Comptia A+ Core 1 Active Recall Questions.

What are the troubleshooting steps?
(I ETE V. D.F) (I ETE Very Delicious Food) 1. Identify the problem. 2. Establish a theory. 3. Test the theory. 4. Establish a plan of action. 5. Verify full functionality. 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

What pins provide power for the motherboard?
The 24 and 8 pin psu cables.

Which connection gives computers the ability to communicate with devices like GPUs and network cards?
Expansion slots.

Which PC component is known as "the brain" and a high speed calculator?
The CPU.

Which component stores data and and programs when they are not being used?
Mass Storage devices (Ex: M.2, HDD, SSD, SSHD, etc...)

Which storage type is used by running applications?
Random Access Memory (RAM).

What happens when a file or data is accessed?
The data or program is copied from the mass storage device and put on RAM.

What type of device sends info to a computer?
An input device (Ex: Mouse and Keyboard).

What type of device receives information from a computer?
An output device (Ex: Printer).

How many bits are in a byte?
8 bits.

What is the purpose of a clock?
To sync information between all the components of a CPU.

What is true of CPUs?
They have internal features to process commands, they run code based on a specific machine language (code book), and they use pipelines to optimize the processing of commands (kind of like sweatshops).

What is the purpose of the crystal oscillator on a motherboard?
To push the "go" or execute button on the CPU.

What gives CPUs the ability to increase its processing rate?
A CPU multiplier.

What process allows users to push CPUs pass their default settings?
Overclocking.

How does overclocking work?
Overclocking give users the ability to increase a CPU's multiplier. This allows for higher speed, resulting in an increase in temperature.

How is maximum CPU speed (or clock speed) derived?
Bus speed (from motherboard) x Multiplier (from CPU) = Max CPU speed.

What unit is clock speed measured in?
GHz.

Where is Static random-access memory (SRAM) found and what is it used for?
SRAM is found on CPUs and is used for cache (Level 1, 2, and 3).

What is the fastest type of cache memory and why?
Level 1 is the fastest type of cache memory because it is the smallest and closest to the processor.

What is cpu caching and where does it work?
CPU caching is when processors store information for future use. It works between RAM and the CPU.

What are the two socket types?
LGA and PGA.

How does Land grid Array (LGA) work?
In LGA, motherboards are equipped with pins that make contact with circular pads under the cpu. (Intel).

How does Pin grid Array (PGA) work?
In PGA, CPUs have pins that make contact with the motherboard. (AMD).

What are two common Intel and AMD socket types?
Intel= (LGA 1151 & 2066). AMD= (AM4 & TR4)

What is one way to decrease fan noise?
Use a liquid cooler.

What is Synchronous dynamic random-access memory (SDRAM) known as?
SDRAM is known as the original ram.

What speed does SDRAM run at?
It runs at the motherboard speed.

How do you get Double Data Rate (DDR) speed rating?
Multiply the motherboard clock speed by 2.

How many pins does SDRAM, DDR, DDR2, DDR3, and DDR4 have?
SDRAM: 168 pins. DDR: 184 pins. DDR2 & DDR3: 240 pins. DDR4: 288 pins.

How do you get Double Data Rate 2 (DDR2) speed rating?
Multiple DDR speed by 2.

How do you get Double Data Rate 3 (DDR3) speed rating?
Multiply DDR2 speed by 2.

How do you get Double Data Rate 4 (DDR4) speed rating?
Multiple DDR3 speed by 2.

How do you find the PC speed ratings for different types of ram?
Multiply the DDR(x) speed rating by 8.

How do RAM generations differ physically?
Their notches are located in different locations.

How does single sided RAM differ from double sided RAM?
Single sided RAM has modules on one side of the stick. Double sided RAM has modules on either side of the stick. This allows double sided ram the ability to have more capacity.

What is Error Correction Code (ECC) or Parity?
Parity/ECC is a type of RAM used in servers that have the ability to be fully functional even after two modules have gone bad. (Only 1 stick for ordinary ram).

What is SO-DIMM?
A type of RAM used in small form factor machines likes laptops.

How many pins does SO-DIMM DDR, DDR2, DDR3, and DDR4 have?
DDR & DDR2= No dedicated pin number. DDR3= 204 pins. DDR4= 260 pins.

What is Serial Presence Detect (SPD) and what does it allow?
An SPD is a chip found on RAM and it allows computers to receive information about the installed RAM.

What does Dual channel allow?
It allows simultaneous access to two RAM sticks.

What is a Basic Input/Output Service (BIOS) and what does it allow?
A BIOS is a motherboard program that allows the computer to "talk" to devices even before the operating system engages.

What is a BIOS firmware?
Code that is burned on to a BIOS chip.

What are some common BIOS manufacturers?
AMI, Phoenix, and American Megatrends.

Why do some motherboards make two BIOSes (Backup Bios)?
Because a BIOS is very important.

What happens when a computer boots up?
The BIOS checks to see if all connected hardware is functioning properly. This is known as Power-On-Self-Test (POST).

What happens when a CPU's power good wire gets enough voltage?
The CPU starts running and asks the BIOS to run a POST. This "wakes" up all other hardware and tests for full functionality.

When do beep codes show up?
When something is wrong.

What is the beep code for no RAM?
Persistent and continuous beep.

What are display codes and when do they show up?
Display codes are a more modern type of POST tool that show up after the PC turns on with no beep codes or image.

What explains what each display code mean?
Motherboards and Post card manuals explain what each display code means.

When are the numbers on a display code irrelevant?
When the operating system starts up.

What is System Setup and what does it allow?
A GUI that can be accessed during start up. It allows users to change the changeable parts of a BIOS.

What is Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)?
UEFI is an advance form of System Setup that has features such as cursor control.

What is the function of a CMOS battery?
To preserve system BIOS information such date and time and changed settings.

What type of battery does CMOS use?
CR2032.

What does a motherboard flash memory allow?
It allows BIOSes to be updated or rolled back.

What is a Real Time Clock (RTC) and what does it do?
An RTC is a device on a motherboard that uses a CMOS battery to sync all of the hardware connected to a motherboard.

