heavily
- 4 Hypertriglycendemia
- 5. Decompensated or active kver disease (would impair steroid metaboksm)
- 6 Pregnancy
- R.f.r.nc.s:
- 1. Smoking increases the risk of venous thrombosis and acts synergistically with oral
- contraceptive use.
- Gonococcal urethritis causes dysuna and copious. purulent, yellow-green urethral discharge.
- Gram stain of this discharge shows neutrophils with Gram negative intracellular diplococci.
- Because co-infection with C lrachomat,s is common in patients with gonorrhea. azithromycin
- (for C trachomatis) should be given in addition to ceftriaxone (for N gonorrhoeae) in patients
- with acute gonococcal urethritis.
- Urethritis in a young male is most likely to be due to N. gonol7hoeaeor C trachomatis both of
- which cause dysuria and mucopurulent urethral discharge The standard treatment for sexually
- transmitted urethritis presumes infection by both organisms ceftnaxone is given for N gonorrhea
- and doxycycline or azithromycin is given for C. trachomatis
- Combination oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation by decreasing synthesis of FSH and LH in the
- anterior pituitary Their effects on cervical mucus and endometnum play a minor role
- Dimercaprol is a chelating agent used in the treatment of arsenic poisoning It displaces arsenic
- ions from sulfhydryl groups of enzymes and facilitates their excretion. Arsenic causes poisoning
- by inactivating numerous enzymes involved in cellular metabolism. Symptoms of poisoning
- include stomach pains, vomiting and delirium in addition to a garlic odor on the breath.
- Sildenafil is a selective inhibitor of the cGMP phosphodiesterase. and use of this drug will
- prevent degradation of cGMP leading to higher intracellular levels. Nitric oxide and atrial
- natriuretic peptide act via a cGMP second messenger system (NO being primarily responsible for
- causing erection), and binding of these hormones to their receptors will also increase intracellular
- cGMP concentrations.
- Bioavailability refers to the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in
- a chemically unchanged form, Bioavailability for a drug administered by a non-intravenous route
- is always less than 1 It can be determined by examining a graph of plasma concentration versus
- time and then applying the formula
- F • (AUC oral x dose IV) I (AUC IV x dose oral)
- 172
- Proton pump inhibitors block the final common pathway of gastric acid secretion from panetal
- cells, which is simulated by acetyicholine, histamine, and gastnn.
- Treatment of chronc hepatitis C involves the use of interferon alpha and ribavinn. Ribavirin’s
- mechanism of action is multifactorial and includes inducing lethal hypermutation. inhibiting
- RNA polymerase and inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (depleting GTP), causing defective
- 5-cap formation on viral mRNA transcnpts, and modulating a more effective immune response
- R.f.r.nc.s:
- 1. Mechanisms of action of ribavinn against distinct viruses.
- The changes in the log dose-response curve expected for the effect of a reversible competitive
- antagonist added to a full agonist are: 1) a parallel shift to the nght in the log-dose response
- curve, illustrating an increase in the ED, and 2) no change in the maximum effect (E,,.).
- * Competitive=change EDshift nght: noncompetitivechange Ezshift down
- Chlamydià trachomatis lacks peptidoglycan within the cell wall, and Ureaplasma urea/yticum
- lacks a cell wall entirely Therefore, they are not effectively treated by perncillins and
- cephalosponns Antiribosomal antibiotics, like macrobdes and tetracychnes, are effective against
- these organisms
- References:
- 1. Penicillin induced persistence in Chiamydia trachomatis: high quality time lapse video
- analysis of the developmental cycle.
- For patients with peptic ulcer disease, the most effective way to provide long-term relief is to
- eradicate Helicobacter pytori infection of the gastric mucosa with antibiotic therapy.
- Iron absorption occurs predominantly in the duodenum and proximal jejunum Bypass of this
- segment of small bowel by gastrojejunostomy results in iron deficiency anemia Malabsorption of
- vitamin Bi:, folate, fat-soluble vitamins (especially vitamin D), and calcium may also be
- observed following gastric bypass procedures
- PHARMACOLOGY-Head & Neck+Heamatology
- Educational Objective:
- Neutropenia is a significant adverse effect of ganciclovir therapy, and ts incidence is increased
- with Co. administration of zidovudine Both drugs can affect DNA synthesis in hematopoietic
- stem cell lines, resufting in bone marrow suppression.
- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor that disrupts the ability of HIV to integrate its genome into
- the host cells chromosomes, thus preventing host cellular machinery from being used to
- synthesize HIV mRNA
- Nystatin is a polyene antifungal and the drug of choice for oropharyngeal candidiasis in patients
- without advanced immunodeficiency It acts by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell
- 173
- membrane, causing the formation of pores and leakage of fungal cell contents. Nystatin is not
- absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and is administered as an oral “swish and swallow agent
- Fever. cutaneous flushing, dry oral mucosa, dilated poorly reactive pupils and confusion are all
- signs of antichohnergic toxicity Tricyclic antidepressants, particularly amitriptyline, have
- antimuscarinic side effects that may mimic atropine toxicity
- Most available rodenticides contain broditacoum a long acting 4-hydroxycoumarin derivative If
- a patient has ingested a quantity of rodenticide sufficient to cause coagulopathy and abnormal
- bleeding, immediate treatment with fresh frozen plasma and vitamin K1 is required
- Both unfractionated hepann and LMWH can bind to antithrombin to increase its activity against
- Factor Xa Only unfractionated heparin is able to bind to both antithrombin and thrombin to allow
- antithromb,n to inactivate thrombin.
- Clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors Concurrent
- administration of clavulanate with amoxicilhn expands amoxciHins spectrum of activity to
- include strains of 13-lactamase synthesizing bacteria that are resistant to amoxicdlin alone.
- 1 Rifampicin, phenobarbital and phenytoin are universal enhancers of the cytochrome P-450
- pathway
- and concurrent use of warfarin with these medications results in decreased efficacy of warfann.
- 2. Cimetidine, amiodarone and TMP-SMX, on the other hand, inhibit warfarin metabolism.
- Heparin-inducedthrornbocytopenia (HIT) is treated with direct thrombin inhibitors (DTIs) such
- as argatroban Both high molecular weight heparin and LMWH should be avoided in these
- patients
- Protamine sulfate binds with heparin causing chemical inactivation Vitamin K is used for
- reversal of warfarin effect Arninocaproic acid and tranexamic acid inhibits ftbrinolysis
- Antithrombin-Ill. protein C and protein S are natural anticoagulants that are present m the blood.
- Warfann inhibits protein C and S synthesis and thus can pose a risk of paradoxical thrombosis in
- patients with congenital deficiency of protein C and S. This is usualy seen in the fist week of
- therapy
- Unhke the majority of non-selective NSAJDs, aspirin has irreversib’e effects on COX.
- The most common cause of retinitis in HIV-positive patients is cytomegalovirus infection
- Cytomegalovirus retinitis most frequently affects S4JDS patients with a CD4+ lymphocyte count
- <50 cefls/pl It is best treated with ganciclovir.
- Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight hepann that functions like heparin in that it binds and
- activates antithrombin Ill.
- 174
- HIV-1 protease inhibitors and glucocorticoids are strongly associated with medication-induced
- body fat redistribution syndrome, which is characterized by the redistribution of body fat from
- the extremities to the abdominal viscera and the subcutaneous adipose tissues of the thorax,
- posterior neck, and supraclavicular region
- References:
- 1. Cellular mechanisms of insulin resistance, lipodystrophy and atherosclerosis induced by HIV
- protease inhibitors.
- Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor useful in the treatment and prevention of both influenza
- A and B virus infections This medication impairs the release of newly formed vinons from
- infected host cells and impairs viral penetration of mucous secretions that overlie the respiratory
- epithehum.
- 1. Hydroxyurea increases fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) synthesis by an unknown mechanism
- Hydroxyurea is reserved for patients with frequent pain crises
- 2. Gardos channel blockers hinder the efflux of potassium and water from the cell, preventing
- dehydration of erythrocytes and reducing the polymerization of Hb S.
- Flushed skin and mydnasis result from muscarinic receptor blockade It is important that students
- be familiar with the following medications with antimuscannic effects atropine, tricychc
- antidepressants (e.g. amitriptyline), Hi receptor antagonists (e.g diphenhydramine), neuroleptics,
- and antiparkinsonian drugs.
- ApIastc anemia (pancytopenia) is caused by many drugs and environmental toxins
- Chloramphenicol can lead to both dose-dependent (reversible) and dose-independent (often
- irreversible) pancytopenia.
- • Hemolytic anemia is a possible side effect of dapsone and is most significant ii patients
- deficient for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD).
- • G6PD deficiency anemia is characterized by episodes of hemolytic anemia precipitated by
- oxidative stress (drugs, infections). Penpheral smear typically shows bite cells and Heinz bodies
- (requires special preparation)
- The majority of patients with vitamin B3 deficiency require parenteral B,2 administrahon Poor
- absorption secondary to gastric atrophy, intnnsic factor deficiency, or terminal deal disease Es
- the most common cause of deficiency, with dietary vitamin 8,: deficiency far less common
- References:
- 1. Diagnosis and treatment of vitamin 812 deficiency--an update.
- 2. Causes and .arty diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency.
- Antiretroviral agents that selectively bind to the HIV envelope transmembrane glycoprotein gp4l
- prevent the conformational changes necessary for the viral membrane to fuse with the target
- cellular membrane These agents are therefore known as “fusion inhibitors”
- 175
- Both vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma are used for reversing warfann-induced anticoagulation.
- Fresh frozen plasma rapidly reverses warfarin’s effects whereas vitamin K requires time for
- clotting factor re-synthesis
- Increased gastrointestinal blood loss is the most common side effect of aspirin The relative risk
- of gastrointestinal bleeding is increased when high-dose aspirin is used because there is loss of
- gastric cytoprotection in addition to impaired platelet aggregation.
- References:
- 1 Risk of gastrointestinal haemorrhage with long term use of aspirin: meta-analysis
- 2. Plat.let-activ. drugs: the relationships among dos•, effectiveness, and side .ff.cts
- Abciximab is a blocker of GP lb/lila receptor GP Ilb/llla is either deficient or defective in
- patients with Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- Neutropenia is seen in about 1 percent of patients on ticlopidine and typically presents with fever
- and mouth ulcers Though this is rare. it is a serious complication and complete blood count
- should be monitored biweekly for the first three months.
- Of all the antMral agents that bind and inhibit DNA potymerase in herpesvirus and reverse
- transcnptase in HIV, the pyrophosphate analog foscamet is one of few that do not require
- intracellular activation by viral or cellular kinases.
- Hepann is the drug of choice for acute management of venous thrombosis or thromboembohsm,
- Heparin activates antithrombin III Warfann is used for long-term prevention of recurrent venous
- thromboembolism (VTE). Warfann inhibits vitamin K dependent -carboxylation of glutamic acid
- residues of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X (vitamin K dependent clotting factors)
- Wet age-related macular degeneration is due to increased vascular endothehal growth factor
- (VEGF) causing angiogenesis Active disease should be treated with anti-VEGF therapy
- R.f.r.nc.s:
- 1 Anti-VEGF compounds in the treatment of neovascular age related macular degeneration
- Monophosphorylation of acyclovir by a viral thymidine kinase is the first (and rate-limrting) step
- in the conversion of acyclovir to its active triphosphate form. Acyclovir and related drugs (eq.
- famciclovir, valaciclovir) are more effective against herpes simplex virus and varicella zoster
- virus than cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus.
- Selective CCX 2 inhibitors have no effect on platelet aggregation and cause little GI irritation
- The reduced risks of bleeding and GI ulceration are the only advantages over traditional NSAlDs
- Selective CCX 2 inhibitors have potent anti-inflammatory effects without the side effects of
- bleeding and gastrointestinal ulceration associated with non-selective CCX inhibitors. Selective
- COX 2 inhibitors do not impair platelet function because platelets predominantly express COX 1
- References:
- 1. Effects of celecoxib, a novel cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitor, on platelet function in healthy adults:
- a randomized, controlled trial
- 176
- Heparin is the drug of choice for prevention of venous thrombosis in non-ambulatory patients or
- patients undergoing elective surgery, especially hip and knee surgery. Heparin increases the
- effect of the naturally occurring anticoagulant antithrombin-ll[
- In pregnant women. hepann is used to treat DVT Heparin increases antithrombin Ill activity
- Although wart ann is normally the drug of choice for DVT. it is contraindicated in pregnancy
- because it is teratogenic Neither aspirin nor clopidogrel are independently sufficient to treat DVT
- Nonnucleoside reverse transcnptase inhibitors (NNRT1s) are antiretroviral drugs that do not
- require activation via intracellular phosphorylation. The more common NNRTIs include
- nevirapine, efavirenz, and delavirdine
- PHARMACOLOGY-Hepatic+Skeletal
- Aithough very effective and capable of producing quick symptom relief. glucocorticoids are
- usually used only for short4erm therapy of rheumatoid arthritis due to their unfavorable side
- effect profile.
- References:
- 1. Efficacy of prednlsone 1-4 mglday In patients with rheumatoid arthritis: a randomised,
- double-blind, placebo controlled withdrawal clinical trial.
- Treatment with many of the hypolipidernic drugs (especially statins) warrants monitoring of liver
- function tests. Statins are known to cause myopathy and liver toxicity in some patients
- Androgens stimulate follicular epiderrnal hyperprohferation and excessive sebum production,
- thereby promoting acne development Anabolic steroid misuse is a known cause of acne,
- especially in competitive athletes
- ZidOVUdine (AZT)is a nUcleoside reverse trariscnptase inhibitor used to treat HIV infection It
- competitively binds to reverse transcnptase and is incorporated into the viral genome as a
- thymidine analog AZT does not have a 3’-OH group, making 3’—5’ phosphodiester bond
- formation impossible
- Oral administration subjects a drug to a large amount of first-pass metabolism, whereas IV,
- sublingual, and rectal administration bypasses some or all of this process and allows more drug
- to reach the systemic circulation.
- The pathoqenesis of Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration) involves an excess of non-
- ceruloplasmin-bound serum copper, leading to injurious accumulation of this element in the
- hver. CNS lenticular nucleus, and cornea. Chelation therapy with penicillamine is indicated to
- remove excess loosely bound serum copper.
- 177
- Osteoporosis is a common cause of pathological vertebral fractures. Chronic systemic use of
- corticosteroids such as prednisone promotes osteoporosis. and therefore may cause such fractures
- Piperacillin-tazobactam is a combination of extended-spectrum penicdlln with 13-lactamase
- inhibitor. It is effective against most Gram (-) enteñc rods, including Pseudomonas aenigihosa
- and Bactero/desfragiks
- Succinyicholine can cause si9niflcant potassium release and hfe-threatening arrhythmias in
- patients at high risk for hyperkalemia. including those with bums, myopathies, crush injunes, and
- denervating snjunes or disease.
