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Extra Class pool (exp June 2012) w/Correct answers only

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  1. E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being within the band?
  2. D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
  3. =========================
  4. E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal LSB emission being within the band?
  5. D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
  6. =========================
  7. E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
  8. C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
  9. =========================
  10. E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
  11. C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
  12. =========================
  13. E1A05: Which is the only amateur band that does not permit the transmission of phone or image emissions?
  14. C. 30 meters
  15. =========================
  16. E1A06: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
  17. B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
  18. =========================
  19. E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?
  20. D. 60 meter band
  21. =========================
  22. E1A08: What is the only emission type permitted to be transmitted on the 60 meter band by an amateur station?
  23. C. Single sideband, upper sideband only
  24. =========================
  25. E1A09: Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
  26. A. 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters
  27. =========================
  28. E1A10: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
  29. B. The control operator of the originating station
  30. =========================
  31. E1A11: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
  32. A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
  33. =========================
  34. E1A12: If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
  35. A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
  36. =========================
  37. E1A13: When a US-registered vessel is in international waters, what type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from an on-board amateur transmitter?
  38. B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
  39. =========================
  40. E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
  41. D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
  42. =========================
  43. E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
  44. D. The location is significant to our environment, American history, architecture, or culture.
  45. =========================
  46. E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
  47. A. 1 mile
  48. =========================
  49. E1B04: What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
  50. C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
  51. =========================
  52. E1B05: What height restrictions apply to an amateur station antenna structure not close to a public use airport unless the FAA is notified and it is registered with the FCC?
  53. B. It must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site
  54. =========================
  55. E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site within 20,000 feet of a public use airport?
  56. A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC
  57. =========================
  58. E1B07: Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon the antenna�s distance from the nearest active runway?
  59. A. The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC
  60. =========================
  61. E1B08: On what frequencies may the operation of an amateur station be restricted if its emissions cause interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station on a receiver of good engineering design?
  62. D. On the interfering amateur service transmitting frequencies
  63. =========================
  64. E1B09: What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
  65. B. A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies
  66. =========================
  67. E1B10: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
  68. C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
  69. =========================
  70. E1B11: What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
  71. A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator
  72. =========================
  73. E1B12: What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
  74. B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214
  75. =========================
  76. E1B13: What communications are permissible in RACES?
  77. C. Authorized civil defense emergency communications affecting the immediate safety of life and property
  78. =========================
  79. E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
  80. D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
  81. =========================
  82. E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
  83. A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
  84. =========================
  85. E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
  86. B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
  87. =========================
  88. E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
  89. B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
  90. =========================
  91. E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
  92. A. Never
  93. =========================
  94. E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
  95. C. A control operator must be present at the control point
  96. =========================
  97. E1C07: What is meant by local control?
  98. C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
  99. =========================
  100. E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station�s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