What are some common motherboard form factors?
ATX, MicroATX, Mini-ITX, ITX, and EATX.

What is the most common motherboard form factor?
ATX.

What is the biggest and smallest motherboard form factor?
Smallest= Mini-ITX. Biggest= EATX.

What is the purpose of motherboard chipsets?
To control the communication between CPU, RAM, Storage, and other Peripherals.

What are the two types of motherboard chipsets?
Northbridge and Southbridge.

What is the primary function of the Northbridge?
Deal with tasks related to the CPU and expansion buses (Fast stuff).

What is the primary function of the Southbridge?
Deal with task related to USB ports (Slow stuff).

Why do today motherboards only come with Southbridge?
Because modern CPUs fill the role of the Northbridge.

What does a chipset define?
How much ram, video cards, and etc... the motherboard can support.

What are some motherboard chipset names?
B350, B450, X570, X299, etc...

What do SATA cables connect?
They connect HDDs or sata SSDs to the motherboard.

What is the function of motherboard capacitors?
Break down PSU voltages to smaller voltages.

What is Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe)?
An expansion slot that allows PCIe cards like GPUs (x16).

What are the different PCIe standards?
x1, x2, x4, x8, x16.

What is the difference between parallel and serial when discussing PCIe?
Serial sends one bit at a time through one lane at a time, but parallel sends multiple bits at a time through multiple lanes.

Why is serial more efficient than parallel?
Because data only requires one lane in serial.

What does a power supply do?
Transfers AC power to DC power.

Power supplies provide what kind of voltages?
12V (yellow), 5V (red), and 3.3V (orange).

Where does ATX12V and P4 supply power?
ATX12V supplies power to the motherboard, and P4 supplies power to the CPU.

What voltages do molex supply?
5V and 12V.

What is SATA power cable used for?
To power storage and optical media devices. (5V and 12V).

What is PCIe connector used for?
To provide additional power to PCIe devices.

What are some power supply types?
Fully modular (no attached cables), Semi-modular (only 24 pin motherboard cable is attached). Non-modular= All cables are attached.

What rating system do power supplies have?
An 80+ rating system. (Standard, Bronze, Silver, Gold, Platinum, and Titatnium.

What is a heat sync?
Anything that can take heat away from another device.

What is one purpose of fans?
To cool off a heat sync.

What is the difference between 3 pin and 4 pin fans?
3 pin fans use DC power. 4 pin fans have a feature called PWM. This allow for more granular fan speed control.

What might be the cause of smoke or a burning smell?
The fast death of a PSU.

What might be the cause of random shutdown?
The slow death of a PSU.

What can be used to test PSU?
Digital PSU testers.

What tool can be used to test slow dying PSUs?
A multimeter.

How can an error in System Setup be cleared?
By jumping the CMOS.

What are some types of Mass Storage Devices?
Optical media, Magnetic media (HDD), and solid state (m.2, SSD)

What is Logical Block Addressing (LBA)?
A technique that takes large data and divides it into the different sectors of a storage device.

Why do some storage show a slightly lower speed than what is advertised?
Because the drive capacity is reported differently than is advertised (Unit names vs PC Unit names).

How does a magnetic media operate?
A read and write head "picks up" 1s and 0s and drops them as needed.

What are the different hard drive bus types?
ATA, Serial ATA (SATA), SCSI, Serial Attached SCSI (SAS), and Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (ISCSI).

What is Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA)?
The language the LBA speaks.

What is a eSATA?
A connection used by external hard drives.

eSATA is not commonly used today. What has replaced it?
USB.

Why is an SSD so much faster than a HDD?
Because there are no moving parts.

How are SSDs organized?
They are organized into pages. Each page stores blocks of data.

What is the maximum speed SATA can run at?
6 Gbps.

What is Non-Volatile Memory Express (Nvme)?
An interface used by m.2 drives that run at 32 Gbps.

What is Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)?
An old technology that uses a parallel interface to connect and transfer data between computers and peripheral devices.

What is Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)?
A point to point interface that moves data.

What is Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (ISCSI)?
An storage networking standard that allows access to storage devices by carrying SCSI commands over a TCP/IP network.

What does a boot order do?
Specifies the order storage devices get booted from.

What must be done to new hard drives?
They need to be formatted and partitioned. This can be done within the operating system itself or during the installation of an operating system.

What does Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID) do?
It combines multiple drives into one big volume.

What can RAID provide?
Speed and Data Redundancy.

What is the concept of DATA Redundancy?
Two copies of a single file are made and stored. Essentially a type of backup.

How many drives are required for RAID 0,1,5,6, and 10 at a minimum?
0= 2 drives. 1= 2 drives. 5= 3 drives. 6 =4 drives. 10= 4 drives.

What is the difference between striping and mirroring?
Striping is the concept of breaking up data into different chunks and spreading each chunk across different storage devices. Mirroring is the replication of data on two or more storage devices.

What is RAID 0?
A storage technique that uses striping.

What is RAID 1?
A storage technique that uses mirroring.

What is RAID 5?
A storage technique that uses striping with parity. Data is stored across 3 drives alongside a "parity" that stores extra data in the event that only one drive fails.

What is a Parity?
A data type that stores information that can be used to rebuild a filed drive.

What is RAID 6?
A storage technique similar to RAID 5 but uses 4 disks. With RAID 6, 2 disks can fail, and the data can still be rebuilt.

What is RAID 10 (1+0)?
A storage technique that combines raid 1 and 0. Data is broken into chunks and each chunk in stored twice. Data is first mirrored then striped.

What is a disadvantage of using RAID 10?
Only 50% of storage capacity can be used.

What is RAID 0+1?
A storage technique that combines RAID 0 and 1. Data is first striped then mirrored.

How can RAID be implemented?
Through software (operating system) or hardware (dedicated controllers & system setup).

What is the difference between AHCI and RAID?
AHCI corresponds with one hard drive and RAID corresponds with the combination of multiple hard drives.

How can RAID be configured after it has been selected in system setup?
By pressing ctrl+R when the computer is booting.