- While the kidney is the primary site of elimination of most drugs. the liver is the main site of
- biotransformation of these agents in preparation for ebmination, Drugs that are more lipophdic
- (hgh Vd, good penetration into CNS) are preferentially processed by the liver into more polar
- compounds for easier ehmmation in the bile and unne Liver disease (e g., cirrhosis) or the
- concomitant use of other drugs may limit or enhance the clearance of drugs metabolized in the
- liver
- Bisphosphonates are structural analogues of pyrophosphate. an important component of
- hydroxyapatite. These drugs are used in the treatment of osteoporosis. PageVs disease of the
- bone, and malignancy-induced hypercalcemia. These agents are administered in the fasting state
- with plenty of water. The patient must also stay upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent reflux
- esophagitis.
- NSAIDs are the first-line therapy for treatment of acute gouty arthritis. Coichicine is considered
- as second-line therapy due to its side effects of nausea and diarrhea Glucocorticoids are indicated
- in patients with a contraindication to both NSAIDs and coichicine, such as patients with renal
- failure Uricosuric agents and allopurinol are contraindicated dunng acute attacks however, they
- are used as prophylactic treatment in certain patients.
- Methotrexate is the preferred disease-modifying treatment for patients with moderate to severe
- rheumatoid arthritis Methotrexate treatment may cause stomatitis and liver function
- abnormaIthes
- 1. Many drugs can accelerate (induce) the hepatic metabolism of warfarin leading to reduced
- anticoagulation and enhanced thrombotic risk These include antibiotics such as rifampin and
- griseofulvin as well as antiepileptic drugs such as barbiturates, carbamazepine, and phenytoin
- 2. Warfarin metabolism may be inhibited by antibiotics such as tnmethopnm, isoniazid, and
- fluconazole, as well as other drugs such as cimetidine Inhibition of warfarin metabolism can
- increase the risk of bleeding.
- All patients beginning treatment with TNF-o inhibitors should be evaluated for latent
- tuberculosis.
- 178
- Isoniazid (INH) can be directly hepatotoxic, causing acute mild hepatic dysfunction in 10-20%
- of patients. In a smaller percentage of cases, frank hepatitis may develop, causing fever,
- anorexia, and nausea.
- The suffix of a biological agent indicates whether a medication is a monoclonal antibody (mab),
- a receptor molecule (cept), or a kinase inhibitor (nib) Monoclonal antibodies also include in their
- names the type of target (eg, bacterial or immune system) and their origin (eg, human or mouse)
- Colchicine inhibits tubulin polyrneiization and microtubule formation in leukocytes, reducing
- neutrophil chemotaxis and emigrabon to sites inflamed by uric acid crystal deposition in acute
- gouty arthritis Many patients treated with coichicine also develop diarrhea as the gastrointestinal
- mucosa is adversely affected by colchicine
- Earty Lyme disease causes flu-like symptoms and erythema chronicum migrans The second
- stage of Lyme disease may involve AV block and Beirs palsy Chronic Lyme disease can cause
- chronic asymmetric large joint arthntis and encephalopathy Lyme disease is easily treated with
- doxycycline or penicdhn-type antibiotics
- Allopunnol is the best long4erm treatment choice for chronic tophaceous gout regardless of the
- urinary excretion of uric acid, In patients who excrete large amounts of uric acid, uricosuric
- drugs should be avoided to prevent uric acid nephrohthiasis.
- Protease inhibitors are anti-HIV medications that inhibit cleavage of the polypeptide precursor
- into mature viral proteins Their side effects as a class include hyperglycemia. lipodystrophy, and
- drug-drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome p-450
- lsoniazid is metabolized by acetylation. The speed with which a patient is able to acetylate drugs
- depends on whether they are genetically “fasr or slow” acetylators The presence of fast and slow
- acetylators within the same population results in a bimodal distribution of the speed of isoniazid
- metabolism Slow acetylators are at increased risk of adverse side effects.
- Drug induced lupus has been linked to drugs that are metabohzed by N-acetylation in the hver
- Two classic examples include hydralazine and procainamade Genetic predisposition determines
- acetylator phenotype and it appears that patients who are slow acetylators are at greater nsk for
- developing lupus-like syndrome Discontinuation of the offending agent is warranted only in
- patients who develop clinical symptoms of lupus
- The half-life of a drug (t 112) is a measure of how quickly a drug is eliminated from the body
- and how soon
- steady-state concentrations are achieved after repeated dosing. Generally, the half-Ide of a drug
- in plasma is
- a determinant of the duration of its pharmacologic effects in the body A drug is virtually totally
- eliminated after
- 5 half-life intervals To calculate half -kfe, use the formula
- t 112 = (V x In 2) I CL
- 179
- Coichicine is used for both acute gouty arthritis and prophylaxis of recurrent gouty arthritis
- Coichicine inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis by blocking tubulin polymerization
- Coichicine does not have any effect on the metabolism or urinary excretion of uric acid The most
- troublesome side effects of coichicine are nausea and diarrhea.
- TNF-a inhibitors (infliximab. etanercept. and adabmumab) decrease macrophage function and
- may cause reactivation of latent tuberculosis
- The paralytic action of nondepolanzing neuromuscular junction (NMJ)-blocking drugs can be
- reversed by anticholinesterase agents such as neostigmine. Succinylchohne is a depolarizing
- NMJ blocker that is augmented by neostigmine during phase I block but reversed by neostigmine
- during phase II block The duration of paralysis caused by succinylchohne depends largely on its
- catabolism by plasma cholinesterase.
- In first-order kinetics, a constant fraction (or proportion) of drug is metabolized per unit time
- based on the serum concentration In zero-order kinetics, a constant amow#of drug is metabolized
- per unit tame, independent of concentration
- Tetracycline use duñng pregnancy can cause fetal bone growth retardation and discoloration of
- the deciduous teeth
- A high synovial fluid white blood cell count (100.000/pL) and absent crystals on microscopic
- examination strongly suggest bacterial joint infection. Septic arthritis requires immediate
- antibiotic treatment to prevent joint destruction, osteomyelitis, and sepsis.
- Acetaminophen toxicity can be effectively treated by sulIhydryl group Supplementation. N-
- acetyl cysteine provides the sulfhydryl groups. NAC also acts as a glutathione substitute and
- binds to the toxic metaboifte.
- Cokhicine affects tubulin polymehzation into microtubules. Important side effects of colchácines
- are nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea.
- As a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM). raloxifene binds to estrogen receptors and
- exhibits tissue-specific behavior that either imitates or antagonizes the effects of natural estrogen
- In bone, the estrogen agonist effects of raloxifene predominate and osteoporosis is inhibited In
- mammary tissue, the estrogen antagonist effects of raloxifene predominate and protection is
- provided against estrogen receptor- positive breast cancer.
- Acute extrapyrarnidal symptoms (eg, dystonic reactions. akathisia, and parkinsonism) are related
- to an imbalance between dopamine (D2) and muscarinic (M1) activity in the nigrostriatal tract
- Traditional-high potency antipsychotics (haloperidol. fluphenazine) strongly block D. receptors
- and are the most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms.
- A decrease in the intravascular fluid volume stimulates aldosterone secretion and leads to
- increased excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions in the urine This results in hypokalemic
- 180
- metabolic alkalosas, which is a common side effect of most diurehcs other than the potassium-
- sparing class Hypokalema manifests with muscle weakness and cramping
- A side effect of hydrochlorothiazide is that it increases the absorption of calcium from the distal
- convoluted tubules within the nephron, making it an ideal agent for treating hypertension or CHF
- in a woman who is also at nsk for osteoporosis Furosemide will increase urinary calcium loss,
- making it a possible treatment for hypercalcemia. but not for women with porous bones,
- References:
- 1 Effect of thiazide on rates of bone mineral loss: a longitudinal study.
- 2. Do b.ta-blockers and thiazld.s reduc. fracture risk?
- PHARMACOLOGY-Neuro 1
- Muscarinic antagonists inhibit the postsynaptic action of acetyicholine, and botulinum
- neurotoxin blocks the presynaptic exocytosis of acetyicholine vesicles Organophosphates
- prevent the degradation of acetyicholine within the synaptic cleft Anticholinergic poisoning,
- botulism, and organophosphate toxicity affect nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
- differently, and thus produce different symptomatologies
- Sympathetic output to the viscera is transmitted through two-neuron units that synapse on
- noradrenergic receptors of the target organs The sympathetic innervation of the adrenal and
- sweat glands differs from this typical setup
- The onset of action of a gas anesthetic depends on its solubility in the blood (bloodlgas partition
- coefficient). Drugs with high blood/gas partition coefficients are more soluble in the blood and
- demonstrate slower onset of action and slower equilibration with the brain.
- Cholinomimetics are indicated in non-obstructive urinary retention, paralytic ileus, and glaucoma
- Their side effects include nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea. dyspnea and increased
- secretions (sweating, lacrimation and salivation).
- Alpha-receptors inhibit insulin secretion and beta-receptors stimulate insulin secretion
- Pretreatment with an alpha-blocker would result in predominance of beta-effects
- Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as imipramine doxepin. amitriptyhne. and clomipramine
- have stronger anticholinergic properties than heterocyclics or SSRIs and should be used with
- caution in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), as they may cause urinary retention.
- References:
- 1. Antimuscarinic and other receptor-blocking properties of antidepressants.
- 2. Effects of treatments for symptoms of painful diabetic neuropathy: systematic review
- Antimuscarinic agents and antihistamines with antimuscarinic action are most effective for
- motion sickness prevention.
- 181
- Carbamazepine is used for simple partial. complex partial. and generalized tonic-clonic seizures
- It acts by blocking voftage-gated sodium channels in neuronal membranes Carbamazepine can
- cause bone marrow suppression, so blood counts should be revewed often
- Rifampin is most typically used as chernoprophylaxis of meningococcal meningItis. It must be
- prescribed to all close contacts of any patient who has active disease within 2 weeks of diagnosis
- in order to be effective. Vaccine is typically not used for post exposure prophyIaxis it is used to
- develop population immunity in at-risk groups such as military recruits, college freshmen and
- healthcare Workers.
- Sertralineisserotonin-speciflc reuptake inhibitor (SSRIs) that has a better side effect profile
- compared to tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Sexual dysfunction is a relatively common side
- effect of the SSRIs and limits their use for many patients.
- References:
- 1. Antidepressant-induced sexual dysfunction during treatment with moclobemide. parox.tin.,
- s.rtralin.. and venlafaxin.
- Berizodiazepines increase the frequency of opening of the CNS GABAA receptor-chloride
- channels and have anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant effects as well as sedative-
- hypnotic effects.
- Adding carbidopa can reduce most of the peripheral side effects of levodopa However,
- behavioral changes from levodopa can actually worsen with addhon of carbidopa because more
- dopamine becomes available to the brain.
- Massive hepatic necrosis is a rare but severe complication of halothane exposure It occurs due to
- direct liver injury by halothane metabolites and formation of autoantibodies against liver proteins
- Light microscopy shows massive centnlobular hepatic necrosis
- Co-administration of an SSRI and MAO inhibitor can produce excessive serotonin levels
- secondary to decreased reuptake and decreased metabolism Excessive serotonin evels can lead to
- the development of a potentially fatal condition known as serotonin syndrome To avoid the risk
- faq’ serotonin syndrome, it is recommended to wait at least 14 days after MAO inhibitor
- discontinuation before initiating SSRI therapy This should allow sufficient time for the
- regeneration of MAO
- Tngeminal neuralgia presents with brief episodes of sudden and severe electric shock-like or
- stabbing pain in the disthbution of CN V (particularly V2 and V3) Carbamazepine is the drug of
- choice
- References:
- Trigemmal neuralgia and Its management
- 2. Drug therapy of trigeminal neuralgia
- Minimal alveolar concentration is the best measure of potency of an inhaled anesthetic (actually
- ED50). The less MAC is required for anesthesia, the more potent the inhalation anesthetic is.
- 182
- Thiondazine causes retinal deposits that resemble retinitis pigmentosa Chiorpromazine is
- associated with Corneal deposits
- Lithium is almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys. with filtration and resorption in the
- proximal tubules following sodium reabsorption Renal injury, toxins, and drugs that lead to
- increased proximal tubular absorption of sodium (e.g NSJDs, thiazide diuretics, and ACE
- inhibitors) also increase lithium levels and elevate the nsk of lithium toxicity Hemodialysis is the
- most effective way of acutely reducing the blood lithium level
- References:
- 1 Clinic ance of drug inerictIons ..ih I[hcurn
- As opposed to the serotonin syndrome, the Neuroleptk Malignant Syndrome is distinguished
- clinically by an absence of myoclonus and by the presence of ngidity Dopamine agonists
- (bromocnptine) and/or direct muscle relaxants (dantrolene) have been used to decrease mortality
- rates associated with the neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), but there is no way to prevent
- NMS.
- 1 Antimuscahnic agents are usually pieferred in pabents with medicabon-induced Parkinsonism
- 2. Levodopa is contraindicated for drug-induced Partonsonism because it can precipitate
- psychosis
- Buspirone is considered a first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder. Dependence does
- not occur with chronic buspirone treatment, b the clinical response is often delayed for up to 2
- weeks of regular use and is not effective when used on an as-needed basis.
- Commonly used drugs such as the analgesic tramadol. the antiemetic ondansetron, and the
- antibiotic linezolid can induce serotonin syndrome when used concomitantty with other
- serotonergic drugs
- References:
- 1 Risk of serotonin syndrome with concomitant administration of linezolid and serotonin
- agonists.
- Benzodiazepines substitute for the action of alcohol on GABA receptors and are indicated for the
- treatment of alcohol withdrawal Long-acting benzodiazepines (chiordiazepoxide, diazepam) are
- first-line medications Short-acting benzodiazepines (lorazepam. oxazepam) are preferred in
- patients with advanced liver dysfunction.
- The “on-off’ phenomenon is an unpredictable and dose-independent characteristic of advanced
- Parkinson disease-there is no clear etiology this phenomenon On the other hand, the “wearing
- off” phenomenon of Parkinson disease is due to progressive destruction of striatonigral
- dopaminergic neurons over a period of time
- Zolpidem is a short-acting hypno& medication chemically unrelated to benzodiazepines It has
- the same mechanism of action as benzodiazepines, but a much lower risk of tolerance and
- dependence
- 183
- Treatment for narcolepsy includes scheduled daytime naps and psychostimulants (e.g..
- modafinil) for daytime sleepiness.