  101. B. 3 minutes
  102. =========================
  103. E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station repeater operation?
  104. D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
  105. =========================
  106. E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
  107. B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
  108. =========================
  109. E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
  110. A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
  111. =========================
  112. E1D02: What is the amateur-satellite service?
  113. C. A radio communications service using amateur stations on satellites
  114. =========================
  115. E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
  116. B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate certain functions of a space station
  117. =========================
  118. E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
  119. A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
  120. =========================
  121. E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
  122. C. A holder of any class of license
  123. =========================
  124. E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?
  125. A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by telecommand when so ordered by the FCC
  126. =========================
  127. E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
  128. A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
  129. =========================
  130. E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
  131. D. 2 meters
  132. =========================
  133. E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
  134. B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
  135. =========================
  136. E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
  137. B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
  138. =========================
  139. E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
  140. D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
  141. =========================
  142. E1D12: Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station?
  143. B. The FCC�s International Bureau, Washington, DC
  144. =========================
  145. E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
  146. D. 3
  147. =========================
  148. E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
  149. C. In the VEC-maintained question pool
  150. =========================
  151. E1E03: Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken?
  152. A. All of the VECs
  153. =========================
  154. E1E04: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
  155. C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
  156. =========================
  157. E1E05: What is a VE?
  158. B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations
  159. =========================
  160. E1E06: What is a VE team?
  161. A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
  162. =========================
  163. E1E07: Which of the following persons seeking to become VEs cannot be accredited?
  164. C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended or revoked
  165. =========================
  166. E1E08: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
  167. D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
  168. =========================
  169. E1E09: Where must the VE team be while administering an examination?
  170. A. All of the administering VEs must be present where they can observe the examinees throughout the entire examination
  171. =========================
  172. E1E10: Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
  173. C. Each administering VE
  174. =========================
  175. E1E11: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner�s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
  176. B. Immediately terminate the candidate�s examination
  177. =========================
  178. E1E12: To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
  179. C. The VE�s close relatives as listed in the FCC rules
  180. =========================
  181. E1E13: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
  182. A. Revocation of the VE�s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE�s amateur operator license grant
  183. =========================
  184. E1E14: What must the VE team do with the examinee�s test papers once they have finished the examination?
  185. C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately
  186. =========================
  187. E1E15: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
  188. B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the VE requirements
  189. =========================
  190. E1E16: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
  191. A. Return the application document to the examinee
  192. =========================
  193. E1E17: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
  194. A. The licensee's license will be cancelled
  195. =========================
  196. E1E18: For which types of out-of-pocket expenses may VEs and VECs be reimbursed?
  197. A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
  198. =========================
  199. E1E19: How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination?
  200. A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses
  201. =========================
  202. E1E20: What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?
  203. C. 18 years old
  204. =========================
  205. E1F01: On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
  206. B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
  207. =========================
  208. E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
  209. A. CEPT agreement
  210. =========================
  211. E1F03: Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other�s countries?
  212. B. IARP agreement
  213. =========================
  214. E1F04: What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service?
  215. B. That particular RF amplifier may be marketed for use in the amateur service
  216. =========================
  217. E1F05: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
  218. A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
  219. =========================
  220. E1F06: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
  221. A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
  222. =========================
  223. E1F07: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located north of Line A?
  224. D. 420 - 430 MHz
  225. =========================
  226. E1F08: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
  227. C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
  228. =========================
  229. E1F09: When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party?
  230. D. Under no circumstances
  231. =========================
  232. E1F10: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
  233. D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
  234. =========================
  235. E1F11: Which of the following types of amateur-operator-to-amateur-operator communications are prohibited?
  236. A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
  237. =========================
  238. E1F12: FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions?
  239. D. All of these choices are correct
  240. =========================
  241. E1F13: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
  242. C. 100 W
  243. =========================
  244. E1F14: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
  245. D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at its full output power
  246. =========================
  247. E1F15: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
  248. B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  249. =========================
  250. E1F16: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
  251. C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
  252. =========================
  253. E1F17: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?
  254. A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
  255. =========================
  256. E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
  257. C. From south to north
  258. =========================
  259. E2A02: What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
  260. A. From north to south
  261. =========================
  262. E2A03: What is the orbital period of a satellite?
  263. C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
  264. =========================
  265. E2A04: What is meant by the term �mode� as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
  266. B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
  267. =========================
  268. E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
  269. D. The uplink and downlink frequencies
  270. =========================
  271. E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in
  272. A. 432 MHz
  273. =========================
  274. E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
  275. D. All these answers are correct
  276. =========================
  277. E2A08: What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP?
  278. B. Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited
  279. =========================
  280. E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
  281. A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
  282. =========================
  283. E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
  284. A. Because the satellite is rotating
  285. =========================
  286. E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
  287. B. A circularly polarized antenna
  288. =========================
  289. E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
  290. D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
  291. =========================
  292. E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
  293. B. Geosynchronous
  294. =========================
  295. E2A14: What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect?
  296. B. The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead
  297. =========================
  298. E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  299. A. 30
  300. =========================
  301. E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
  302. C. 525
  303. =========================
  304. E2B03: How is an interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  305. D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next