What is the job of a Hot Spare / Swappable Drive?
To "jump" in the day one drive dies.

What does hardware RAID require?
A dedicated RAID controller.

What are the three rules for Mass Storage?
1. Back it up. 2. Mental Reinstall. 3. Triple check.

What can you do when read and write failures start occurring?
Use Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T) to check the health of the drive.

What happens if a system does not have enough ram?
The system starts using the hard drive for memory. Since storage devices are slower than memory, this results in slow performance.

What might be the cause of continuous reboots that never lead to a desktop?
A corrupted operating system.

What must be done before troubleshooting?
Back up important data.

What are some examples of optical medias?
CDs, DVDs, and Blu-rays.

Why were Compact Disks (CD) created?
To simply play and store music.

What is the limitation of CD-ROMs(Read-Only Memory)?
They can only be read from.

What is CD-R (recordable)?
A type of CD that allows users to "burn" files once.

What is CD-RW (rewritable)?
A type of CD that allows users to "burn" and "unburn" files as many times as possible.

Why were Digital Video Disks (DVDs) created?
To simply play and store movies.

What are DVD-ROMs (Read-Only Memory)?
A type of optical media that stores data such as movies or device drivers.

Why are DVD-ROMs used a lot today?
Because they have a larger capacity, and this allows companies and manufacturers to store larger amounts of data like device drivers and such.

What is the maximum size DVDs can store?
4.37-15.9 GB.

What is a Blu-ray Disc?
A type of optical media used for high definition movies.

What is the maximum size Blu-rays can store?
25-50 GB.

What is the maximum size CDs can store?
650-700 MB.

What is BD-RE (Blu-ray Recordable Erasable)?
A type of Blu-ray disk that can store large files that can be "burned" and "unburned".

What color represents USB 1.0 and what speed does it run at?
White bottom. 1.5 Mbps.

What color represents USB 1.1 and what speed does it run at?
White bottom. 12 Mbps.

What color represents USB 2.0 and what speed does it run at?
Black bottom. 480 Mbps.

What color represents USB 3.0 and what speed does it run at?
Blue bottom. 5 Gbps.

Why was USB 3.1 created?
Because USB 3.0 had a lot of issues.

How does USB 3.1 Gen 1 differ from USB 3.1 Gen 2?
Gen 1 had a blue bottom and runs at a max speed of 5 Gbps. Gen 2 has a teal bottom and runs at a max speed of 10 Gbps.

What are other color coded (yellow and red) USB 3.1 ports used as?
As fast charging ports.

What does USB A, B, mini-B, micro-B, USB 3.0 micro-B, and USB C look like?
USB A= Generic looking USB. USB B= Printer cable. USB mini-B= Smaller version of printer cable used for cameras and such. USB micro-B= Old android charger USB 3.0 micro-B= Looks like old android charger with something extra on the side. USB C= Rounded edges. Can be plugged in either way.

Where does a USB device plug into?
Into a USB controller on a case or motherboard.

Where does an A, B, and C connector plug into?
A= Downstream. B= Upstream. C= Both up and down.

What must be done if an operating system does not have a device driver?
One needs to be manually downloaded and installed.

What are HIDs (Human Interface Devices)?
Basic drivers used for stuff like mouse and keyboards. Does not enable extra features.

What are some uses of Thunderbolt?
For display and charging.

What speed and number of channels does Thunderbolt version 1, 2, and 3 have?
1= 2 channels, 10 Gbps per channel. 2= 1 channel, 20 Gbps. 3= 1 channel, 40 Gbps.

Lightening cables are exclusive to what company?
Apple.

The green and purple ps/2 slots correspond with which peripheral?
Green= mouse. Purple= keyboard.

What does a KVM (keyboard video mouse) switch allow?
Allows users to share a few devices with multiple computers seamlessly.

What is the purpose of the Blue, Green, Pink, Silver, Black, and Orange 3.5 mm ports?
Blue= Aux in. Green= Stereo Speaker. Pink= Microphone. Silver= Side Speakers. Black= Rear Speakers. Orange= Subwoofer (center channel).

What is a S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interface) used for?
High end audio receiver systems.

What do Smart Card Readers do?
Reads information stored on smart cards found in credit cards, etc...

What do Magnetic Readers do?
Incorporate the same concept as a smart card reader, except you swipe.

What do Flash Memory Readers do?
Read flash memory devices like SD cards, micro SD cards.

What is a Flatbed scanner used for?
To scan documents.

What can ADFs (Automatic Document Feeder) used for?
To scan and make copies of multiple pages.

What are Expansion cards?
Cards that can add more functionality to your computer. Ex: wifi capabilities, more USB ports, etc...

What must be done after properly installing an expansion card?
If it requires drivers, check to see if they have been automatically installed. If not, download and install.

What is a Thick Client?
The most basic type of desktop office computer.

What is a Thin Client?
A very small form factor computer that relies mainly on network connectivity. Doesn't heavily rely on its storage for applications.

What is a workstation?
A type of computer equipped with a high end multicore processor, GPU, and lots of RAM.

What is a requirement for Virtualization Workstations?
Maximum RAM, CPU cores, and storage.

What is a Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A type of computer used for network file sharing. Requires high speed network card and lots of storage in a RAID array.

What does a Gaming PC need?
A multicore processor, high end cooling, and a high end video card.

What 3 colors make up a pixel?
Red, Green, and Blue.

What is the difference between liquid crystal displays (LCD (imaging)) and Light emitting diodes (LED (backlighting))?
LCDs control the intensity of fluorescent light being illuminated through a screen with an image. LEDs use LEDs instead of fluorescent light as backlight.

Is LCD or LED more efficient, and why?
LEDs because they consume less power.

What are the three types of LCDs?
Twisted nematic (TN), In-plane switching (IPS), and Vertical Alignment (VA).

What is a CCFL?
An older type of screen technology.

How does Organic LED (OLED) work?
Does not use backlight. The pixels make their own light.

How does Digital Light Processing (DLP) work?
Uses tiny mirrors set up in a grid rather than pixels.