- Phenytoin’s undesirable cosmetic effects (hirsutisni, coarsening of facial features, acneiforrn skin
- rash, and gingival hypertrophy), limit its use It has also been associated with generalized
- lymphadenopathy (pseudotymphoma),
- Ampicillin is the treatment of choice for Listeria. It is not sensitive to cephalosporins. Listeria
- causes disease in neonates and immunocompromised adults.
- Sexual dysfunction is seen in up to 50% of patients treated with SSRIs. Symptoms include
- decreased libido. anorgasmia, and increased latency to ejaculation Bupropion is an excellent
- alternative
- Body temperature greater than 40 C is called hyperpyrexia and may lead to permanent brain
- damage if left untreated Emergent treatment of hyperpyrexia should consist of increasing body
- heat loss (cooling) and decreaseng the hypothalamic set pomt (antipyretics). Facilitating body
- heat loss takes precedence because it is effective immediately as opposed to antipyretics which
- take time to act
- disease due to increased intraocu’ar pressure. develops due to decreased outflow or increased
- production of aqueous humor Timolol and other beta-blockers decrease aqueous humor
- production by the ciliary epithelium
- Cholinergic agonists bind to muscahnic receptors on endothelial cells and promote release of NO
- (EDRF). NO activates guanylate cyclase and diminishes endothehum calcium concentration This
- produces vasodilatation.
- The use of opioids can lead to the development of tolerance or a decrease in opioid effectiveness
- and physiological response with continued use Tolerance to opioid induced constipation and
- miosis does not readily occur. To prevent bowel complications, it is recommended to treat
- patients prophylactically with adequate fluid intake and daily laxatives.
- Traditional high potency agents are more likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms and less
- likely to cause ariticholinergic and antihistamine side effects. In contrast, low potency
- antipsychotics more likely to cause ant)cholinergic and anti histamine side effects,
- (Mency = Extrafy’ramidal)
- Exacerbation of myasthenia graves in a patient treated wdh cholinesterase inhib4ors occurs due
- to myasthenic or cholinergic crisis The edrophonium (Tensdon) test helps to differentiate these
- two conditions Clinical improvement after edrophonium administration indicates that the patient
- is undertreated (myasthenic crisis)
- Unlike other traditional antipsychotks, which act on D2 receptors. clozapine acts on D4 receptors
- Due to the nsk of life-threatening agranulocytosis with clozapine, the FDA requires periodic
- 184
- monitoring of the white blood cell count (WBC) for the duration of treatment The other
- impoflant side effect of clozapine is seizures
- The tertiary amine physostigmine can reverse both the CNS and peripheral symptoms of severe
- atropine toxicity. The antichohnesterase agents neostigmine and edrophonium have a quatemary
- ammonium structure that limits CNS penetration
- Exposure to certain insecticides can cause organophosphate poisoning The resultant
- cholinesterase inhibition is profound and prolonged because organophosphates bind wreversably
- to cholinesterase This causes a state of chohnergic excess, marked by excessive salivation,
- lacnmation, diaphoresis, urinary incontinence, diarrhea, emesis, miosis and bradycardia
- Sodium bicarbonate is the single most effective agent in treating TCA-associated cardiac
- abnormalities
- Methadone is the drug of choice for treating heroin addiction and abuse It is a very potent. long
- acting opiate with good oral bioavadablity Its long half-life allows for prolonged effects to
- suppress withdrawal symptoms in heroin dependent patients
- The symptoms of schizophrenia include the following:
- 1, Positive symptoms hallucinations (usually auditory), delusions, and disorganized speech and
- behavior
- 2. Negative symptoms a decrease in emotional range, poverty of speech, and loss of interest in
- living
- The symptoms of schizophrenia include the following:
- 1. Positive symptoms: hallucinations (usually auditory), delusions, and disorganized speech and
- behavior.
- 2, Negative symptoms: a decrease in emotional range, poverty of speech, and loss of interest in
- living.
- Unlike first-generation neuroleptics, second-generation (atypical) agents (clozapine, risperidone,
- olan.zapine, quetiapine) improve both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
- References:
- 1. Pharmacological approaches to the management of schizophrenia.
- 1 Phenytoin, carbamazepine and vaiproic acid inhts neuronal high-frequency flung by reducing
- the abdity of sodium (Na’)channels to recover from mactivation
- 2 Ethosuximide is believed to block T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons causing
- hyperpolanzation and is approved for the treatment of absence seizures
- The autonomic nervous system utilizes three types of signal pathways: cAMP. lP3, and ion
- channels. Nicotinic receptors are hgand-gated ion channels that open after binding acetyIchoIine
- This results in an immediate influx of Na and C& into the cell and an outfiux of K from the cel
- References:
- 1. Neuromuscular junction in health and disease.
- 185
- Second-generation
- generation antihistamines htce fexofenadine have minimal sedative and antimuscannic
- effects
- 1. Buspirone is a selective
- tive agonist of the 5HT1A receptor and is a safe and effective treatment
- for generalized anxiety disorder It has no muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant properties
- 2 Buspirone is an anti-anxiety
- anxiety agent that is useful in patients wrth a history of abuse of anti-
- ant
- anxiety drugs due to its reduced potential for abuse compared to benzodiazepines
- Atropine is indicated for the treatment of bradycardia as it decreases vagal influence on the SA
- and AV nodes. A common side effect is increased intraocular pressure It m mayay precipitate acute
- closed-angle
- angle glaucoma in susceptible individuals.
- PHARMACOLOGY-Neuro
- Neuro 2
- Lithium is almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys. with filtrahon and resorption in the
- proximal tubules following sodium reabsorption. Renal injury, toxins, and drugs that lead to
- increased proximal tubular absorption of sodium (eg. NSAIDs, thiazide ddiuretics,
- iuretics, and ACE
- inhibitors) also increase lithium levels and elevate the nsk of lithium toxicity. Hemodialysis is
- the most effective way of acutely reducing the blood lithium level
- F References:
- 1 Clinical relevance of drug interactions with lithium
- As opposed to the serotonin syndrome. the Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is distinguished
- clinically by an absence of myoclonus and by the presence of ngidity Dopamine agonists
- (bromocriptine) and)or direct muscle relaxants (dantrolene) have been used to decrease mortality
- rates associated with the neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), but there is no way to prevent
- NMS
- Penicdhns and cephalosponns function by irreversdly binding to penicillin
- penicillin-binding
- binding proteins such
- as transpeptidases.
- Lamotrigine is a newer anticonvulsant used for the treatment of refractory partial seizures It may
- cause skin rash Because this rash is life threatening in children, the drug should be discontinued
- immediately at the first sign of rash
- F References:
- 1. Predictors of Lamotrigine-associated
- associated rash.
- 2. The new anti.pil.ptic drugs
- 3. Rash In adult and pediatric patients treated with lamotngine
- Sexual dysfunction is seen in up to 50% of patients treated with SSRIs Symptoms include
- decreased libido, anorgasmia, and incr
- increased
- eased latency to ejaculation Bupropion is an excellent
- alternative.
- 186
- Benzodiazepines (lorazepam) are first-hne agents in the management of status epdepticus
- Phenytoin (or fosphenytoin) is administered simultaneously to prevent the recurrence of seizures.
- Phenytoin inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of sodium (Na)
- channels to recover from inactivation.
- Essential tremor is the most common movement disorder. Patients experience a slowly
- progressive symmetric postural and/or kinetic tremor that most commonly affects the upper
- extremities. Essential tremor is believed to be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, hence,
- it is sometimes also referred to as familial tremor. First-line treatment is the nonspecific beta-
- adrenergic antagonist propranolol.
- Inhibehon of uterine contractions (tocolysis) is a result of 132 adrenergic receptor stimulation
- Alpha -1 receptor stimulation causes contraction of the ocular puplary dilator muscle, resulting in
- mydriasis (pupillary dilation).
- First generation Hi-histamine receptor antagonists, including diphenhydramine and
- chiorpheniramine, can cause significant sedation. especially when used with other medications
- that cause CNS depression (such as benzodiazepines)
- References:
- 1. Influence of lansoprazole treatment on diazepam plasma concentrations
- 2. Ranitidine does not impair oxidative or conjugative metabolism: noninteraction with
- antipyrin., diaz.pam. and loraz.pam
- Unlike other traditional antipsychotics. which act on 02 receptors. clozapine acts on D4
- receptors. Due to the risk of life.threatening agranulocytosis with clozapine, the FDA requires
- penodic monitorin9 of the white blood cell count (WBC) for the duration of treatment The other
- important side effect of clozapine is seizures
- 4Jmost all volatile anesthetics increase cerebral blood flow It is an undesirable effect as it results
- m increased ICP Other important effects of inhalation anesthetics are myocardial depression,
- hypotension, respiratory depression and decreased renal function
- Benzodiazepines increase the frequency of opening of the CNS GABAA receptor-chloride
- channels and have anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant effects as well as sedative-
- hypnotic effects.
- Chohnergic agonists bEnd to muscarinic receptors on endothehal celts and promote release of
- NO (EDRF). NO activates guariytate cyclase and diminishes endothehum calcium concentration
- This produces vasodilatation
- Remember — drugs that may cause seizures:
- Bupropion (antidepressant)
- Isoniazid (anti-tuberculosis drug, if given without pyridoxine)
- Imipenem (antibiotic)
- 187
- ____s._. .I V —.
- Exposure to certain insecticides can cause organophosphate poisoning. The resultant
- cholinesterase inhibition is profound and prolonged because organophosphates bind irreversibly
- to chohnesterase This causes a state of chohnergic excess, marked by excessive salivation,
- lacrimation. diaphoresis. urinary incontinence, diarrhea emesis. miosis and bradycardia
- Phenytoin’s undesirable cosmetic effects (hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, acneiform skin
- rash, and gingival hypertrophy), limit its use It has also been associated with generalized
- lymphadenopathy (pseudolymphoma)
- Co-administration of an SSRI and MAO inhibitor can produce excessive serotonin levels
- secondary to decreased reuptake and decreased metabolism Excessive serotonin levels can lead
- to the development of a potentially fatal condibon known as serotonin syndrome To avoid the
- risk for serotonin syndrome, it is recommended to wait at least 14 days after MAO inhibitor
- discontinuation before lnItlatln9 SSRI therapy This should allow sufficient time for the
- regenerabon of MAO.
- Migraine headaches are unilateral. have a pulsating or throbbing quality, and are associated with
- photophobia, phonophobia. and nausea Tnptans are sei-otonin 5-HTd5-HT,0 agonists used as
- abortive therapy during an acute migraine Beta-blockers, antidepressants (eg, amitnptyiine and
- venlafaxine), and anticonvulsants (eg, vaiproate and topiramate) are commonly used for
- migraine prophylaxis.
- Sodium vaiproate is the drug of choice for patients with absence and associated tonic-clonic
- seizures Ethosuximide is also effective against absence seizures but does not suppress tonic-
- clonic seizures.
- Glaucoma, a disease due to increased intraocu’ar pressure. develops due to decreased outflow or
- increased production of aqueous humor Timolol and other beta-blockers decrease aqueous
- humor production by the ciliary epithehum
- Calcium channel blockers, specifically Nimodipine. can be used to assist in the prevention of
- cerebral vascular spasm following SAH This is an alternative use of calcium channel blockers
- References:
- 1. Nimodipine and its use in cerebrovascular disease: evidence from recent preclinical and
- controlled clinical studies.
- 2. Calcium antagonists for aneurysmal subarachnoid ha.morrhage.
- Minimal alveolar concentration is the best measure of potency of an inhaled anesthetic (actually
- ED50) The less MAC is required for anesthesia, the more potent the inhalation anesthetic is.
- Antimuscarinic agents and antihistamines with antimuscarinic action are most effective for
- motion sickness prevention
- 188
- The onset of action of a gas anesthetic depends on its solubility in the blood (blood/gas partition
- coefficient). Drugs with high blood/gas partition coefficients are more soluble in the blood and
- demonstrate slower onset of action and slower equilibration with the brain
- A majonty of opioid narcot,cs are selective mu receptor agonists that work by binding to mu
- receptors and mimicking the effects of endogenous opioid peptides Pentazocine is an opioid
- narcotic specificalty designed to produce analgesic effects with little to no abuse potential
- Pharmacc4ogically, it worksks through partial agonist activity and weak antagonist activity at mu
- receptors. Because of its weak antagonistic effects, it can cause withdrawal symptoms in patients
- who are dependent or tolerant to morphine oi other opioids
- 1. Selegiline is an inhibitor of MAO. type B and can prevent MPTP MPTP-induced
- induced damage of
- dopaminergic neurons
- 2 Selegiline is used clinically to delay the progression of Parkinson disease
- 3, Many neurologists favor the use of combinations of selegihne, antichohnergics. and
- amantadine
- antadine until they no longer provde control of symptoms Only then is levodopa/carbidopa
- introduced
- Buspirone is considered a first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder. Dependence does
- not occur with chronic buspirone treatment, but the clin
- clinical
- ical response is often de’ayed for up to 2
- weeks of regular use and is not effective when used on an as
- as-needed basis
- Cholinomimetics are indicated in non
- non-obstructive
- obstructive urinary retention, paralytic ileus, and glaucoma
- Their side effects include nausea, vom
- vomiting,
- iting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, dyspnea and increased
- secretions (sweating, lacrimation and saIivation)
- .ILIl.ISI II V V.
- Commonly used drugs such as the analgesic tramadol. the antiernetic ondansetron, and the
- antibiotic linezolid can induce seroto
- serotonin
- nin syndrome when used concomitantly with other
- serotonergic drugs.
- R.f.r.nc.s:
- 1. Risk of serotonin syndrome with concomitant administration of linezolid and serotonin
- agonists.
- 1 Antimuscannic agents are usually preferred in patients with medication
- medication-induced
- induced Parkinsonism
- 2. Levodopa is contraindicated for drugdrug-induced
- induced Padansonism because it can precipitate
- psychosis
- 189
- Muscannic antagonists inhibit the postsynaptic action of acetyicholine. and botuhnum neurotoxin
- blocks the presynaptic exocytosis of acetyicholine vesicles. Organophosphates prevent the
- degradation of acetyicholine within the synaptic cleft. Anticholinergic poisoning, botulism, and
- organophosphate toxicity affect nicotinic and muscarinic acetyicholine receptors differently, and
- thus produce different symptomatologies.
- The mnemonic for the clinical manifestations of atropine poisoning is: wblind as a bat, mad as a
- hatter, red as a beet, hot as a hare. dry as a bone, the bowel and bladder lose their tone, and the
- heart runs alone” Atropine is a reversible chohnergic antagonist that acts selectively on
- muscarinic receptors Its effects can be reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors (physosbgmine).