  306. =========================
  307. E2B04: What is blanking in a video signal?
  308. B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
  309. =========================
  310. E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast scan TV transmissions?
  311. C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video
  312. =========================
  313. E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?
  314. A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of
  315. =========================
  316. E2B07: What is the name of the video signal component that carries color information?
  317. B. Chroma
  318. =========================
  319. E2B08: Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
  320. D. All of these choices are correct
  321. =========================
  322. E2B09: What hardware, other than a transceiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV based on Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
  323. D. No other hardware is needed
  324. =========================
  325. E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
  326. A. 3 KHz
  327. =========================
  328. E2B11: What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission?
  329. B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
  330. =========================
  331. E2B12: How are analog slow-scan television images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
  332. D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
  333. =========================
  334. E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
  335. C. 128 or 256
  336. =========================
  337. E2B14: What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
  338. A. Tone frequency
  339. =========================
  340. E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
  341. A. Specific tone frequencies
  342. =========================
  343. E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
  344. D. NTSC
  345. =========================
  346. E2B17: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?
  347. A. Immunity from fading due to limiting
  348. =========================
  349. E2B18: What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
  350. B. 3 kHz
  351. =========================
  352. E2B19: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FMTV transmissions?
  353. D. 1255 MHz
  354. =========================
  355. E2B20: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
  356. C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
  357. =========================
  358. E2B21: If 100 IRE units correspond to the most-white level in the NTSC standard video format, what is the level of the most-black signal?
  359. B. 7.5 IRE units
  360. =========================
  361. E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?
  362. A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
  363. =========================
  364. E2C02: Which of the following best describes �self spotting� in regards to contest operating?
  365. A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one�s own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
  366. =========================
  367. E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
  368. A. 30 meters
  369. =========================
  370. E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
  371. D. 146.52 MHz
  372. =========================
  373. E2C05: Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to work other U.S. stations in a phone contest?
  374. B. 14.310 MHz
  375. =========================
  376. E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
  377. C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
  378. =========================
  379. E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?
  380. A. A standard for organizing information in contest log files
  381. =========================
  382. E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
  383. A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
  384. =========================
  385. E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?
  386. D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
  387. =========================
  388. E2C10: Why might a phone DX station state that he is listening on another frequency?
  389. D. All of these choices are correct
  390. =========================
  391. E2C11: How should you generally sign your call when attempting to contact a DX station working a �pileup� or in a contest?
  392. A. Send your full call sign once or twice
  393. =========================
  394. E2C12: In North America during low sunspot activity, when signals from Europe become weak and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations?
  395. B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
  396. =========================
  397. E2D01: What does �command mode� mean in packet operations?
  398. B. The TNC is ready to receive instructions via the keyboard
  399. =========================
  400. E2D02: What is the definition of �baud�?
  401. A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second
  402. =========================
  403. E2D03: Which of the follow is true when comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations?
  404. A. HF packet typically uses FSK with a data rate of 300 baud; 2-meter packet uses AFSK with a data rate of 1200 baud