Which imaging technology requires an inverter?
CCFLs.

What causes dead pixels?
An individual pixel losing power. This cannot be prevented and must just be dealt with.

What monitors typically get burn ins?
Plasma monitors.

What is the Graphics Processing Unit (GPU), and where is it located?
It is the actual chip in the video card, and it is located under the heat sync.

What signal does Video Graphics Array (VGA) output?
An analog signal.

Why isn't VGA very useful?
Because most LCDs are digital.

How does DVI-I differ from DVI-D physically?
DVI-I has 4 dots next to the --, but DVI-D has no dots.

What signal does DVI-I output?
Both analog and digital.

What signal does DVI-D output?
Only digital.

What is the difference between Single and Dual link DVI?
Dual link can handle high resolution monitors.

How does single link DVI differ from dual link DVI physically?
Single link DVI has missing blocks in the middle.

What can High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) output?
Video and Sound.

What does HDMI support?
DRM (Digital Rights Management).

What does DisplayPort support?
The same features as HDMI; however, it has a locking mechanism.

What are the two most common technologies used in projectors?
DLP and LCD.

Projector brightness is measured in what unit?
Lumens.

What does the term "throw" describe when talking about projectors?
The farther out you go, the larger the displayed image becomes and vice verca.

What are the three projector shapes that need to be adjusted?
Pincushion, Keystone, and Skew.

What is a Local Area Network (LAN)?
An area where different devices in close proximity connect.

How do devices connect to a LAN?
Via ethernet or Wi-Fi.

What is the Ethernet Sequence?
1. Destination MAC. 2. Source Mac. 3. Data payload. 4. Frame Check Sequence) FCS.

What is a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
An address that uniquely identifies each system.

How many bits and hexadecimal characters does a MAC address have?
48 bits and 12 hexadecimal characters.

Who provides the first 6 hexadecimal characters for a MAC address?
The OEM.

What is the purpose of a A Frame Check Sequence (FCS)?
To make sure the sent data is in correct order.

What is the difference between a switch and a hub?
A hub connects all network devices together on an internal network. Once a data packet comes through an ethernet port, the hub rebroadcasts that data to every port that has a device connected to it. A switch is similar to a hub except for the fact that it is able to direct data to its intended destination by memorizing mac addresses.

Why is a switch better than a hub?
Because it provides full bandwidth.

How does a switch memorize MAC addresses?
By watching frames.

What follows the number 9 in hexadecimal?
A,B,C,D,E,F.

What base is hexadecimal?
Base 16. 0-F.

Each hexadecimal corresponds with how many binary numbers?
4 binary numbers.

What is the difference between a hub/switch and a router?
A hub/switch exchange data between connected devices on the same network. A router exchanges data between devices outside the network (such as on the internet).

What is the theoretical and practical maximum amount of computers an ethernet switch can support?
Theoretical: 1024. Practical: 30-40.

What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
A collection of LANs (hub/switch) connected together to form the internet.

What is Logical Addressing (IP addressing)?
A system used by routers to identify local area networks.

What is a Coaxial Cable?
One of the oldest cables that is still used today. Uses a twisting motion to fasten.

What are the RG ratings?
RG-58, RG-59, and RG-6.

What is the difference between an RG-58, RG-59, and RG-6 cable?
RG-58: Ancient and thin coaxial cable that uses a BNC connector. RG-59: Thinner tip that RG-6 that is used for lower bandwidth video such as analog video and CCTV. RG-6: Uses an F-type connector. Very familiar to cable users.

What is an Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)?
A common type of Ethernet cable (RJ45) that is about 100m long.

Why are the cables within an RJ45 twisted?
Because that provides better signal.

What is an RJ11?
A cable used to connect landlines to a modem.

How many contacts and twisted pairs does an RJ11 have?
4 contacts and 2 twisted pairs.

How many contacts and twisted pairs does an RJ45 have?
8 contacts and 4 twisted pairs.

What is a Shielded Twisted Pairs (STP)?
A type of Ethernet cable (RJ45) with a metallic shielding that provides a lot of protection.

Instead of using electricity a Fiber optic (fiber) cable uses what?
Light.

What is a Fiber optic (fiber) cable made out of?
Kevlar.

What two modes can a fiber optic cable use to send signals?
A singlemode and a multimode.

What is the multimode and singlemode fiber optic cables made out of?
Multimode= LEDs. Singlemode= lasers.

Fiber optic cables come in 2s. What is the function of each cable?
One cable is for sending data and one cable is for receiving data.

What is the maximum speed of CAT 5 and CAT 5e cables?
CAT 5= 100 Mbps. CAT 5e= 1 Gbps.

What is the maximum speed of CAT 6 and CAT 6a cables?
CAT 6= 1 Gbps up to 100m, 10 Gbps up to 55m. CAT 6a= 10 Gbps up to 100m.

What does a plenum rating measure?
The ability for an ethernet cable to resist fire.

What does a PVC (non-plenum) rated ethernet cable mean?
The cable cannot resist fire.

What does a Riser rated ethernet cable mean?
The cable is semi resistant to fire (more than PVC, less than plenum).

What does a Plenum rated ethernet cable mean?
The cable is resistant to fire.

What is a crimp?
The tip of an ethernet cable that connect to a computer or router.

What can a crimping tool be used for?
Cutting and attaching a cable to a crimp.

What are the two types of RJ45 wiring?
TIA 568A and TIA 568B.

What is the difference between straight through and crossover cabling?
Straight through is the default and crossover swaps cable positions.

What is structured cabling?
A way of organizing network cables such that they are neat, tidy, and out of the way.

What is a patch panel used for?
A patch panel is used for structured cabling. It plugs into a switch and provides an organized ethernet outlet for a computer.

What is a Fox and hound used for?
Used to locate hidden cables.

How does a Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) work?
It uses the speed of light to determine the length of a cable in runs.

What is a Solid Core?
A type of UTP that is ran through walls.

Why does a Solid Core allow for excellent transfer of electricity?
Because each of the wires contain a piece of copper.