- Methadone is the drug of choice for treating heroin addiction and abuse. It is a very potent, long
- acting opiate with good oral bioavailabihty. Its long half-life allows for prolonged effects to
- suppress withdrawal symptoms in heroin dependent patients.
- Lithium, vaiproic acid, and carbarnazepine are mood stabihzing agents. Vaiproic acid and
- carbamazepine also work as anticonvulsants Vaiproic acid increases the inhtitory effect of
- GABA in the CNS.
- Arteriovenous concentration gradient reflects the solubihty of anesthetic in tissues Highty
- soluble anesthetics are charactenzed by high artenovenous concentration gradients and slow
- onset of action
- The first-generation antihistaminics, chiorpheniramine and diphenhydramine, have antimusc
- arinic, anti-alpha adrenergic, and anti-serotonergic properties that are responsible for the
- majority of side effects.
- Antidepressants, when used in the depressEve phase of bipolar disorder wahout an antipsychotic
- or mood stabilizer, can precipitate a mania
- A chronically progressive pe-senile dementia with cortical atrophy but no other radiological or
- laboratory abnormalities permits a clinical diagnosis of Alzheimei’s disease (AD), which is a
- diagnosis of exclusion Current AD-specific therapies include cholinesterase inhibitors
- (Donepezil), antioxidants (vitamin E), and NMDA receptor antagonists (e.g. memantine)
- Sertrahne is serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitor (SSRIs) that has a better side effect profile
- compared to tncychc antidepressants (TCAs). Sexual dysfunction is a relatively common side
- effect of the SSRIs and limits their use for many patients
- The autonomic nervous system utilizes three types of signal pathways cAMP, 1P3, and ion
- channels. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that open after binding acety$chohne
- This results in an immediate influx of Na and Ca into the cell and an outfiux of K from the cell.
- Ampicillin is the treatment of choice for Listeria It is not sensitive to cephaIosporins Listena
- causes disease in neonates and immunocompromised adults
- 190
- Akathisia is a movement disorder characterized by inner restlessness and an inability to sit or
- stand in one position. Onset of akathisia can be a complication of anti-psychotic therapy A
- diagnosis of akathisia is often missed because the movements and restlessness are msinterpreted
- as worsening psychotic behavior and agitation, and instead of decreasing the patients dose, the
- pat,ents neuroleptic dosing is often ,ncreased exacerbating the akathisia
- Cocaine intoxication causes agitation. dramatic symmetric pupillary dilation that remains
- responsive to light, tachycardia. and blood piessure elevation. Both cocaine and tricyclic
- antidepcessants inhibit neurotransmitter reuptake in adrenergic synapses
- PHARMACOLOGY-Oncology
- Folinic acid (leucovorin) can reverse the toxicity of methotrexate in non-cancerous cells in the
- GI mucosa and bone marrow if administered at the appropriate time Leucovorin, a 5-formyl-
- derivative of tetrahydrofolic acid, does not require the action of dihydrofolate reductase for its
- conversion to tetrahydrofolate
- Hemorrhagic cystitis during therapy with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide is caused by the
- urinary excretion of the toxic metabolite acrolein This can be prevented by aggressive hydration,
- bladder irrigation, and administration of mesna. a sulfhydryl compound that binds acrolein in the
- urine
- Ondansetron inhibits serotonin (5-HT3) receptors and is used primarily to treat nausea and
- vomiting following chemotherapy 5.HT3 receptors are located penpherally in the presynaptic
- nerve terminals of the vagus nerve in the GI tract These receptors are also present centrally in the
- chemoreceptor trigger zone and the solitary nucleus and tract.
- Methotrexate and 5-FU both effectively inhibt thymidylate formation. but the chemotherapeutic
- effect of methotrexate is overcome by N5-formyi-tetrahydrofolate (fohnic acid, leucovonn)
- suppIementation
- Cladnbine is a punne analog that achieves high intracellular concentrations because it is resistant
- to degradation by adenosine deaminase Cladribine is the drug of choice for hairy cell leukemia
- Some patients with non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC) harbor a chromosomal
- rearrangement that creates a fusion gene between EML4 (echinoderm microtubule-associated
- potein-like 4) and ALK (anaplastic lymphoma kinase) This results in a constitutive active
- tyrosane kinase that causes malignancy
- Neurotoxicity is the dose-limiting side effect of vincristine therapy This toxicity results from
- failure of microtubule polymerization in neuronal axons. Other notable adverse effects
- classically associated with chemotherapeutic agents include pulmonary fibrosis and flagellate
- skin discoloration with bleomycin use; congestive heart failure with doxorubicin; and
- hemorrhagic cystitis with cyclophosphamide.
- 191
- Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent that inhibits the sealing activity of topoisomerase Ii
- Treatment with etoposide causes chromosomal breaks to accumulate in dividing cells, ultimately
- causing cell death
- 6-mercaptopurine is mainly degraded in the liver by xanthine oxidase Allopurinol, which is an
- inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, can increase the concentration of 6—rnercaptopurine significantly
- Both 6-mercaptopurine and 6-thioguanine are prodrugs that require activation by HGPRT.
- The ymca alkaloids are cell-cycle specific agents that prevent proper separation of chromosomes
- into daughter cells during the M-phase of the cell cycle. The main dose-limiting side effect of
- vincristine is neurotoxicity, which commonly manifests as peripheral neuropathy
- The human multidrug resistance (MDRI) gene codes for P-glycoprotein, a transmembrane ATP-
- dependent efflux pump protein that has a broad specificity for hydrophobic compounds This
- protein can both reduce the influx of drugs into the cytosol and can increase efflux from the
- cytosol, thereby preventing the action of chemotherapeutic agents.
- Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that is structurally similar to folk acid. It competitively
- inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase. which catalyzes the synthesis of tetrahydrofolate
- Failure of dihydrofolate reductase causes the intermediate dihydrofolic acid polyglutamate to
- accumulate within treated cells.
- Aggressive hydration and amifostine should be UtiliZed to prevent nephrotoxicity in patients
- receiving a platinum-based chemotherapeutic regimen.
- PHARMACOLOGY-Pulmonology
- In a young Caucasian, a history of recurrent respiratory infections with P aelz.çlnosa, chronic
- diarrhea, weight loss, and death of a sibling due to respiratory infection suggests a diagnosis of
- cystic fibrosis (CF) Chronic diarrhea and weight loss in patients with CF are typically caused by
- malabsorption secondary to pancreatic insufficiency and can be corrected by pancreatic enzyme
- supplementation
- Acute obstruction of the small airways in infants is usually secondary to respiratory sync ytial
- virus (RSV) bronchiolitis. Ribavirin is an antMral drug that may be of benef ii RSV
- bronchiolitis, especially in patients with severe infection who are at risk for disease progression
- References:
- 1. Respiratory syncytlal virus disease: update on treatment and prevention.
- Rif;rnpwiisan;ntimycobactenal drug that blocks the action of the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA
- polymerase, thereby inhibiting transcnption The subsequent absence of mRNA leads to a
- deficiency of proteins necessary for bacterial survival Rifampin resistance is acquired by
- modification of the nfampin binding site on the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
- 192
- lsoniazid is stwcturally similar to pyridoxine (vitamin B) As a result, this antibiotic increases the
- urinary excretion of pyridoxine — often causing a frank deficiency of vitamin B — and
- competes for vitamin B6-binding sites, leading to the defective synthesis of neurotransmitters
- like GABA lsoniazid-iriduced neuropathy can usually be prevented with pyndoxine
- supplementation
- Isoniazid is chemically related to pyridoxine, also known as Vitamin B6 It inhibits mycolic acid
- synthesis in mycobacterial cells and is specific to the mycobacteria. Mycolic acid is a long
- branched chain saturated fatty acid used in the mycobacterial cell wall and in the formation of
- virulence factors
- N-acetylcysteineis a mucolytic agent used in the treatment of CF N-acetylcysteine works by
- cleaving the disulfide bonds within mucus glycoproteins. thus loosening thick sputum
- Mycobacterial resistance to isoniazid can be accomplished through non-expression of the
- catalase-peroxidase enzyme or through genetic modification of the isoriiazid binding site on the
- mycolic acid synthesis enzyme.
- Echinocandins (eg caspofungin and micafungin) are a newer group of antifungal medications
- that inhibit synthesis of the polysaccharide glucan, an essential component of the fungal cell wall
- Alcoholics are more likely than the general population to develop pulmonary infections and
- abscesses involving combinations of anaerobic oral flora (Bacteroides. Prevotella.
- Fusobacterium, and Peptostreptococcus) and aerobic bacteria Clindamycin covers most of these
- organisms and is thus the antibiotic of choice for treating lung abscesses.
- References:
- 1. How important are anaerobic bacteria In aspiration pneumonia: when should they be treated
- and what Is optimal therapy.
- 2. Etiology and outcome of community-acquired lung abscess.
- 3, Aspiration pneumonia and primary lung abscess: diagnosis and therapy of an aerobic or an
- anaerobic infection?
- Antimuscannic agents (ipratropium) only reverse vagally-mediated bronchoconstriction
- Methyixanthines like theophylline and aminophylline cause bronchial dilatation by decreasing
- phosphodiesterase enzyme activity, thereby increasing intracellular cAMP.
- MycobacteriUm avium is a common opportunsbc pathogen that causes disseminated disease
- (MAC) in HIV+ patients Weekly azithromycin is used as prophylaxis in patients at risk for MAC
- (eg, HIV+ patients with CD4 counts less than 50 cells/mL).
- References:
- 1. Infections due to non-tub.rculous mycobactena (NTM).
- 2. The pathophysiology of disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex disease in AIDS.
- • The aminoglycoside streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the 30S (small)
- ribosomal subunit
- 193
- • Decreased activity of bactenal catalase-peroxidase is one mechanism of mycobactenal
- resistance to isoniazid
- • Structural alteration of enzymes involved in RNA synthesis (DNA-dependent RNA
- polymerase) is the mechanism through which organisms become resistant to ntampin
- Cromolyn and nedocromd are mast cell stabihzing agents They inhibit mast cell degranulation
- independent of stimuli present These are less effective than inhaled glucocorticoids. and are
- considered second-line for the treatment of allergic rtiinitis and bronchial asthma
- References:
- 1. The effects of anti-asthma drugs on mediator release from cultured human mast cells.
- 2. Mast-cell stabilising agents to prevent .xercis.4nduc.d bronchoconstriction.
- Bosentan is a competitive antagonist of endothelin receptors used for treatment of primary
- (idiopathic) pulmonary arterial hypertension.
- Isoniazid is an antimycobacterial agent that specificaWy inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids.
- Mycolic acids are essential components of the unique mycobacterial peptidoglycan cell wall.
- Without mycolic acids, the mycobactena lose their acid-fastness and become unable to
- synthesize new cell walls or multiply
- Every patient using inhaled corticosteroids should be instructed about oral rinsing to prevent
- oropharyngeal candidiasis.
- References:
- 1. Salivary IgA and oral candidlasis In asthmatic patients treated with Inhaled corticosterold.
- 2. Influence of mouth washing procedures on the removal of drug residues following inhalation
- of corticosteroids.
- 3. Oesophageal candidiasis in elderly patients: risk factors, prevention and management.
- Rifampin is the preferred prophylaxis for persons who have been definthvely exposed to IV
- mening#ichs Rifampin can eliminate the camer state as well as prevent active infection in those
- who have been exposed to N ,nen,ngitidis Rifampan as also used as a component of multi-agent
- therapy for both typical and atypical mycobactenal pulmonary infections, leprosy, and
- staphylococcal endocardatis When used alone, bacteria rapidly acquire resistance to nfamp*n
- through spontaneous genetic mutations of the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA potymerase
- The main groups of antifungal drugs are the polyenes, azoles, echinocandins and pyrimidines
- The polyene antifungals (amphotencin B and nystatin) act by binding ergosterol in the fungal cell
- membrane
- Azoles inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol by the fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes They also
- suppress the human P450 system, resulting in many drug-drug interactions
- Cortácosteroids have the strongest and most predictable effects on the inflammatory component
- of asthma
- References:
- 1. Evidence-based selection of inhaled corticosteroid for treatment of chronic asthma.
- 194
- 2. Efficacy and safety of Inhaled corticost.rolds In asthma. Report of a workshop held In Eze,
- Franc., October 1992.
- 3. Review Pharmacological treatment of airway remodeling: inhaled corticosteroids or
- antileukotrienes?
- Ethambutol is noted for causing optic neuritis that results in color blindness, central scotoma, and
- decreased visual acuity This adverse side effect may be reversible with discontinuation of the
- drug
- Non-selective 3-adrenergic blockers cause bronchoconstriction. peripheral vasospasm, and can
- predispose diabetic patients to hypoglycemia Selective f3-blockers (metoprolol, atenolol.
- acebutolol, and esmolol) are preferred in patients with COPD and/or asthma
- Seizures are the major cause of morbidity and mortality from theophylline intoxication
- Tachyarrhythmias are the other major concern.
- Seizures are the major cause of morbidity and mortality from theophylline intoxication
- Tachyarrhythmias are the other major concern
- References:
- 1 Role of extracorporeal drug removal in acute iheophylline poisoning. A review.
- 2. First-line therapy for theophylline-associated seizures.
- Ethambutol is an antimycobactenal agent that inhibits carbohydrate polymeñzation, thereby
- preventing peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis One unique adverse effect of ethambutol is optic
- neuritis, which typically presents in conjunction with decreased visual acuity, central scotoma
- and color blindness
- Active tuberculosis is never treated with drug monotherapy due to the fast emergence of
- mycobacterial antibiotic resistance from rapid. selective gene mutations. Isoniazid monotherapy
- may be used for patients who have a positive PPD and a negative chest x-ray (ie, no evidence of
- clinical disease)
- R.f.r.nc.s:
- 1. The catalas.-p.roxldas. gene and isoniazid r.sistanc. of Mycobact.num tub.rculosis.
- 2. Modification of the NADH of the isoniazid target (InhA) from Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- Arnphotencln t3 binds tfle ergosterol ot tungal cell memoranes to exert its antitungal ettects
- However, it also binds cholesterol to some degree, causing toxicity to human tissues, The most
- important adverse effects of amphotencin B are nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia. and
- hypomagnesemia
- Of the first-line agents for MycabacteriUm tuberculosis, only pyrazinamide requires an acidic
- environment (as is present within macrophage phagotysosomes) to exert antimicrobial effects
- Isoniazid, fliampin, and ethambutol are more active than PZA against extraceflular mycobacteria
- 195
- PHARMACOLOGY-Renal
- Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist commonly used in treating class Ill and IV heart
- failure patients. Since it is structurally similar to steroids. spironolactone can cause endocrine
- effects including gynecomastia, decreased libido, and impotence. Gynecomastia occurs in
- approximately 10 % of patients. Eplerenone is a newer and more selective aldosterone antagonist
- that may produce less endocrine effects.