  405. =========================
  406. E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur satellite?
  407. C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
  408. =========================
  409. E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
  410. B. Store-and-forward
  411. =========================
  412. E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
  413. B. 144.39 MHz
  414. =========================
  415. E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
  416. A. AX.25
  417. =========================
  418. E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
  419. D. Unnumbered Information frames
  420. =========================
  421. E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
  422. D. 300-baud packet
  423. =========================
  424. E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
  425. C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
  426. =========================
  427. E2D11: Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your geographical location over the APRS network?
  428. D. Any of these choices is correct
  429. =========================
  430. E2E01: What is a common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz?
  431. B. FSK/AFSK
  432. =========================
  433. E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
  434. A. Forward Error Correction
  435. =========================
  436. E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
  437. C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
  438. =========================
  439. E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
  440. A. Selective fading has occurred
  441. =========================
  442. E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
  443. D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
  444. =========================
  445. E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
  446. C. 300 baud
  447. =========================
  448. E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
  449. B. 316 Hz
  450. =========================
  451. E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
  452. B. PACTOR
  453. =========================
  454. E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
  455. D. PSK31
  456. =========================
  457. E2E11: What is the Baudot code?
  458. D. The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data bits
  459. =========================
  460. E2E12: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
  461. C. PSK31
  462. =========================
  463. E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by moonbounce?
  464. D. 12,000 miles, as long as both can �see� the moon
  465. =========================
  466. E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal?
  467. B. A fluttery irregular fading
  468. =========================
  469. E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
  470. A. When the moon is at perigee
  471. =========================
  472. E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
  473. D. Equipment with very low noise figures
  474. =========================
  475. E3A05: What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
  476. A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
  477. =========================
  478. E3A06: What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
  479. C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
  480. =========================
  481. E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2 meter band?
  482. B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
  483. =========================
  484. E3A08: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70 cm band?
  485. D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz
  486. =========================
  487. E3A09: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
  488. A. The E layer
  489. =========================
  490. E3A10: Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
  491. C. 28 - 148 MHz
  492. =========================
  493. E3A11: What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact?
  494. C. 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds
  495. =========================
  496. E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?
  497. A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
  498. =========================
  499. E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
  500. C. 5000 miles
  501. =========================
  502. E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
  503. C. Afternoon or early evening
  504. =========================
  505. E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
  506. A. Long-path
  507. =========================
  508. E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
  509. C. 160 to 10 meters
  510. =========================
  511. E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
  512. B. 20 meters
  513. =========================
  514. E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
  515. D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path
  516. =========================
  517. E3B08: What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
  518. D. Gray-line
  519. =========================
  520. E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?
  521. A. At sunrise and sunset
  522. =========================
  523. E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
  524. B. At twilight, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF
  525. =========================
  526. E3B11: What communications are possible during gray-line propagation?
  527. C. Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands
  528. =========================
  529. E3C01: What effect does auroral activity have on radio communications?
  530. D. CW signals have a fluttery tone
  531. =========================
  532. E3C02: What is the cause of auroral activity?
  533. C. The emission of charged particles from the sun
  534. =========================
  535. E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
  536. D. At E-region height
  537. =========================
  538. E3C04: Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation?
  539. A. CW
  540. =========================
  541. E3C05: What causes selective fading?
  542. B. Phase differences in the received signal caused by different paths
  543. =========================
  544. E3C06: How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  545. A. By approximately 15% of the distance
  546. =========================
  547. E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a 3-element, horizontally polarized beam antenna vary with height above ground?
  548. B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
  549. =========================
  550. E3C08: What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?
  551. B. Pedersen ray
  552. =========================
  553. E3C09: What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles?
  554. C. Tropospheric ducting
  555. =========================
  556. E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
  557. B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
  558. =========================
  559. E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
  560. B. North
  561. =========================
  562. E3C12: As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change?
  563. B. It decreases
  564. =========================
  565. E3C13: What type of polarization does most ground-wave propagation have?
  566. A. Vertical
  567. =========================
  568. E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  569. D. Radio waves may be bent
  570. =========================
  571. E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope?
  572. C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
  573. =========================
  574. E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
  575. D. Frequency
  576. =========================
  577. E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
  578. A. Amplitude
  579. =========================
  580. E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
  581. A. A spectrum analyzer
  582. =========================
  583. E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
  584. B. A spectrum analyzer
  585. =========================
  586. E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
  587. D. All of these choices are correct
  588. =========================
  589. E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer vs. a SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
  590. B. Antenna analyzers typically do not need an external RF source
  591. =========================
  592. E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
  593. D. An antenna analyzer
  594. =========================
  595. E4A09: Which of the following is most important when adjusting PSK31 transmitting levels?
  596. C. ALC level
  597. =========================
  598. E4A10: Which of the following is a useful test for a functioning NPN transistor in an active circuit where the transistor should be biased "on" ?
  599. D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
  600. =========================
  601. E4A11: Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit?
  602. A. A logic probe
  603. =========================
  604. E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
  605. B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
  606. =========================
  607. E4B01: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good harmonic frequency marker?
  608. B. Frequency stability
  609. =========================
  610. E4B02: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
  611. B. Time base accuracy
  612. =========================
  613. E4B03: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
  614. C. The measurement is based on obtaining a null in voltage, which can be done very precisely
  615. =========================
  616. E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  617. C. 146.52 Hz
  618. =========================
  619. E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  620. A. 14.652 Hz
  621. =========================
  622. E4B06: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  623. D. 1465.20 Hz
  624. =========================
  625. E4B07: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
  626. D. 75 watts
  627. =========================
  628. E4B08: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
  629. A. Keep the ground connection of the probe as short as possible
  630. =========================
  631. E4B09: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
  632. C. High impedance input
  633. =========================
  634. E4B10: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feedline of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