What is a Punchdown tool used for?
It is used to attach the Solid Core into the patch panel.

When was the ARPANET formed?
Before the internet.

Which number(s) is/are unlocked in Class A, B, and C when talking about tcp/ip?
Class A= 3 numbers (n.h.h.h). Class B= 2 numbers (n.n.h.h). Class C= 1 number (n.n.n.h).

What is the highest possible number allowed between each of the three dots in a TCP/IP address?
254.

Which TCP/IP numbers are not available to individual hosts?
The first and last.

The last number in a TCP/IP cannot be a 0 because of what reason?
Because a TCP/IP with the last digit as 0 denotes a LAN.

How does a device on a LAN communicate with another device outside the LAN?
The device sends the information to the router on the same LAN and the router transfers that information to the device on the other LAN.

What is (Transmission Control Protocol) TCP responsible for?
Data delivery.

What steps must be taken in order to connect a computer to the internet?
1: Give it an IP address. 2: Give it a subnet mask (local vs long distance). 3. Give it a default gateway (router).

What is a subnet mask used for?
A subnet mask is used to divide an IP address into two parts. The first identifies the host, and the second describes the network it belongs to.

How can one get a static IP address?
By manually entering in information in the Network and Sharing center.

What is the range of a Class A special IP address?
1.0.0.0 - 126.0.0.0

What is the range of a Class B special IP address?
128.h.0.0 - 191.h.0.0

What is the range of a Class C special IP address?
192.h.h.0 - 223.h.h.0

What is the IP address designated to a Class D (multicast) special IP/address?
224.h.h.h

What is the IP address designated to a Class E (reserved) special IP/address?
240.h.h.h

What is the range of a Class B private IP address?
172.16.h.h - 172.31.h.h

What is the IP address designated to a Class A private IP/address?
10.h.h.h

What is the IP address designated to a Class C private IP/address?
192.168.h.h

What IP is reserved for a loopback address?
127.0.0.1

Which command gives the IP address and other information about the network?
ipconfig

What is Network Address Translation (NAT)?
Router technology that allows data to be transferred from a LAN to a WAN by changing the IP of the device in the LAN.

All gateway routers have what enabled by default?
NAT.

What is true of networks that use NAT?
The are invisible to the internet.

What is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?
A type of network configuration that provides a dynamic IP address to a device on a LAN.

Home routers act as what?
DHCP servers.

What is Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)?
Gives a device on a LAN an IP address when the DHCP server is down.

Can APIPA be configured manually?
Yes. Through Network and Sharing Center.

What is a WLAN?
A WLAN is a wireless local area network (no ethernet cables).

What address does APIPA give by default?
A 169.254.h.h address.

Why can a device with APIPA communicate with other devices on a LAN but cannot connect to the internet?
Because that device has a DHCP problem.

What command can be used to disconnect a device from a DHCP server?
ipconfig /release.

What command can be used to connect a device to a DHCP server?
ipconfig /renew.

Why was IPv6 created?
Because we are running out of IPv4 addresses.

IPv6 uses what kind of notation and addressing scheme?
IPv6 uses a hexadecimal notation and 128-bit addressing scheme.

How many IP address does IPv4 have?
4 billion addresses.

IPv6 can be shortened by doing what?
Removing any leading zeros and converting 3 zeros in a row into two colons.

Systems today have a minimum of how many IPv6 addresses?
2 IPv6 addresses.

What are the two type of IPv6 addresses?
Link-local address and Internet address (global unicast address).

What does a link-local address start with?
fe80 and the rest is automatically generated.

How is an IPv6 internet address created?
Router sends first half, and computer generates the second half.

Why do some computers come with multiple IPv6 addresses?
As a security measure.

What is a port?
Virtual places where network connections start and end.

Well known ports are ports from which numbers?
0-1023

Registered ports are ports from which numbers?
1024-49151

Dynamic/Ephemeral ports are ports from which numbers?
49152-65535

What port and protocol does FTP use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 21. Allows for file transfer from server to client.

What port and protocol does SSH use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 22. Allows for operating network services securely over an unsecured network.

What port and protocol does TELNET use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 23. Allows for remote access of computers via text-based inputs and outputs using a command line.

What port and protocol does SMTP use (What is it)?
TCP or UDP/Port 25. Used for sending out email from an email client.

What port and protocol does DNS use (What is it)?
UDP or TCP/Port 53. Turns websites into IP addresses.

What port and protocol does HTTP use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 80. Used for for transmission of information across the Internet.

What port and protocol does POP3 use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 110. Retrieves email from server and delete the copy on the server.

What port and protocol does SNMP use (What is it)?
UDP/Port 161/162. A communication protocol that lets users monitor managed network devices.

What port and protocol does IMAP use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 143. More advanced that POP3. Retrieves email and stays connected until the mail client app is closed (does not delete email).

What port and protocol does HTTPS use (What is it)?
TCP or UDP/Port 443. Ensures data security over the network.

What port and protocol does RDP use (What is it)?
TCP or UDP/Port 3389. Allows users to remotely connect to another computer. Graphical TELNET.

What port and protocol does NETBIOS/NETBT use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 137-139. Allows computer communication over a LAN and allows them to share files and printers.

What port and protocol does SMB/CIFS use (What is it)?
TCP or UDP/Port 445. Used to provide shared access to files, printers, and serial ports.

What port and protocol does SLP use (What is it)?
TCP or UDP/Port 427. Allows clients to locate servers and other services on the network.

What port and protocol does AFP use (What is it)?
TCP/Port 548. Offers file services for macOS.

What port and protocol does DHCP use (What is it)?
UDP/Port 67/68. Automatically assigns IP addresses to connected devices.

What port and protocol does LDAP use (What is it)?
TCP or UDP/Port 389. Used for querying and modifying directory services.

What port and protocol does the encrypted version of POP3 use?
TCP/Port 995.

What port and protocol does the encrypted version of IMAP use?
TCP/Port 993.

What port and protocol does the encrypted version of SMTP use?
TCP/Port 465 or 587.

What is a Protocol?
A set of rules that allow different things to work together.