- Mannitol is an osmotk diuretic that works by increasing plasma or tubular fluid osmolality
- Increased plasma and fluid osmolality causes extraction of water from the interstitial space into
- the vascular space or tubular lumen, with subsequent diuresis. h, the brain, water redistribution
- from the tissues into the plasma helps reduce edema and intracranial pressure in the setting of
- cerebral edema. One of the more severe toxicibes of aggressive osmotic diuretics is pulmonary
- edema
- R.f.r.nc.s:
- 1 Mannitol revisited
- Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is predominantly cleared by the kidneys. Elderly patients
- typically exhibit age-related renal insufficiency, even in the presence of normal creatinine levels.
- The dose of digoxin must be reduced in these patients in order to prevent toxicity.
- Calcineuhn is an essential protein in the activation of IL-2, which promotes the growth and
- differentiation of T ceIls Immunosuppressants such as cyclosporine and tacrohmus wOrk by
- inhibiting calcineurin activation
- Amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal notorious for its renal toxicity Severe hypokalemia and
- hypomagnesemia are commonly seen during therapy, and often require daily supplementation.
- Acyclovir can cause crystalline nephropathy if adequate hydration is not also provided.
- Thiazide diuretics work by blocking Na”-Ci’ symporters in the distal convoluted tubules, causing
- enhanced Na, Cl, and water excretion. Since only a small amount of filtered Na” reaches the
- distal tubules, thiazides are not as efficacious as loop diuretics. Unlike loop diuretics, thiazides
- can cause hypercalcemia
- Common side-effects of ACE-inhibftors include decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR),
- hyperkalemia. and cough Angioedema is a rare, but hie-threatening. side-effect.
- Thiazide diuretics are the only diuretics that increase calcium reabsorption from the nephron.
- They are indicated in patients with nephrolithiasis secondary to hypercalciuria and
- contraindicated in hypercalcemia.
- Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentrations in the proximal tubule and is responsible for
- catalyzing reactions necessary for NaHCO3 reabsorption Acetazolamide is a diuretic that works
- by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase, which effectively blocks NaHCO and water reabsorption in the
- 196
- poximal tubules resulting in unnary bicarbonate wasting. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are also
- used to relieve intraocular pressure in open-angle and angle-closure glaucoma.
- References:
- 1 Ophthaproblem. Acute angle-closur, glaucoma.
- Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist with mild diuretic effects. Based on results from the
- RALES trial, addition of low dose spironolactone to standard therapy sgniticantly reduced
- morbidity and mortality in class Ill and IV heart failure patients The benefits of spironolactone in
- heart failure patients are more than likely secondary to inhibition of the neurohormonal effects of
- aldosterone leading to decreased ventricular remodeling and cardiac fibrosis.
- Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus is the result o( lithium’s inhibitory action on vasopressin
- receptors in the collecting ducts
- Foscamet is an analog of pyrophosphate that can chelate calcium and promote nephrotoxic renal
- magnesium wasting These toxicities can result in symptomatic hypocalcemia and
- hypomagnesemia
- Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia are common electrolyte disturbances in patients undergoing
- treatment with amphotencin B. Hypokalemia and hypomagnesernia reflect an rncrease in distal
- tubular membcane permeability
- Loop diuretics woric by inhibiting Na’-K-2C1 symporters in the thick ascending limb of the loop
- of Henle and effectively block Na’ and Cl- transport resulting in increased Na, Cl-, and H0
- excretion They are the most potent class of diuretics and are used for treating edema in many
- different conditions Common side effects include hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and
- hypocalcemia
- Ototoxicity secondary to loop diuretics usually occurs with higher dosages, rapid intravenous
- administration, or when they are used in combination with other ototoxic agents
- (aminoglycosides, salicylates, and cisplatin) Hearing impairment is usually reversible but has
- been reported to be permanent in some cases
- References:
- 1. Systematic review noninvasive testing for Chiamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
- 197
- PHARMACOLOGY-Vascular
- Many drugs can cause nephrotoxkity and ARF via different mechanisms ki particular, ACE
- inhibitors can cause an acute nse in the serum creatinine by blocking angeotensin mediated
- efferent artenole vasoconstriction This leads to a reduction in renal filtration fraction. For
- patients dependent on efferent artenole constriction to maintain renal perfusion (those with renal
- artery stenosis), ACE inhibitors can be detnmental by precipitating acute renal failure
- References:
- 1 The r.nin-angiotensin aldosterone system: pathophyslological role and pharmacologic
- Inhibition.
- Efficacy is a measure of the maximum pharmacodynamic effect achievable with a dwg Potency
- refers to the dose of drug that is required to produce a given effect. Drugs that bind their
- receptors with a higher affinity or are better able to gain access to th& target tissues will have
- greater potency (lower ED).
- The HOPE tnal demonstrates the potential benefits of ACE inhibitors in patients with signthcant
- cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease. Although ACE inhibitor therapy should be
- considered in most patients. the development of ARF may preclude the use of these agents in
- patients with extensive atherosclerotic disease and concomitant bilateral renal artery stenosis.
- Treatment with statins causes hepatocytes to increase their LDL receptor density as a means of
- increasing their uptake of circulating LDL
- CoUgh is a very well recognized side effect of ACE inhibitor therapy. Cough secondary to ACE
- inhibitor therapy is characterized as dry, nonproductive, and persistent The mechanism behind
- ACE inhibitor induced cough is accumulation of bradykinin. substance P. or prostaglandins.
- Because angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB5) do not affect ACE activity, they theoretically
- should not cause cough
- Niacin and fibrates are the most effective agents for the treatment of hypertnglyceridemia
- This is a very common clinical issue given the prevalence of diabetes in the US population. and
- the ACE-I class of drugs together with the ARB class of drugs have been shown to decrease the
- progression of diabetic nephropathy.
- First-dose hypotension is an adverse effect and concern when initiating ACE inhibitors
- Predisposing risk factors for first-dose hypotension include hyponatremia, hypovolemia
- secondary to diuretics, low baseline blood pressure, high renin or aldosterone levels, renal
- impairment, and heart failure To minimize the risk for first-dose hypotension, identify patients at
- nsk, initiate therapy at low dosages, and follow with cautious dosage titration and blood pressure
- monitoring
- Myopathy is a well-known side effect of some hypolipidemic drugs (especially statins)
- Simvastatin decreases and cholestyramine increases hepabc cholesterol production
- 198
- independently Combination therapy results in a net decrease m hepatic cholesterol synthesis and
- plasma
- LDL level Agents that increase hepatic cholesterol synthesis (eg., fibrates and bile acid—binding
- acid
- agents) are associated with an increased risk of galls
- gallstones.
- References:
- 1 0. ?rvIe of pharma: olocjic therap r L irnen r
- Simvastatin decreases and cholestyramine increases hepabc cholesterol production
- independently Combination therapy results in a net decrease m hepatic cholesterol synthesis and
- plasma
- LDL level Agents that increase hepatic cholesterol synthesis (eg., fibrates and bile acid—binding
- acid
- agents) are associated with an increased risk of gallstones.
- References:
- 1 0. ?rvIe of pharma: olocjic therap r L irnen r
- Fatty oxidation inhibitors are
- re newer agents that inhibit fatty acid oxidation and shift energy
- production to glucose oxidation, thus promoting oxygen efficiency. This not only decreases the
- amount of oxygen needed to support cardiac function, but also decreases potentially toxic fty
- acid metabobte production.
- Charactehstcs of a drug such as high molecular weight. high plasma protein binding, high
- charge. and hydrophihcity tend to trap the drug in the plasma compatment resulting in a low Vd
- (3-5 L).
- al -adrenergic agonists increase
- se both systolic and diastolic blood pressure via stimulation of ala
- drenoreceptors in the vascular walls Elevated systemic blood pressure is associated with a reflex
- increase in vagal influence on the heart This results in decreased heart rate, contractility,
- contractil and
- conductance
- References:
- 1 Sympathetic neural mechanisms in human cardiovascular health and disease.
- 2. N.ural control of the circulation.
- Low doses of dopamine stimulate Di receptors in the renal and mesentenc vasculature resulting
- in vasodilation and increased blood flow to these sites. Higher doses of dopamine increase
- cardiac contractility by stimulation of beta
- beta-i adrenergic receptors, and
- d still higher doses produce
- generalized vasoconstriction by an alpha
- alpha-i adrenergc effect
- 199
- References:
- 1. The pharmacological basis of the clinical use of dopamine.
- Drug class
- Primary indication Major toxicity
- Statins High LDL Hepatitis, myopathy
- Niacin Low HDL Cutaneous vasodilation
- Hypergycernia (acanthosis nigricans)
- Hyperuncernialgout
- Hepatitis
- Fibnc acid derivatives High TG Gallstones
- Myopathy (worse when combined with statins)
- Bile acid-binding resms High LDL GI upset
- Hypertnglyceridemia
- Malabsorption
- Topical preparations of o-adrenergic agonists cause vasoconstriction of the nasal mucosa vessels
- and are used as decongestants Overuse of these drugs causes negative feedback, resufting in
- decreased norepinephrine synthesis and release from nerve endings, which diminishes their
- effect (ie, tachyphy1axis)
- Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used in hypertension that can lead to flushing and
- peripheral edema
- ARBs work by blockmg AT-f receptors and inhibiting the effects of angiotensin I[ This results in
- arterial vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion Since ARBs work at the level of AT-i
- receptors and do not affect ACE activity, they do not interfere with bradykinin degradation or
- levels By blocking AT-i receptors, ARBs also interfere with negatwe feedback mechanisms
- resulting in increased renin, angiotensin I, and angiotensin II levels.
- 1. The combination of statins plus fibrates increases the risk of myopathy in patients being
- treated for hyperhpidemia Statin use is also associated with hepatotoxicity
- 2. The combination of fibric acid denvates and bile acid-binding resins increases the risk for
- cholesterol gallstones. This reflects an increased cholesterol concentration ii bile
- 1. Niacin is believed to inhibit hepatic VLDL production It is mainly used to increase HDL
- levels.
- 2. Statins inhibit cholesterol synthesis and thereby up-regulate the LOL receptors
- 200
- Bile acid-binding resins can cause constipation and abdominal bloating (potentially worsening
- diverticulosis), hypertriglyceridemia, cholesterol gallstones, and vitamin K malabsorption.
- ACE inhibitors cause renal failure by altering renal hemodynamics. ACE inhibition results m
- efferent arteriole dilatation, thereby decreasing glomerular pressure and renal perfusion For
- patients dependent on efferent artenole constriction to maintain renal perfusion (those with renal
- artery stenosis), ACE inhibitors can be detrimental causing acute renal failure or complicating
- existing renal disease
- References:
- 1. Ath.roscl.rotic r.nal artery st•nosis, ACE inhibitors, and avoiding cardiovascular d.ath.
- One major pathway that regulates the RAAS involves the beta-adrenergic receptor pathway The
- beta-adrenergic pathway is mediated through sympathetic stimulation of beta-i receptors located
- on juxtaglomerular cells Beta adrenergic blockers like propranolol inhibit renin release by
- blocking the beta-i receptor mediated pathway Thus, beta adrenergic blockers can also reduce
- angiotensin I, angiotensin II, and aldosterone levels, Since beta blockers do not affect ACE
- activity, they do not affect bradykinin levels.
- Angioedema is a rare but potentially serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitor therapy occurring in
- less than I % of patients. Although it can affect any tissue. angioedema most commonly involves
- swelling of the tongue, lips, or eyelids and patients can also experience laryngeal edema and
- difficulty breathing ACE inhibitor induced angioedema is more than hkely due to increased
- bradykinin levels as a result of ACE inhibition
- Ref erences:
- 1. Bradykinin and the pathophysiology of angioedema.
- Bile acid-binding resins are unique among hypohpidemic agents m that they rncrease blood
- triglyceride levels Fibnc acid derivatives are the first-line treatment for hypertriglycendemia
- References:
- 1. Hypertriglyceridemia: a contraindication to the use of bile acid binding resins.
- 2. An overview of lipid-lowering drugs.
- Most statins are metabolized by cytochrome P-450 3A4, with the exception of pravastatin
- Concomitant administration of drugs that inhibit statin metabobsin (e.g. macrohdes) is associated
- with increased incidence of statin-induced myopathy and rhabdomyolysis Acute renal failure is a
- possible sequela of rhabdomyolysis
- R•f•r• nc.s:
- 1. Risk management of simvastatin or atorvastatin interactions with CYP3A4 inhibitors.
- ACE inhibitors block the effect of ACE. decreasing angiotensin II and aldosterone levels. By
- decreasing angiotensin II levels. ACE inhibitors directly interrupt negative feedback loops, thus
- increasing renin and angiotensin I levels. Without effective ACE, bradykinin metabolism
- decreases and bradykinin levels will inCrease.
- 201
- Cilostazol is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used in pabents with intermittent claudication In
- addition to inhibition of platelet aggregation. cilostazol is also a direct arterial vasodilator
- Cilostazol has been shown to be superior to aspirin in the treatment of penpheral artenal disease
- References:
- 1 Safety and efficacy of cilostazol in th. management of intermittent claudication.
- 2. Cilostazol has beneficial effects in treatment of intermittent claudication: results from a
- multicenter. randomized, prospective, double-blind trial.
- 3. Management of lower .xtr.mity peripheral arterial disease.
- Phenoxybenzarnine is a nonselective. irreversible a-i and a-2 adrenergic antagonist that
- effectively reduces the number of receptors availab’e for norepinephrine binding Because
- phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible antagonist, even very high concentrations of norepinephnne
- cannot overcome its inhibitory effects.
- 1 Alpha 1 -blockers such as Doxazosin. Prazosin and Terazosin are useful for the treatment of
- both benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension
- 2. Patients with coronary artery disease and heart failure along with hypertension will benefit
- from cardioselective beta-blockers
- 3. Hydrochlorothiazide is presently the first-line medication for the treatment of essential
- hypertension in the general population.
- Niacin can potentiate the effects of some anti-hypertensive medications because of its
- vasodilatory effects. Dose adjustment may be required Niacin also causes insulin resistance and
- oftentimes necessitates an increase in diabetes medications
- References:
- 1. Treatment of diabetic dyslipidemia.
- 2. Does nicotinic acid (niacin) lower blood pressure?
- Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that acts by converting plasminogen into plasmin, which
- subsequently degrades fibrin Its most common side effect is hernorrhage Streptokinase is a
- foreign protein derived from Streptococci and can induce hypersensitivity reactions.