  635. D. There is more power going into the antenna
  636. =========================
  637. E4B11: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
  638. B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  639. =========================
  640. E4B12: How should a portable SWR analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feedpoint impedance?
  641. D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
  642. =========================
  643. E4B13: What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
  644. A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
  645. =========================
  646. E4B14: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
  647. A. A square wave is observed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave is as nearly flat as possible
  648. =========================
  649. E4B15: What happens if a dip-meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
  650. B. A less accurate reading results
  651. =========================
  652. E4B16: Which of these factors limits the accuracy of a D'Arsonval-type meter?
  653. B. Coil impedance
  654. =========================
  655. E4B17: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?
  656. C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
  657. =========================
  658. E4C01: What is the effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
  659. D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
  660. =========================
  661. E4C02: Which of the following is the result of the capture effect in an FM receiver?
  662. C. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal
  663. =========================
  664. E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
  665. C. Capture effect
  666. =========================
  667. E4C04: What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?
  668. D. The equivalent input noise power when the antenna is replaced with a matched dummy load
  669. =========================
  670. E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
  671. B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
  672. =========================
  673. E4C06: The thermal noise value of a receiver is -174 dBm/Hz. What is the theoretically best minimum detectable signal for a 400 Hz bandwidth receiver?
  674. D. -148 dBm
  675. =========================
  676. E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
  677. B. The minimum discernible signal
  678. =========================
  679. E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
  680. B. It would increase signal to noise ratio
  681. =========================
  682. E4C09: Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting condition for sensitivity in a modern communications receiver operating at 14 MHz?
  683. D. Atmospheric noise
  684. =========================
  685. E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
  686. B. 300 Hz
  687. =========================
  688. E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur single-sideband phone receiver?
  689. B. 2.4 kHz
  690. =========================
  691. E4C12: What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
  692. D. Undesired signals may be heard
  693. =========================
  694. E4C13: How does a narrow band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
  695. C. It improves dynamic range by keeping strong signals near the receive frequency out of the IF stages
  696. =========================
  697. E4C14: Which of these choices is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur VHF FM receiver?
  698. D. 15 kHz
  699. =========================
  700. E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?
  701. D. Atmospheric noise
  702. =========================
  703. E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
  704. A. The difference in dB between the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression, and the level of the noise floor
  705. =========================
  706. E4D02: Which of the following describes two types of problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
  707. A. Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
  708. =========================
  709. E4D03: How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
  710. B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both transmitter final amplifiers
  711. =========================
  712. E4D04: What is an effective way to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters operating in close proximity to one another?
  713. B. By installing a properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
  714. =========================
  715. E4D05: If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
  716. A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
  717. =========================
  718. E4D06: If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this called?
  719. D. Intermodulation interference
  720. =========================
  721. E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
  722. D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
  723. =========================
  724. E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
  725. C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
  726. =========================
  727. E4D09: What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
  728. C. To improve rejection of unwanted signals
  729. =========================
  730. E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
  731. C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate the same output on the third order intermodulation frequency as on the input frequency
  732. =========================
  733. E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
  734. A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band is itself likely to be within the band
  735. =========================
  736. E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
  737. A. Desensitization
  738. =========================
  739. E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
  740. B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
  741. =========================
  742. E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
  743. A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
  744. =========================
  745. E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
  746. A. Ignition Noise
  747. =========================
  748. E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
  749. D. All of these choices are correct
  750. =========================
  751. E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
  752. B. Signals which appear correlated across a wide bandwidth
  753. =========================
  754. E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
  755. D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
  756. =========================
  757. E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
  758. B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
  759. =========================
  760. E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
  761. B. Thunderstorms
  762. =========================
  763. E4E07: How can you determine if line-noise interference is being generated within your home?
  764. C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery-operated radio
  765. =========================
  766. E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter?
  767. A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
  768. =========================
  769. E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF type noise blanker?
  770. C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
  771. =========================
  772. E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a "touch controlled" electrical device?
  773. D. All of these answers are correct
  774. =========================
  775. E4E11: What is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals inside one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
  776. B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the BC signals
  777. =========================
  778. E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
  779. A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
  780. =========================
  781. E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud "roaring" or "buzzing" AC line type of interference that comes and goes at intervals?