Almost all data sent to the internet uses what protocol?
TCP.

What is Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
A connection-oriented protocol.

What does TCP start off with before communication?
A "handshake."

What is User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
A connectionless protocol that just asks for data.

What is Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?
A single-packet only protocol.

What is Protocol Data Unit (PDU)?
A way to organize packets. Specifies the chunks of data of interest.

What is Domain Name System (DNS)?
A naming system that pairs every website name to an IP address.

What are Root Servers?
Servers that control one fully qualified domain name called "." (dot).

What are some examples of first level domains?
google.com/yahoo.com/cdc.gov/etc...

What are Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN)?
The name of the actual website.

How are Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) established?
A unique name is registered and assigned to a DNS server.

What is the character limit of FQDNs?
255 characters.

What is a tool that can be used to resolve DNS-related issues?
nslookup.

What command can be used to find a system's DNS server?
ipconfig /all

DNS can be configured in what ways?
Manually and automatically.

What is Netbios/netbt?
A program that allows applications on different computers to communicate within a local area network.

What is a Workgroup?
A basic network organization type that offers no security (basic).

What is a Domain?
A network organization type found in servers (Active Directory Domain) that provide a lot of security.

Which is a Workgroup or a Domain more expensive?
A Domain.

How many computers does a Homegroup allow?
Up to 4 computers.

A homegroup combines what?
The convenience of a Workgroup and the security of a Domain.

What are Routers?
Devices that filter and forward traffic based on IP addresses.

What does a Routing Table do?
Tells the router where to send information.

What is a Console Port?
A type of port that uses a blue yost cable allow a router to connect to a computer for initial setup configuration.

What is a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) router?
A router that has wired and wireless capabilities.

What are DHCP Reservations?
A feature in routers where a DHCP address can be whitelisted, or not be used by other connected devices.

What is Quality of Service (QoS)?
A tool that allows users to control how much bandwidth each connect device gets.

What is Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)?
A protocol that makes a network device "noisy." This then makes the device appear in the networking menu.

What is a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)?
A type of LAN that takes one switch and electronically turns it into multiple switches.

How are VLANs configured?
Via the switch's IP address and a web browser (kind of like configuring a router).

What is a Managed Switch?
An expensive type of switch that has a lot of features like the ability to configure a VLAN.

What is Port Security?
A feature that give switches the ability to memorize MAC addresses and only work with those MAC addresses.

What causes IP conflicts?
When two devices on a network have the same IP address.

When does Limited Connectivity occur?
When there is an APIPA address and not a DHCP address.

What is a Rouge DHCP Server?
A DHCP server that is passing out wrong information.

What causes Intermittent Connectivity?
Interference from motors, elevators, etc...

When do Slow Transfer Speeds occur?
When network card is being worked too hard.

What is the wireless standard?
IEEE 802.11.

What is a Wireless Access Point (WAP)?
A networking device that allows Wi-Fi devices to connect to a wired network.

What is Infrastructure Mode?
A mode whereby devices connect to the WAP to join the network (common mode used by most Wi-Fi networks).

What is a Wireless Network Card?
An expansion card that gives certain devices the ability to connect to a network wirelessly.

Where is the Wi-Fi antenna in a laptop located?
The monitor.

What is a Service Set Identifier (SSID)?
The name designated to a WAP.

What is Ad hoc mode?
A mode that does not use a WAP. Instead a laptop can be used in place of a WAP. Devices connect to the laptop.

What are Antennas used for?
To transmit the the signals from a WAP.

What are the 4 types of antennas?
Omnidirectional (all directions), Dipole (two omnidirectional signals pointing in opposite directions), Patch (omnidirectional (physically flat). Signal projects from one side only), and Highly Directional (projects a long distance (football-looking pattern)).

What is a band?
A range of radio frequencies.

802.11 is based on which radio bands?
Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) radio bands.

2.4 Ghz and 5 Ghz use what as a way of decongesting?
Channels.

What are the recommended channels for 2.4 GHz?
1, 6, and 11.

What is the band and maximum speed of 802.11a?
5 Ghz band. 54 Mbps.

What is the band and maximum speed of 802.11b?
2.4 Ghz band. 11 Mbps.

What is the band and maximum speed of 802.11g?
2.4 Ghz band. 54 Mbps.

What is the band and maximum speed of 802.11n?
2.4 and 5 Ghz band. 100 Mbps.

What is Multiple In / Multiple Out (MIMO)?
Technology that allows a WAP to use multiple antennas to change its signal to concentrate on a single device.

What is Multi-user MIMO?
A form of MIMO that can zoom in on multiple devices at a time.

What is 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5)?
A very fast 5 Ghz that has Multi-user MIMO .

It is advised to set which band's channel manually and which band's channel automatically?
2.4 Ghz band manually and 5 Ghz band automatically.

What is one feature of SSIDs.
They can be hidden or disabled. In that case, you would need to manually connect to the WAP.

Network profiles allow you to do what?
Automatically connect to known Wi-Fi connections (SSIDs).

What is a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN)?
A type of WAP that allows for increased connectivity range.

What are the parts of a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN)?
A base device and beacon devices.

What are some features of Wireless Mesh Networks (WMN)?
They can easily be configured, and they create their own encryption.

What is Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)?
A radio sticker than can receive and read radio frequencies.

What is Near Field Communication (NFC)?
A type of RFID that allows two electronic devices to communicate over a distance of 4 cm or less.

What is a Personal Area Network (PAN)?
Technology used by Bluetooth to connect only two devices together at a time.

What are the power and range of class 1, 2, and 3 Bluetooth devices?
Class 1= 100mW 100m. Class 2= 2.5mW 10m. Class 3= 1mW 1m.

What can be used to diagnose wireless problems.
Wi-Fi analyzers.

What is a LAN?
A group of devices that are all hooked together to one switch in a way that allows for easy communication.

What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
A group of LANs connected together by one or more routers. (Kind of like the internet).

What is a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?
A group of WANs connected together (a WAN that spans a city).

What is the internet?
The connection of all area networks in the whole world.