- Fenoldopam is a newer parenteral agent that is classified as a selective dopamine-1 receptor
- agonist. It causes artenolar dilation and natnuresis leading to decreased systemic vascular
- resistance and blood pressure reduction. Since fenoldopam is the only intravenous agent that
- improves renal perfusion, it may be exceptionally beneficial in hypertensive patients with
- concomitant renal insufficiency.
- Norepinephrine stimulates cardiac 31 adrenoreceptors. which utilize the cAMP signal
- transduction pathway. Stimulation of these receptors by norepinephrine causes increases in
- cAMP concentration within cardiac myocytes.
- References:
- 1. Early administration of norepinephrine increases cardiac preload and cardiac output in septic
- patients with life-threatening hypotension.
- 202
- ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin Ito angiotensin II, thus reducing
- vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion Decreased aldosterone causes increased potassium
- retention, which can potentially lead to hyperkalemia Hyperl’calemia secondary to ACE
- inhibitor therapy is most common in patients with renal insufficiency and in patients taking K-
- spanng diuretics (amilonde, tnamterene, and spironolactone) or K’ supplements
- Blanching of a vein into which norepinephrine (NE) is being infused together with induration
- and pallor of the tissues surrounding the IV site are signs of NE extravasation and resulting
- vasoconsthction Tissue necrosis is best prevented by local injection of an aiphal blocking drug,
- such as phentolamine
- During continuous infusion of a drug metabolized by first-order kinetics, the steady state
- concentration is reached in 4 to 5 hatt-Iives
- Aldosterone excess Wril cause hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and depressed
- renin Alternatively, hypoaldosteronism is the cause of type IV renal tubular acidosis Aldosterone
- antagonists such as spironolactone or eplerenone can be used as medical therapy for Conn’s
- syndrome
- Epinephrine increases systolic blood pressure (al + p1), increases heart rate (p1), and either
- increases or decreases diastolic blood pressure depending on the dose (either al or 132
- predominates) Pretreatment with propranolol eliminates the 3 effects of epinephnne
- (vasodilatation and tachycardia), leaving onty the a effect (vasoconstriction).
- Nitroprusside is the agent of choice in treating hypertensive emergency. It has a quick onset of
- action and short duration of action Nitroprusside is initially metabohzed to cyanide, with
- subsequent conversion to thiocyanate by liver rhodanase Thus, one major disadvantage of its use
- involves the risk for developing cyanide toxicity Sodium thiosulfate is used to treat cyanide
- toxicity and works by donating sulfur to hver rhodanase to enhance conversion of cyanide to
- thiocyanate
- 1. Patients with familial hypoalphalipoproteinemia (low HDL) are at increased risk of
- developing premature coronary artery disease Niacin (vitamin B3) is the best agent currently
- available to increase HDL cholesterol levels
- 2. Statins and ezetimibe are mainly used for hypercholesterolemia (high LDL). High LDL is a
- risk factor for atherogenesis
- 3, Fibnc acid derivatives are mainly used for hyperinglycendemia Remember that severe
- hypertnglyceridernia can cause pancreatitis
- Ref erences:
- 1, High- density lipoprotein therapy: is there hop.’
- 1. The cutaneous flushing associated with ruacin is mediated by prostaglandins and can be
- prevented with aspirin pre-treatment
- 2. Capsaicin reduces pain by decreasing the level of substance P in the penpheral nervous system
- References:
- 1. Niacin use and cutaneous flushing: mechanisms and strategies for prevention.
- 203
- 2. Aspirin reduces cutaneous flushing after administration of an optimized
- •xtend.d-r.l.as. niacin formulation.
- Both gemfibrozil and cholestyramine increase cholesterol excretion by the Wver Along with the
- reduction in serum LDL, there is an increased risk for gallstone formation
- References:
- 1. Role of fiurates and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors in gallstone formation:
- •pld.mlologlcal study In an uns.l.ct.d population.
- 2. Triglycerides and gallstone formation.
- 3. Biliary lipids, lithogenic index and biliary drug concentrations during etofibrate and
- bezaflbrate treatment.
- 204
- PHYSIOLOGY-Cardiology+Vascular
- The total resistance for a group of vessels arranged in parallel is equal to one divided by the sum
- of the inverse values for resistance of each of the contributing vessels as follows 1ITPR = 1/Ri +
- 1/R2 + 1/R3 + 1/Rn. Total body circulation can be best descnbed as a parallel circuit, whereas
- circulation in an individual organ is often best described by a series arrangement.
- Educational Objective:
- Atnal natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted by atrial cardiomyocytes in response to atnal stretch
- induced by hypertension or hypervolemia ANP actions include peripheral vasodilation and
- increased urinary excretion of sodium and water.
- Exercising muscles can receive up to 85% of the total cardiac output during periods of strenuous
- activity thanks to local release of vasodilatory factors. Although sympathetic discharge during
- exercise causes an increase in cardiac output and increased contraction of blood vessels, there is
- only a modest blood pressure increase because the vasodilatation within muscle so significantly
- decreases the total systemic vascular resistance
- An increased ejection fraction (increased stroke volume) is represented on a ventricular pressure-
- volume loop as a widening of the graph. The isovolumetnc relaxation hne is shifted to the left
- indicating less volume remaining in the ventricle after contraction is complete
- A holosystolic murmur that increases in intensity on inspiration most likely represents tricuspid
- regurgitation. The other holosystolic murmurs (which are secondary to mitral regurgitation or a
- ventricular septal defect) do not typically increase in intensity during inspiration
- Paroxysmal supraventncular tachycardia is a common dysrhythmia that frequently occurs in
- patients with no other heart disease The cause is typically a re-entrant circuit in the AV node
- Episodes are usually treated with adenosine in the hospital setting. but vagal maneuvers such as
- carotid sinus massage and Valsalva can also be used
- Only 10% of total perfusion through the myocardial capillaries of the LV occurs during systole,
- while the majority of left ventricular blood flow occurs during diastole. The systolic reduction in
- coronary blood flow is greatest in the subendocardial myocardium of the LV.
- Metabolic acidosis is characterized primarily by a decrease in serum bicarbonate and a decrease
- in pH. The PaCO. will also decrease as a resuft of respiratory compensation for the primary
- metabolic acidosis
- The treatment of choice for diabetic ketoacidosis is intravenous hydration with normal saline and
- insulin. These therapies will result in decreases in the serum glucose, osmolality, and potassium,
- as well as increases in serum bicarbonate and sodium
- Most of the blood supply to the heart occurs during diastole and the duration or length of diastole
- is a critical factor in determining coronary blood flow.
- 205
- Intravenous fluid infusions increase the intravascular volume by varying degrees depending on
- the composition of the solute. The resultant preload increase causes increased ventricular
- myocardial sarcomere length and thus increased stroke volume and cardiac output
- In cardiac pacemaker cells, phase 0 depolarization is mediated by an inward flux of calcium This
- differs from phase 0 of cardiomyocytes and Purkinje cells, which results from an inward sodium
- current.
- The carotid sinus is a dilatation of the internal carotid artery that lies at the bifurcation of the
- carotid artery Blood pressure increases or external pressure on the carotid sinuses stimulate
- baroreceptors in the carotid sinus walls, leading to vasodilatation. a decrease in heart rate and
- contractility, and a decrease in blood pressure
- Cardiac pacemaker impulse generation normally occurs in the SA node. which has the fastest
- firing rate of all conductive cells. The cells in other areas of the conduction system (eg, AV node,
- bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers) may serve as pacemakers if normal impulse conduction is
- impaired
- An S3 sound is a low frequency heart sound that can be physiologic in younger individuals It is
- typically pathologic in older adults, and in these patients. it generally results from left ventricular
- systolic failure or restrictive cardiomyopathy The S3 sound can be accentuated by having the
- patient lie in the left lateral decubitus position and fully exhale.
- Cardiac failure results in stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-
- angiotensin-aldosterone system Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is expressed by the
- vascular endothelium, particularly in the lungs, and functions to convert angiotensin Ito the
- functional angiotensin IL
- Arteriovenous (AV) shunts can be congenital or acquired acquired forms can result from medical
- interventions or penetrating injuries. AV shunts increase preload and decrease afterload by
- routing blood directly from the arterial system to the venous system, bypassing the arterioles.
- High-volume AV shunts can eventually result in high-output cardiac failure.
- Pressure-volume loops represent the relationship between pressure and volume in the left
- ventricle during systole and diastole. An increase in the circulating volume would increase
- preload and cause a rightward widenina of the nressiire-vnhime loon
- Blood flow is directly proportional to the vessel radius raised to the fourth power Resistance to
- blood flow is inversely proportional to the vessel radius raised to the fourth power
- ‘Water-hammer” pulses and head-bobbing with each heart beat (de Musset sign) are
- characteristic findings in patients with aortic regurgitation.
- Calcium efflux prior to myocyte relaxation is accomplished through the use of Ca2-ATPase and
- Na/Ca2 exchange mechanisms.
- 206
- Myocardial infarction causes a sharp decrease in cardiac ou
- output
- tput due to loss of function of a zone
- of myocardium On a cardiac function curve. myocardial infarction would decrease both the slope
- and the maximal height of the line.
- Pregnant women > 20 weeks gestation can experience compression of the inferior cava by the
- gravid uterus while in the supine position This reduces venous return and cardiac output. which
- can result in hypotension and syncope.
- Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that slows depolarization of cardiac slow-response
- slow tissue
- (sinoatrial
- al and atrioventncular nodes) by decreasing the calcium ion influx that occurs during
- phase 0 and the latter part of phase 4. Verapamil also decreases the amount of intracellular
- calcium available within cardiomyocytes (fast
- (fast-response
- response tissue), which can reduce
- red myocardial
- contractihty
- The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) measures the left atrial end diastolic pressure
- (LAEDP). Under normal conditions, the LAEDP is nearly equal to the LV end
- end-diastolic
- diastolic pressure
- (LVEDP). Mitral stenosis elevates the LAEDP and PCWP relative to the LVEDP
- Carrier-mediated
- mediated transport includes facihtated diffusion and active transpoit Movement of
- substrate across the cell membrane by these mechanisms depends on the presence of carrier
- proteins in the membrane. Transport mechanisms utilizing proteins are able to be saturated
- In patients with heart failure. compensatory activation of the renin renin-angiotensin
- angiotensin-akiosterone
- pathway and sympathetic nervous system results in increased afterload (from excessive
- vasoconstnction), excess
- xcess fluid retention, and deleterious cardiac remodeling.
- Atnal fibrillation occurs due to irregular. chaotic electrical activity within the atria While some
- of the atrial impulses are transmitted to the ventricles, most are not due to the AV nodal
- refractory period.
- The Fick principle can be used to calculate the cardiac output It states that the cardiac output is
- equal to the oxygen consumption by the tissues divided by the arteriovenous oxygen difference
- Any significant acute change in heart rarate
- te or rhythm or the force of ventricular contraction may
- cause palpitations. An irregularly irregular tachyarrhythmia in a conscious patient is most likely
- atrial fibrillation, the most common chronic arrhythmia In AF. the EKG shows absent p waves
- and irregularly
- gularly spaced ventricular contractions evidenced by a variable R
- R-R
- R interval
- The cardiac myocyte action potential consists of rapid depolarization (phase 0), initial rapid
- repolarization
- (phase 1), plateau (phase 2), late rapid repolarization (phase 3), and resting potential (phase 4).
- The action
- potential is associated with increased membrane permeability to Na and Ca4 and decreased
- permeability to K.
- 207
- Achrornc artenovenous shunt would increase cardiac output because of increased sympathetic
- stimulation to the heart, decreased total peripheral resistance, and increased venous return. It
- would also cause the venous return curve to shift to the right because the circulating blood
- volume is increased through renal retention of fluids and because venous pooling is reduced by
- the increased sympathetic tOne.
- Myocardial oxygen extraction exceeds that of any other tissue or organ in the body. Resting
- myocardium extracts 75% to 80% of the oxygen present in the blood, while myocardium at work
- extracts up to 90% of oxygen from the blood. Hypoxia and adenosine accumulation increase
- cardiac perfusion, which is the main mechanism by which increases in myocardial oxygen
- demand are satisfied.
- The classic cardiac auscultation findings in mitral valve stenosis include an opening snap
- followed by a diastolic rumbling murmur that is heard best over the apex of the heart On the
- ventricular pressure-volume loop, mitral valve opening occurs at the point between isovolumetnc
- relaxation and diastolic filling.
- Nitroprusside is a short-acting balanced venous and arterial vasodilator that decreases both
- preload and afterload Since these changes are balanced, stroke volume is maintained
- Ventricular pressure and volume curves allow one to identdy the phases of the cardiac cyc’e and
- to determine the exact time of opening and closure of the cardiac valves.
- The law of conservation of mass applied to the steady state flow of an incompressible fluid
- through a system of cylinders of varying cross sectional areas tells us that
- Total Flow = Flow Velocity x Cross Sectional Area = Constant
- Skeletal muscle is resistant to the effect of calcium channel blockers because it does NOT
- require an influx of extracellular calcium for excitation-contrachon coupling, whereas cardiac
- and smooth muscle depend on extracellular calcium entering the cell via voltage-gated gated L-
- type calcium channels for
- excitation-contraction coupling These voltage-gated calcium channels are the target of verapamil
- and other calcium channel blockers.
- The cardiac action potential conduction velocity is slowest in the AV node and is fastest in the
- Purkinje system The conduction speed of the atnal muscle is higher than that of the ventncular
- muscle
- The action potential of pacemaker cells includes phases 0, 3, and 4 Phase 4 consists of
- spontaneous depolarization and occurs due to the closure of K channels, the slow influx of Na,
- and the opening of T- and L-type Ca channels. Acetyicholine and adenosine reduce the rate of
- spontaneous depolarization in cardiac pacemaker cells
- Nitric oxide is the most important mediator of coronary vascular dilation in large arteries and
- pre-arteriolar vessels. ft is synthesized from arginine and oxygen by endothelial cells and causes
- vascular smooth muscle relaxation by a guanylate cyclase-mediated cGMP second messenger
- 208
- system. Adenosine, a product of ATP metabolism, acts as a vasodilatory element in the small
- coronary arterioles.
- PHYSIOLOGY-Endocrine+GIT+Neuro
- A scotoma is a visual field defect that occurs due to a pathologic process that involves parts of
- the retina or the optic nerve resulting in a discrete area of altered vision surrounded by zones of
- normal vision Lesions of the macula cause central scotomas
- Progressively weakening diaphragmatic contractions during maximal voluntary ventilation with
- intact phrenic nerve stimulation indicate neuromuscular lunction pathology (eg, myasthenia
- gravis) and/or abnormally rapid diaphragmatic muscle fatigue (eg. restrictive lung or chest wall
- disease)
- Cholecystokinin (CCK) is the hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction It is made in the
- duodenum and jejunum in response to fatty acids and amino aCids.