  782. D. All of these answers are correct
  783. =========================
  784. E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
  785. C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
  786. =========================
  787. E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
  788. A. Resonance
  789. =========================
  790. E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
  791. C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
  792. =========================
  793. E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?
  794. D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
  795. =========================
  796. E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
  797. A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
  798. =========================
  799. E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
  800. B. Maximum
  801. =========================
  802. E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance?
  803. B. It is at a maximum
  804. =========================
  805. E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
  806. A. Minimum
  807. =========================
  808. E5A08: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit?
  809. C. The voltage and current are in phase
  810. =========================
  811. E5A09: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit?
  812. C. The voltage and current are in phase
  813. =========================
  814. E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
  815. A. 18.9 kHz
  816. =========================
  817. E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
  818. C. 47.3 kHz
  819. =========================
  820. E5A12: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
  821. C. 31.4 kHz
  822. =========================
  823. E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
  824. B. 76.2 kHz
  825. =========================
  826. E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
  827. C. 3.56 MHz
  828. =========================
  829. E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
  830. B. 1.78 MHz
  831. =========================
  832. E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
  833. D. 7.12 MHz
  834. =========================
  835. E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
  836. A. 10.1 MHz
  837. =========================
  838. E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?
  839. D. One time constant
  840. =========================
  841. E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?
  842. D. 13.5%
  843. =========================
  844. E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
  845. D. 220 seconds
  846. =========================
  847. E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
  848. A. 0.02 seconds
  849. =========================
  850. E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
  851. C. 450 seconds
  852. =========================
  853. E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
  854. C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  855. =========================
  856. E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
  857. A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  858. =========================
  859. E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor?
  860. D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
  861. =========================
  862. E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
  863. A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  864. =========================
  865. E5B11: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  866. B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  867. =========================
  868. E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  869. C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  870. =========================