What are Peering Agreements?
A mutual agreement between competitors to allow each other traffic access in order for coverage to the whole U.S and other countries.

What is internet Tier 1?
Internet providers that don't pay anyone. 10 companies in the United States that provide internet to large customers.

What is internet Tier 2?
Internet providers that pay some tier 1s but also peer with tier 1s and 2s.

What is internet Tier 3?
Big internet service providers (like comcast, etc...) that are not interconnected. They make money by selling internet services to individuals and corporations. They pay tier 1 and 2 providers.

What are Network Operation Centers (NOCs)?
Areas around the U.S (built by third parties) where different internet companies connect.

What is Dial-up?
A.K.A Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS). Old school landlines that provided internet through an old modem.

What is the maximum speed of a dial-up connection?
56 Kbps (exceptionally slow).

How does Windows recognize serial ports?
Through Comports (communication ports).

What is Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
A type of Dial-up that uses terminal adapters instead of modems.

Why is ISDN better than dial-up?
Because it runs faster, and it is digital instead of analog. Meaning, you could browse the internet and make a phone call at the same time.

Who uses ISDN today?
People who do voiceovers.

How do we typically connect to the internet?
With a Broadband or Always-On connection.

What is Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)?
Earliest version of broadband that uses a phone line to provide a digital service.

What does an Asymmetric internet speed mean?
Upload speed is slower than download speed.

What does a Symmetric internet speed mean?
Upload speed matches download speed.

What is a Modem?
A Dial-up equipment that provided internet.

Point-to-Point Protocol Over Ethernet (PPPoE)?
A connection type used by DSL.

What is Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)?
A protocol used by cable to provide TV channels and internet connections.

What type of internet protocol gives people out in unpopulated area access to the internet?
Satellite/802.11.

Why is satellite not the best when it comes to providing internet?
It has latency.

What is File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?
An old way of moving files from one pc to another.

What is Active mode FTP?
A traditional FTP mode that uses port 21 to send and port 20 to receive files.

What is Passive mode FTP?
An FTP mode where everything is conducted on port 21.

Which is faster active or passive mode FTP?
Active mode FTP.

Does Active or Passive mode FTP provide more security?
Active mode because it uses two different ports.

What is Port Triggering?
A technology that allows a router to receive a file from a different port than was originally used to send (Active mode).

What is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)?
A protocol used to send e-mail. Sometimes needs to be configured.

What is Post Office Protocol (POP)?
A protocol used to receive e-mail.

What is Instant Message Access Protocol (IMAP)?
A more advance version of POP that is used to receive e-mail.

What e-mail receiving protocol is widely used today?
IMAP.

What is a Proxy Server?
A configured server (computer) that can be used for firewalling, filtering websites, and caching webpages for quick access.

What is a VPN?
An encrypted connection over the Internet from a device to a network.

What is a VPN tunnel used for?
To connect to the desired location.

What are the VPN Protocol Names?
PPTP, LPTP, and IPsec.

What is Split Tunneling?
A feature in DIY VPN servers that causes a lot of delay. Not an issue with third party VPN providers.

What can be used to connect to a VPN server?
A VPN client.

What does Internet of Things (IoT) mean?
Giving internet capabilities to things that are generally not associated with the internet.

Which wireless protocols are used to talk to wireless capable devices like LED lightbulbs and thermostats?
802.11, Z-Wave, and Zigbee.

Internet of Things (IoT) generally require what?
A hub.

Which services can add voice capabilities to IoTs?
Siri, Alexa, and Google Home.

What is a Virtual Machine?
A virtual computer that operates within an actual computer.

What is Virtualization?
Allocating portions of a current system to form a new separate system.

What is Emulation?
Pretending to have hardware that isn't there.

What is a Hypervisor?
The host of the virtual operating system.

What is the difference between a Type 1 and a Type 2 Hypervisor?
A Type 1 Hypervisor does not require a previously installed operating system (it runs like an OS itself). A Type 2 Hypervisor requires a previously installed operating system.

What are some examples of a Type 1 Hypervisor?
VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, KVM, etc...

What are some examples of a Type 2 Hypervisor?
VirtualBox.

What can virtual machines also be used for?
To create virtual networks and routers.

What is a virtual hard drive?
A "fake" hard drive used by virtual machines.

What can be used to create a virtual router in virtual machines?
Network Address Translation (NAT).

What is the difference between NAT and NAT network?
NAT support 1 virtual machine, and NAT network can support multiple virtual machines.

What does a bridge network do?
Connects the virtual machine to the same network as the host machine.

What is the concept of a Cloud?
An "invisible" computer.

What is Rapid Elasticity?
A term used for scaling resources based on demand.

What does on-demand allow?
The ability to clone multiple virtual machines as a way of meeting seasonal demand (like during NFL season).

What is Resource Pooling?
The process of assigning a system with multiple VM a specific task.

What is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
A service that moves network tasks such as firewalls into the cloud.

What is Platform as a Service (PaaS)?
A service that moves machines into the Cloud, allowing a user or business to focus on apps.

What is Software as a Service (SaaS)?
A service that moves apps such as Google Docs into the Cloud.

Who owns and use private Clouds?
Single organizations.

What are some characteristics of public Clouds?
They are privately owned, but they are available for public use.

Hybrid clouds have what?
Characteristics of both public and private Clouds.

Community clouds are owned by who?
Multiple organizations for their own private use.

What are some examples of Cloud Storage?
iCloud, OneDrive, Google Drive, etc...

What does Cloud Storage enable access to?
Synchronized saved files from any device.

What does Virtual Application Streaming allow access to?
Apps without having to install them locally.

What can cable locks be used to do?
To prevent a laptop from being moved from a specific area.

What is a Docking Station?
A connector on a laptop that allows the laptop to be turned into a desktop.

What is a Port Replicator?
A third party solution that can turn a laptop into an unofficial docking station.

It is often cheaper to get laptop parts from where as opposed to official vendors?
Third party websites like eBay.

What is a Mini PCIe (express) slot?
A laptop expansion slot that allows for expansion devices like wifi cards.