- Elevated serum FSH level confirms menopause and can be used if the diagnosis is uncertain.
- Atthough LH level is also elevated, it is a later and less prominent phenomenon.
- The suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythm. It processes light information received
- from the retina and relays it to other hypothalamic nuclei and the pineal gland to modulate body
- temperature and the production of hormones such as cortisol and melatonin Melatonin
- supplementation is recommended for the treatment of insomnia associated with jet lag
- Hypoglycemia can be precipitated in a diabetic patient after vigorous exercise due to increased
- glucose uptake by muscles as well as rapid subcutaneous insulin absorption when the injection
- occurs in a limb that is subsequently exercised
- Mu receptors are G protein-hnked receptors whose actions are mediated through various
- secondary messenger pathways. One identified pathways involves increased potassium efflux.
- Binding of morphine to mu receptors results in G protein-coupled activation of potassium
- conductance. Potassium efflux increases and causes hyperpolarization of postsynaptic neurons
- effectively blocking pain transmission.
- Volume contraction and volume expansion can be dMded into isoosmotic, hypoosmotic and
- hyperosmotic forms. The loss of free water with retention of electrolytes is seen in diabetes
- insipidus and in excessive sweating without fluid and solute replacement. These conditions cause
- hyperosmotic volume contraction.
- Insulin opposes glucagon action. Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis
- and ketone body production while insulin increases glucose. amino acid and potassium uptake by
- cells, inhibits ketoacid formation and inhibits Ilpolysis.
- 209
- Pulsatile administration of GnRH agonists stimulates FSH and LH release and is useful for the
- treatment of infertility. Nonpulsatile (constant) infusion of GnRH, or a longer-lasting analogue,
- suppresses FSH and LH release and is useful for the treatment of the other diseases listed in the
- scenario
- Neuromuscular hyperexcitability can become clinically apparent when serum calcium levels are
- TO mg/dL. A common cause of hypocalcernia is primary hypoparathyroidism, which is often
- due to loss of parathvroid tissue durinci thvroidectomv.
- Neurophysins are carrier proteins for oxytocin arid vasopressin (ADH) Oxytocin and vasopressin
- are carried by unique neurophysins from their site of production in the cell bodies of the
- paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei to their site of release in the axon terminals of the posterior
- pituitary Point mutations in neurophysin II underlie most cases of hereditary hypothalamic
- diabetes insipidus. a disorder resulting from insufficient ADH
- C peptide can be used as a marker of the total rate of endogerious 13—cell insulin secretion
- under steady-state conditions. Sulfonylureas increase the rate of insulin secretion and C peptide
- levels in patients with type 2 diabetes.
- The length constant is a measure of how far along an axon an electrical impulse can propagate. A
- low-length constant reduces the distance an impulse can travel. Myelination increases the ‘ength
- constant and decreases the time constant, both of which improve axonal conduction speed.
- Demyelination thus impairs stimulus transmission.
- Inhibin B is produced by the Sertoli cells and is the physiological inhibitor of FSH secretion LH
- concentration is controlled primarily by testosterone feedback
- Patients undergoing total gastrectomy require lifelong vaamin B, supplementation due to the
- poor B12 absorption that occurs with intrinsic factor deficiency
- Elevated systemic T3 and T4 (via intracellular conversion to T3) cause negative feedback on the
- hypothalamus and anterior pituitary leading to decreased TSH production and release T4 can be
- converted in the peripheral tissues to the more active T3 or to the inactive rT3. T3 cannot be
- converted to rT3 or to T4 Exogenous T3 administration causes decreased TSH levels, which act
- upon the thyroid gland to reduce endogenous T4 production (and thus reduce peripheral
- conversion to rT3)
- Energy is supplied by the metabolism of protein. fat and carbohydrates Metabolism of 1 g of
- protein or carbohydrate produces 4 cal of energy. while metabolism of 1 g of fat produces 9 cal.
- Neurophysins are proteins involved in the posttranslational processing of oxytocin and
- vasopressin These hormones and their respective neurophysins are produced within the neuronal
- cell bodies of the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei and they are released into the circulation
- from axon terminals in the posterior pituitary gland
- 210
- The action potential results from changes in the membrane permeability to K and Na ions.
- Depolarization results from massive influx of Na through voltage-gated Na channels
- Repolarization occurs due to closure of voltage-gated Na channels and opening of voltage-gated
- K channels. K ion permeance is highest during the repolarization phase of the action potential.
- The main cell types that express GLUT 4 glucose transporter are adipocytes and skeletal muscle
- cells; their glucose uptake is insulin-mediated.
- Transport of glucose into the cells of most tissues occurs by means of facilitated diffusion
- Glucose moves from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration with the help of
- transmembrane glucose transporter proteins (GLUT) These carrier proteins are stereoselective
- and have preference for D-glucose
- Cortisol has several permissive effects For example. cortisol increases vascular and bronchial
- smooth muscle reactivity to catecholamiries.
- Duodenal S-cells secrete secretin in response to increasing W conceritrations Secretin increases
- pancreatic bicarbonate secretion The chloride content of pancreatic secretions decreases in
- proportion to bicarbonate concentration increases
- Beta-endorphin is one endogenous opioid peptide that is derived from proopiomelanocortin
- (POMC). POMC is a polypeptde precursor that goes through enzymatic cleavage and mod
- ification to produce not only beta-endorphins, but also ACTH and MSH The fact that beta-
- endorphin and ACTH are derived from the same precursor suggests that there may be a close
- physiological relationship between the stress axis and the opioid system.
- Thyroid peroxidase catalyses iodide oxidation, the formation of mono- and diiodotyrosine, and
- the coupling that forms T3 andT4.
- Anovulation is a common cause of infertility One way to treat anovulation is the administration
- of drugs that act like FSH and LH Treatment with menotropin (human menopausal
- gonadotrophin) acts like FSH and leads to the formation of a dominant ovarian follicle Ovulation
- is then induced by administration of a large dose of hCG, which simulates the LH surge
- Pancreatic exocrine secretions are the major source of bicarbonate entering the duodenum
- Secretin is the hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate-rich secretions from the
- exocrine pancreas Secretin is produced by S enteroendocnne cells in the duodenal mucosa in
- response to stimulation by intraluminal acidity Hydrochloric acid is the most potent stimulus for
- secretin release
- The cephalic and gastric phases stimulate gastric acid secretion. while intestinal influences tend
- to reduce gastric acid secretion
- Parietal cells release hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen by means of the H/K ATPase. which
- requires hydrolysis of ATP and is therefore an active transport mechanism Omeprazole and other
- 211
- proton pump inhibitors suppress the activity of the gastric parietal cell H/K ATPase leading to an
- increase in the pH of the gastric lumen
- The resting potential of the neuronal membrane is close to the equilibrium potential of potassium
- because the resting membrane is most permeable to potassium. Changes in the membrane
- potential occur in response to changes in neuronal membrane permeability to various cellular
- ions The more permeable the membrane becomes to a cellular ion, the more that ion’s
- equilibrium potential contributes to the total membrane potential.
- Lipids (triglycerides. cholesterol and phospholipids) are digested in the duodenum and absorbed
- in the jejunum Bile acids are necessary for lipid absorption Cholecystectomy typically has little
- effect on lipid digestion and absorption though patients may find it difficult to eat a large fatty
- meal.
- PHYSIOLOGY-Musculoskeletal+Skin
- Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results in a decrease in acetyicholine receptors
- on the postsynaptic terminal of the muscle end plate. This results in decreased ability of
- acetytcholine to bind and open postsynaptic cation channels, thereby decreasing the end plate
- potential.
- The treatment of myasthenia gravis involves cholinesterase inhibitors, immunosuppressants and
- possibly thymectomy Cholinesterase inhibitors may cause adverse effects related to muscarinic
- overstimulation, which can be ameliorated by use of an antimuscarinic agent like scopolamine
- During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum arid
- binds troponin C thereby allowing the binding of actin to myosin
- During the skeletal muscle contraction cycle. ATP binding to myosin causes release of the
- myosin head from its binding site on the actin filament.
- The H band is the region of the sarcomere containing only myosin thick filaments It is the part of
- the A band on either side of the M line where myosin thick filaments do not have any
- overlapping actin thin filaments.
- Once specific channels are open. ions will flow across the membrane to bring the resting
- membrane potential toward their equilibrium potential.
- T-tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma that extend into each muscle fiber They transmit
- depolarization signals to the sarcoplasmic reticulum and trigger the release of calcium The
- uniform distribution of T-tubules ensures coordinated contraction of all myofibrils
- 212
- The resting membrane potential is the difference in the electrical charges across the cell
- membrane under steady-state conditions. The ions that are most permeable to the cell membrane
- make the largest contribution to the resting membrane potential In general. a high potassium
- efflux and some sodium influx are responsible for the value of the resting potential. which is
- typically about -70 mV
- In healthy individuals, the differences in the bone density curves can be best explained by
- genetic differences. Other factors, like calcium intake and daily physical activity, play a smaller
- roIe These lifestyle modifications should not be ignored, however, as women at risk for
- osteoporosis can modify their environmental factors to achieve their maximum potential bone
- density.
- The contractile mechanism in skeletal muscle depends on proteins (myosin II, actin,
- tropomyosin, and troponin) as well as calcium ions.
- The muscle spindle system is a feedback system that monitors and maintains muscle length,
- while the Golgi tendon system is a feedback system that monitors and maintains muscle force
- GTOs are exquisitely sensitive to increases in muscle tension but are relatively insensitive to
- passive stretch
- Bone-specific akaIine phosphatase reflects osteoblastic actMty Tartrate-resistant acid
- phosphatase, urinary hydroxyproline, and urinary deoxypyridinoline reflect osteoclastic activity;
- urinary deoxypyridinoline is the most reliable of the three.
- Postural skeletal muscles such as the soleus and paraspinal muscles contain predominantly Type
- I slow twitch, red muscle fibers that derive ATP primarily from oxidative (aerobic) metabolism
- Apocrine sweat gland secretion is initially odorless but can become malodorous secondary to
- bacterial decomposition on the skin surface.
- • The main action of PTH on bone is increased bone resorption PTH acts on osteoclasts by an
- indirect method It is osteoblasts, not osteoclasts that have PTH receptors PTH causes osteoblasts
- to increase the production of RANK-hgand and monocyte colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF);
- these two factors stimulate osteoclastic precursors to differentiate into bone-resorbing, mature
- osteoclasts
- • PTH increases serum calcium level and decreases serum phosphate level (the phosphate is lost
- to urine).
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- PHYSIOLOGY -Pulmonology+Haematology
- During aerobic exercise, increased skeletal muscle CO2 production increases the PCO2 of mixed
- venous blood Homeostatic mechanisms maintain artenal blood gas levels and arterial pH near the
- resting values.
- The residual volume (RV) is the lung volume that remains after maximal expiration The RV is
- increased in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) This increase is illustrated on the
- above graph by a larger-than-normal lung volume at the end of maximal exhalation
- Normal tracheal p0. is 150 mm Hg and normal alveolar p0. is 104 mm Hg The equilibration of
- 02 in a normal individual at rest is perfusion-limited Situations where 0. equilibration can
- become diffusion-limited include disease states such as emphysema and pulmonary fibrosis, and
- physiologically in states of very high pulmonary blood flow, such as during exercise.
- Three variables affect the total oxygen content of blood: 1 Hemoglobin concentration, 2 Oxygen
- saturation of hemoglobin (SaC2) and 3 The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in blood (Pa02)
- The pulmonary vascular bed is relatively unique in that hypoxemia causes a vasoconstrictive
- response. Such hypoxic vasoconstriction occurs in the small muscular pulmonary arteries in
- order to divert blood flow away from underventilated regions of the lung toward more well-
- ventilated areas
- The minute ventilation is equal to the product of the tidal volume and the respiratory rate and
- includes dead space ventilation. The alveolar ventilation does not take into account the air in the
- physiologic dead space. It is the product of the respiratory rate and the difference between the
- tidal volume and the dead space volume.
- High &titude exposure lasting more than a few days results in hypoxemia with a chronic
- respiratory alkalosis. The corresponding decrease in serum bicarbonate levels reflects renal
- compensation
- Panic attacks are associated with hyperventilation and decreased pCO Hypocapnia causes
- cerebral vasoconstnction and decreased cerebral blood flow
- The integrated cardiorespiratory response to exercise includes increased heart rate, increased
- cardiac output, and increased respiratory rate in order to balance the increased total tissue 02
- consumption and CO2 production. These increases are coordinated so that arterial blood gases
- remain relatively constant, while venous PC2 is decreased and venous pco2 is increased.
- The center of the airway pressure-volume curve is the functional residual capacity (FRC) of the
- lungs; it identifies the resting state where the airway pressure equals zero At the FRC, the
- intrapleural pressure is negative with a value of -5 cm H20
- 214
- Carbon monoxide (CO) binds to hemoglobin with much higher affinity than 02, thus preventing
- oxygen binding to hemoglobin. It also reduces oxygen unloading from hemoglobin in the tissues
- CO poisoning does not affect the Pa02 and does not precipitate methemoglobinemia.
- Factor Xa inhibitors are a new class of anticoagulants with specific activity against factor Xa
- without significant antithrombin activity. These drugs increase the prothrombin and activated
- partial thromboplastin times but do not affect the thrombin time. Hepann and drugs that directly
- inhibit thrombin formation can prolong TT.
- Nocturnal upper airway obstruction (manifested by snoring) and episodic nocturnal apnea
- characterize obstructive sleep apnea, a condition associated with systemic hypertension
- Prolonged, untreated obstructive sleep apnea can also cause pulmonary hypertension and right
- heart failure
- Anaphylaxis is the resuft of widespread mast cell degranulation Although histamine is the major
- effector of anaphylaxis, tryptase is also released in excess and can be used as a marker for mast
- cell activation.
- Degrariulation of mast cells is accomplished by the cross-linking of multiple membrane-bound
- IgE antibodies by a specific antigen, resulting in lgE-Fc receptor aggregation on the cell surface
- The p02 in the left athum is lower than that in the pulmonary capillaries because deoxygenated
- blood originating from the bronchial arteries mixes with oxygenated blood in the pulmonary
- veins
- Stimulation of the vagus nerve branches that supply the lung would cause bronchoconstriction
- and increased bronchial mucus secretion. These effects increase airway resistance and the work
- of
- breathing. Anticholinergic agents such as tiotropium and ipratropium work to counteract these
- effects.
- Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is lowest at the functional residual capacity Inhalation
- increases PVR due to the pressure placed on pulmonary vessels by the expanding alveoli Forced
- exhalation increases PVR due to the collapsing positive pressure placed on the lung parenchyma
- Total body iron content is regulated through hepeidin’s effects on the absorption of dietary iron
- by intestinal epithelial cells and the release of iron by macrophages
- Hospitalized and postoperative patients are at risk for pulmonary embolism, which presents with
- tachypnea, tachycardia, cough and pleuritic chest pain Hypoxemia in patients with pulmonary
- embolism develops due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch
- Erythrocytosis is defined as a hematocrit level > 52% in men and > 48% in women Measurement
- of red blood cell mass is necessary to distinguish absolute from relative erythrocytosis. A normal
- red blood cell mass indicates plasma volume contraction as the cause of polycythemia
- 215
- pCO2 is the most potent cerebral vasodilator. It decreases cerebral vascular resistance leading to
- increased cerebral perfusion and increased intracranial pressure. Patients with COPD usualty
- have low p02 (hypoxia) and high pCO2 (hypercapnia). Thus their cerebral circulation is most
- likely to be increased
- Restnctive lung diseases are associated with decreased lung volumes, as well as increased
- expiratory flow rates at the corresponding lung volumes. The expiratory flow rates are increased
- due to decreased lung compliance (increased elastic recoil) and increased radial traction exerted
- on the conducting airways by the fibrotic lung
- Determining the difference between the alveolar and arterial P02 (A-a gradient) can help
- determine the cause of hypoxemia The arterial PC2 is measured with an arterial blood gas
- analysis, and the alveolar P02 is determined using the alveolar gas equation
- Cystic fibrosis isa common autosomal recessive disease that usually results from a mutation in
- the CFTR gene on chromosome 7. The CFTR protein is a transmembrane ATP-gated chloride
- channel.
- The methacholine challenge test can be used to induce bronchoconstnction in patients with
- asthma, thereby allowing demonstration of the disease on spirometry Methacholine is a
- muscarinic cholinergic agonist that acts by inducing bronchial smooth muscle contraction and
- increased bronchial mucous production
- Hypoventilation causes an increase in artenal pCO and a decrease in the serum pH (respiratory
- acidosis). Acute respiratory acidosis presents with a low pH, a high pCO2 and a normal to mildly
- increased HCO because renal compensation requires at least 24 hours of persistent respiratory
- acidosis. Chronic respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low normal pH, a high pCO and a
- high HCO; (> 30).
- The pulmonary circulation is part of a continuous circuit with the systemic circulation The rate
- of blood flow through the pulmonary circulation must equal the rate of blood flow in the
- systemic circulation at all times The arterial pressures and oxygen contents of the pulmonary and
- systemic arterial systems are considerably different both at rest and during exercise.
- PaCO2 is the major stimulator of respiration in healthy people. Even a slight increase in PaCO2
- results in increased pulmonary ventilation. In prolonged hypercapnia. however, high PaCO2
- ceases to stimulate the respiratory drive, In such patients. respiration is stimulated by hypoxia
- (low PaO) sensed by peripheral chemoreceptors. Rapid increases in the fraction of inspired
- oxygen may lead to respiratory failure in these patients.
- According to Laplace’s law, as the radius of a sphere with constant surface tension decreases, the
- distending pressure increases: thus, smaller spheres collapse before larger ones Surfactant
- counteracts alveolar collapse by decreasing surface tension as the alveolar radius decreases
- 216
- In general, inhaled particles are cleared by epithelial cilia (present to the level of the terminal
- bronchioles) via mucociliary clearance Mucus-secreting cells are present to the level of the
- smallest bronchi
- Perfusion increases significantly from the apex of the lung to the base, and ventilation increases
- slightly from the apex to the base For this reason the VIQ ratio decreases from the lung apex to
- the base
- The combination of acute onset dyspnea. calf swelhng. obesity. and a history of prolonged
- immobility is strongly suggestive of pulmonary ernbohsm A significant pulmonary embolism is
- associated with hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis.
- The majority of total frictional airway resistance is localized to the medium and small-sized
- bronchi greater than 2 mm in diameter in normal individuals. Regional airway resistance is
- maximal in the second to fifth generation airways, including the segmental bronchi Airway
- resistance is minimal in bronchioles
- Reduction in the slope of the curve depicting lung volume versus distending pressure indicates
- decreased lung compliance Decreased lung compliance is the hallmark of pulmonary fibrosis
- There are four major causes of hypoxemia (low Pa02): alveolar hypoventilation, ventilation-
- perfusion mismatch. diffusion impairment, and right-to-left shunting The A-a gradient is normal
- in alveolar hypoventilation and helps to distinguish this from the other types of hypoxemia
- Patients who receive the equivalent of more than one body blood volume (5-6 liters) of whole
- blood transfusions or packed red blood cells over a period of 24 hours may develop elevated
- plasma levels of citrate (a substance added to stored blood) Citrate chelates calcium and
- magnesium and may reduce their plasma levels, causing paresthesias
- Fibrinolytics may cause reperfusion arrhythmia on arterial re-opening These arrhythmias are
- usually benign.
- Dust particles smaller than 2 un in size reach the alveoli. They are taken up by macrophages and
- stimulate connective tissue growth The pneumoconioses are diseases that result from the
- inhalation of fine dust particles
- In left ventricular failure. fluid accumulation in the lung interstitium results in decreased
- compliance.
- Carbonic anhydrase activity within erythrocytes forms bicarbonate from CO: and water Many of
- the bicarbonate ions diffuse out of the RBC into the plasma To maintain the electrical neutrality
- chloride ions diffuse into the RBC to take their place This process is called chloride shift, and it
- is the principal cause of high RBC chloride content in venous blood.
- 217
- PHYSIOLOGY-Renal+Reproductive+Urinary
- Ureteral constriction or obstruction acutely decreases the GFR and glomerular filtration fraction
- The renal blood flow (RBF) refers to the volume of blood that flows through the kidney per unit
- time and can be calculated by dividing the renal plasma flow by (1 - hematocrit)
- PAH (para-aminohippurate) is filtered at the glomerulus into Bowmans space and is
- subsequently secreted into the nephron lumen by the proximal tubule. Thus, the lowest
- concentration of PAH in luminal fluid is in Bowman’s space.
- Due to ovarian failure, the majority of women with Turner syndrome can become pregnant only
- by in vitro fertilization using donor oocytes Turner syndrome patients have a normal uterus and
- so the endometrial response to estrogen and progesterone is norma[
- Metabolic acidosis is normally partially compensated for by respiratory alkalosis When the
- steady-state PaCO. persists above the range given by Winter’s formula (PaCO2 11 5 HCO] + 8 ±
- 2), the patient has a superimposed degree of respiratory acidosis and failure
- Acid excretion in urine occurs in the form of free hydrogen ions and titratable acids (NH4 or
- H2PO4 During
- metabolic acidosis, excretion of free W and titratable acids increases, excretion of HCQ3
- decreases, and urinary pH decreases.
- Normal renal handling of plasma glucose is characterized by complete reabsorption of low
- filtered loads at low plasma concentrations. Increasing fractional excretion of glucose is
- observed at higher plasma concentrations.
- Acute salicylate intoxication first causes an acute respiratory alkalosis If high doses are ingested,
- this phase is soon followed by a superimposed metabolic acidosis due to organic acid
- accumulation There may also be a slight metabolic alkalosis resulting from volume contraction
- related to vomthng
- The filtration fraction is the fraction of the RPF that is filtered across the glomerular capillaries
- into Bowman’s space It can be calculated by dividing the GFR by the RPF The GFR can be
- estimated with the creatinine clearance or inulin clearance, while the RPF is estimated with the
- PAH clearanCe.
- ADH acts primarily on the collecting ducts, increasing their permeability to water. In the
- presence of ADH, the urine is at its most concentrated at the ends of the collecting ducts In the
- absence of ADH, the tubular fluid is most concentrated at the junction between the descending
- and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle
- As the follicular phase advances, a progressive rise in serum estradiol is seen. High levels of
- estrogen in the late follicular phase have a positive feedback effect on LH production, causing a
- 218
- very high LH level, known as “LH surge” Progesterone secretion increases following ovulation
- with the formation of corpus luteum.
- As the foHicur phase advances, a progressive rise in serum estradiol is seen High levels of
- estrogen in the late follicular phase have a positive feedback effect on LH production, causing a
- very high LH level, known as “LH surge.” Progesterone secretion increases following ovulation
- with the formation of corpus luteum.
- Vasopressin produces a V2 receptor-mediated increase in permeability to water and urea at the
- luminal membrane of the inner medullary collecting duct The increase in urea reabsorption
- corresponds to a decrease in the fractional excretion of urea and a decrease in renal clearance of
- urea from plasma
- Regardless of the patient1s hydration status, the majority of free water reabsorption in the
- nephron occurs in the proximal tubule passively with the reabsorption of solutes.
- Antkliuretic hormone (ADH) acts on the meduftary segment of the collecting duct to increase
- water reabsorption and concentrate the urine
- End-stage renal disease causes hypocalcernia via renal retention of phosphate and decreased
- renal synthesis of 1 ,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol vitamin D (calcitriol). Both hypocalcemia and
- the resultant secondary hyperparathyroidism contribute to renal osteodystrophy
- A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear in the gastric mucosa near the gastroesophageal junction They are
- typically the result of repetitive, forceful vomiting, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis
- Aldosterone is a component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that acts on the
- principal cells and intercalated cells of the renal collecting tubules to cause resorption of sodium
- and water and loss of potassium and hydrogen ions
- The net number of molecules diffusing across a semipermeable membrane per second is
- proportional to the molecule’s concentration difference across the membrane, the total membrane
- surface area, and the solubility of the substance Diffusion is inversely proportional to the total
- membrane thickness and the molecular weight of the molecule
- Inulin clearance can be used to estimate the GFR and to calculate the total filtration rate of a
- freely filtered substance when the plasma concentration of the substance is known If the
- substance is subsequently reabsorbed from the nephron lumen, then the net renal excretion rate
- of the substance will be equal to its filtration rate minus the total tubular reabsorption rate
- Brown adipose tissue is found in newborns and in hibernating mammals Brown adipose cells
- contain several intracytoplasmic fat droplets and many more mitochondria than white adipose
- cells They function to produce heat by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation with the protein
- thermogenin
- 219
- Chronic renal failure is a common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism. Typical laboratory
- abnormalities include high PTH, low calcium, high phosphate. and low calcitriol.
- Educational Objective: The concentrations of PAH. creatinine. inulin, and urea increase as fluid
- wns along the proximal tubule, while the concentrations of bicarbonate, glucose, and amino acids
- decrease
- Paraaminohippuric acid (PAH) is freely tittered fr from
- om the blood in the glomerular capillaries to
- the tubular fluid in Bowman’s space. It is also secreted from the blood into the tubular fluid by
- the cells of the proximal tubule by a carrier protein
- protein-mediated
- mediated process. The secretion of PAl-I
- PAl can
- be saturated at high blood concentrations
- Dehydration leads to a decrease in renal plasma flow (RPF) and a decrease in the glornewlar
- filtration rate (GFR). Compensatory activation of the renin
- renin-angiotensin
- angiotensin mechanism in response
- to hypotension leads to constriction ooff the efferent (outgoing) arteriole to maintain GFR as best
- as possible The filtration fraction, which is equal to the GFR divided by the RPF, increases in
- hypovolemia as the RPF drops proportionately more than the GFR due to the aforementioned
- compensatory mechanism
- Selective vasoconstnction of the efferent arteriole (up to certain extent) increases hydrostatic
- pressure in the glomerular capillaries, and therefore increases the glomerular filtration rate As
- efferent arteriolar constriction continues to increase, the glomerular filtration rate begins to
- decrease due to a flow-mediated
- mediated rise in oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries The
- filtration fraction always increases with increasing efferent arteriole constriction.
- Furosemide is a loop diuretic
- etic that works by inhibiting Na
- Na-K-2C1
- 2C1 symporters in the loop of Henle
- effectively causing increased Na. Cl, and fluid excretion Additionally, loop diuretics also
- stimulate prostaglandin release By stimulating renal prostaglandin release, loop diuretics also
- al
- increase renal blood flow leading to increased GFR and enhanced drug delivery Thus concurrent
- use of NSAIDs with loop diuretics can result in a decreased diuretic response.
- The filtration fraction (FF) can be calculated if the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), renal blood
- flow (RBF), and hematocrit (Hct) are known: FF = GFR)j(1 - HctXRBF)].
- Dehydration stimulates ADH secretion ADH acts on the collecting ducts, increasing their t
- permeability to water Thus, in the presence of ADH, the collecting ducts contain the most
- concentrated fluid in the nephron, while the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and distal
- convoluted tubule contain the most dilute fluid.
- Increases inn the capillary hydrostatic pressure or the Bowman’s space oncotic pressure will
- increase GFR, while increases in capillary oncotic pressure or Bowman’s space hydrostatic
- pressure will decrease GFR The filtration fraction (FF) can be calculated by dMding the
- t GFR by
- the renal plasma flow (RPF). Increases in GFR or decreases in RPF will increase the FF.
- 220
- The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water It is a site of reabsorption of
- electrolytes by the Na/K/Cl cotransporter.
- Human placental lactogen (hPL) increases insulin resistance. stimulates proteolysis and lipolysis,
- and inhibits gluconeogenesis. Maternal insulin resistance results from increased secretion of
- hPL, placental growth hormone, estrogens. progesterone, and glucocorticoids.
- In secondary hyperaldosteronism. both rerun and aldosterone levels are elevated Causes of
- secondary hyperaldosteronism include renovascular hypertension (typically associated with
- fibromuscular dysplasia or atherosclerosis), diuretic use, malignant hypertension, and renin-
- secreting tumors.
- High circulating levels of estrogen and progesterone prevent lactogenesis while also promoting
- breast growth and development during pregnancy.
- Glucose is normally filtered at the glomerulus and completely reabsorbed by the proximal tubule
- Inhibition of sodium..coupled. carriermediated transport of glucose by the proximal tubule would
- cause the glucose clearance t approach the value of the GFR, which is typically estimated by
- calculating the clearance of inulin.
- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by the triad of polydipsia. polyuria, and a fruity
- odor to the breath and/or urine DKA is associated with a high anion gap metabolic acidosis that
- is typically accompanied by a compensatory respiratory alkalosis. This combination yields a low
- pH, low serum bicarbonate, and low
- The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occurs from day 15 through day 28 of the normal
- menstrual cycle (between ovulation and the onset of menses). Progesterone released by the
- corpus luteum causes the utenne glands to coil and secrete glycogen-nch mucus. The endometrial
- stroma becomes edematous and completely traversed by tortuous spiral arteries that extend from
- the deeper layers to the uterine lumen
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