Where do wireless antennas route in laptop?
Into the monitor display.

A laptop monitor is known as what?
A sealed system.

What is a characteristic of a sealed system?
They are difficult to fix.

What tools are essential for monitor repairing?
Spudgers and heat guns.

What operating systems do Global Positioning Systems (GPS) run?
Cut down version of Linux.

Mobile devices are also known as what?
Sealed devices with fixed components.

What are some examples of mobile devices?
Smartphones, tablets, wearables, GPS systems, and etc...

Infrared (IR) gives mobile devices the ability to do what?
Become remote controls.

What are some limitations of IR?
Requires a direct line of sight, and it operates at a relatively low speed.

What does tethering imply?
A physical connection with a cable.

How many internet connection does tethering allow?
1 connection.

How many wireless internet connection does hotspot allow?
Multiple.

Turning on airplane mode disables what?
All features that require radio waves.

What do all IOS devices require?
An iCloud account.

All android phones are associated with what?
A google account that is logged in during the setup process.

What is the difference between Virtual Reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR)?
With AR, we see the real world with virtual objects placed within it. With VR, everything is virtual.

What tracks head movement in VR?
A VR headset.

What is Code division multiple access (CDMA)?
A type of phone that does not come with a SIM card. This means that their firmware often need to be updated.

What is Preferred Roaming List (PRL)?
An issue on CDMA devices that occurs due to outdated firmware.

What are some symptoms of PRL?
Slow calls, texts, etc...

What is Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM)?
A type of phone that comes with a SIM card.

What is International Mobile Subscriber Identity (IMSI)?
A number that has information about a sim. (Built into a SIM).

International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI)?
A number that has information about a phone. (Built into the phone).

What are the three steps to keep in mind when setting up a VPN?
1. Give it a name. 2. Set up the type of VPN. 3. Know the server IP address.

What terms are associated with e-mail encryption?
SSL and STARTTLS.

What is Secure/ Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)?
An old form of encryption that Takes a binary file and turns it into an ASCII code.

What is Synchronization?
A process (predates the cloud) whereby a file is transferred somewhere else in real time in order to make them the same.

What does Synchronize to the desktop mean?
A process of copying files from one device to a desktop. Ex: iTunes.

What does Synchronize to automobiles mean?
A process of copying files from one devices to an automobile through Bluetooth.

What does Synchronize to the cloud mean?
A process of copying files from one device to the cloud. Ex: Google Drive, iCloud.

What is a Photosensitive Drum?
A part of a laser printer that allows an image to be transferred onto paper via electric charge.

What are the Steps to Laser Printing?
1. Processing. 2. Charging. 3. Exposing. 4. Developing. 5. Transferring. 6. Fusing. 7. Cleaning. (PCEDTFC).

What happens during the Processing stage in Laser Printing?
Print job is stored on memory.

What happens during the Charging stage in Laser Printing?
Negative charges are placed.

What happens during the Exposing stage in Laser Printing?
Laser writes text on photosensitive drum (reduces charge).

What happens during the Developing stage in Laser Printing?
Toner puts ink on photosensitive drum.

What happens during the Transferring stage in Laser Printing?
Photosensitive drum slams on paper (imprinting ink).

What happens during the Fusing stage in Laser Printing?
Fusing assembly presses the ink into the paper.

What happens during the Cleaning stage in Laser Printing?
Scraper cleans residual ink on the paper.

What happens when printing color with laser printers?
Each color puts some ink on the transfer belt.

What can be done to help laser printers to continue to work well?
Maintenance kits and replacing toner cartridges.

What is Calibration?
A process that gives laser and inkjet printers the ability to fix ink-related issues.

What does the term Cleaning heads mean?
A process found on inkjet printers that fixes clogged cartridges.

When do clear jams occur?
when paper gets jammed during the printing process.

What are Impact (dot matrix) Printers?
Very old type of printer that uses print heads ribbon cartridges, and tractor feed paper.

What process is not required with impact printers?
Heating process.

What is a Thermal printer?
A type of printer that uses thermally sensitive paper that changes colors when exposed to heat.

What are the two parts of a Thermal printer?
Feed assembly and Heating element.

How do you maintain a Thermal printer?
Clean heating element, remove debris, and replace paper.

What is a Spooler?
Printing software that stores upcoming print jobs.

What is Collate?
A type of feature found in printers that organizes printed papers.

What is Duplex?
A type of feature found in printers that allow both sides of a paper to be printed on.

What type of users can cancel or pause print jobs?
Users with administrative accounts.

What are Virtual Printers?
"Fake printers" that can create file types like .pdf and send documents to locations like OneNote.

Printers can also be configured to be able to do what?
Be shared by other devices like laptops.

What protocol allows printers to broadcast themselves?
Mac: SLP. Windows: LLDP.

What does Zeroconf (Windows) and Bonjour (Mac) allow?
Printers to automatically configure themselves.

What does Cloud printing (Google cloud printing) allow?
Allows users to configure a printer to a Google account. This allows the user the ability to print from any location.

What type of printer commonly get low memory errors?
Laser printers.

What might be the cause of garbled characters on printers?
Bad or corrupted printer drivers.

What might be the cause of Vertical lines on printed page?
Debris on the roller of a laser printer.

What might be the cause of Faded prints or Streaks?
Clogged ink.

What might be the cause of Ghost images?
No cleaning is occurring after printing.

What might be the cause of creased paper?
Defective pickup roller.

What is a Filament?
A material that creates the 3D printed object. Ex: Plastic (PLA).

3D printers use what type of file?
An STL (slice) file.

What are some ways to make your PC less vulnerable to threats?
1. Patch your system through updates. 2. Run anti-malware. 3. Run a host-based firewall. 4. Install intrusion detection and prevention systems.

What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Box or software that monitors what is going on on the network. Notifies when there is a problem (old technology).

What is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
Box or software that reports and disable ports when there is a security problem (new technology).

What is Endpoint management?
A central system that looks for intrusions and makes sure security softwares are up to date.

What is a Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
A security service that is packed and sold.