  871. E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
  872. D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  873. =========================
  874. E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
  875. B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  876. =========================
  877. E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
  878. D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
  879. =========================
  880. E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
  881. A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  882. =========================
  883. E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
  884. D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
  885. =========================
  886. E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
  887. A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
  888. =========================
  889. E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
  890. D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  891. =========================
  892. E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
  893. C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  894. =========================
  895. E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
  896. B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  897. =========================
  898. E5C09: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?
  899. A. The voltage or current associated with the resistive component
  900. =========================
  901. E5C10: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
  902. B. The voltage or current associated with the reactive component
  903. =========================
  904. E5C11: What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates?
  905. C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
  906. =========================
  907. E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit?
  908. D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance
  909. =========================
  910. E5C13: What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
  911. D. Rectangular coordinates
  912. =========================
  913. E5C14: What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
  914. D. Polar coordinates
  915. =========================
  916. E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
  917. A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  918. =========================
  919. E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
  920. B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  921. =========================
  922. E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
  923. C. 173 + j100 ohms
  924. =========================
  925. E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
  926. B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  927. =========================
  928. E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
  929. B. Point 4
  930. =========================
  931. E5C20: Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
  932. B. Point 3
  933. =========================
  934. E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
  935. A. Point 1
  936. =========================
  937. E5C22: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
  938. A. 40 + j31,400
  939. =========================
  940. E5C23: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
  941. D. Point 8
  942. =========================
  943. E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?
  944. A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  945. =========================
  946. E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
  947. C. Because of skin effect
  948. =========================
  949. E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
  950. C. A capacitor
  951. =========================
  952. E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
  953. B. Joule
  954. =========================
  955. E5D05: What is a magnetic field?
  956. B. The region surrounding a magnet through which a magnetic force acts
  957. =========================
  958. E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
  959. D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
  960. =========================
  961. E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
  962. D. The amount of current
  963. =========================
  964. E5D08: What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
  965. B. Potential energy
  966. =========================
  967. E5D09: What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors?
  968. D. Reactive power
  969. =========================
  970. E5D10: In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to reactive power?
  971. B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
  972. =========================
  973. E5D11: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
  974. A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
  975. =========================
  976. E5D12: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  977. C. 0.5
  978. =========================
  979. E5D13: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
  980. B. 80 watts
  981. =========================
  982. E5D14: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
  983. B. 100 Watts
  984. =========================
  985. E5D15: What is reactive power?
  986. A. Wattless, nonproductive power
  987. =========================
  988. E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  989. D. 0.707
  990. =========================
  991. E5D17: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  992. C. 0.866
  993. =========================
  994. E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
  995. D. 600 watts
  996. =========================
  997. E5D19: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 watts?
  998. B. 355 W
  999. =========================
  1000. E6A01: In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
  1001. C. At microwave frequencies
  1002. =========================
  1003. E6A02: What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
  1004. A. N-type
  1005. =========================
  1006. E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
  1007. C. Holes
  1008. =========================
  1009. E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
  1010. C. Acceptor impurity
  1011. =========================
  1012. E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
  1013. C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
  1014. =========================
  1015. E6A06: What is meant by the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
  1016. B. The change in collector current with respect to base current
  1017. =========================
  1018. E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
  1019. A. 1
  1020. =========================
  1021. E6A08: What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
  1022. D. Alpha cutoff frequency
  1023. =========================
  1024. E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?
  1025. A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  1026. =========================
  1027. E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
  1028. B. 4
  1029. =========================
  1030. E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
  1031. A. 1
  1032. =========================
  1033. E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
  1034. D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
  1035. =========================
  1036. E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?
  1037. C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
  1038. =========================
  1039. E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
  1040. C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
  1041. =========================
  1042. E6A15: What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and nonmetallic characteristics?
  1043. B. Silicon and germanium
  1044. =========================
  1045. E6A16: What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
  1046. B. P-type
  1047. =========================
  1048. E6A17: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
  1049. B. Free electrons
  1050. =========================
  1051. E6A18: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
  1052. D. Gate, drain, source
  1053. =========================
  1054. E6B01: What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
  1055. B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
  1056. =========================
  1057. E6B02: What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
  1058. C. A negative resistance region
  1059. =========================
  1060. E6B03: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky Barrier diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
  1061. D. Less forward voltage drop
  1062. =========================
  1063. E6B04: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
  1064. C. Tunnel
  1065. =========================
  1066. E6B05: What type of semiconductor device varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
  1067. A. Varactor diode
  1068. =========================
  1069. E6B06: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?
  1070. D. 1
  1071. =========================
  1072. E6B07: What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
  1073. D. As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector
  1074. =========================
  1075. E6B08: What limits the maximum forward current rating in a junction diode?
  1076. B. Junction temperature
  1077. =========================
  1078. E6B09: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
  1079. A. Metal-semiconductor junction
  1080. =========================
  1081. E6B10: What is a common use for point contact diodes?
  1082. C. As an RF detector
  1083. =========================
  1084. E6B11: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
  1085. B. 5
  1086. =========================
  1087. E6B12: How are junction diodes rated?
  1088. D. Maximum forward current and PIV
  1089. =========================
  1090. E6B13: What is one common use for PIN diodes?
  1091. C. As an RF switch
  1092. =========================
  1093. E6B14: What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
  1094. B. Forward bias
  1095. =========================
  1096. E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
  1097. C. 5 volts
  1098. =========================
  1099. E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
  1100. A. A logic-high state
  1101. =========================
  1102. E6C03: What level of input voltage is a logic "high" in a TTL device operating with a positive 5-volt power supply?
  1103. A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
  1104. =========================
  1105. E6C04: What level of input voltage is a logic "low" in a TTL device operating with a positive 5-volt power-supply?
  1106. C. 0.0 to 0.8 volts
  1107. =========================
  1108. E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
  1109. D. Lower power consumption
  1110. =========================
  1111. E6C06: Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
  1112. C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
  1113. =========================
  1114. E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
  1115. A. 1
  1116. =========================
  1117. E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
  1118. B. 2
  1119. =========================
  1120. E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
  1121. B. 3
  1122. =========================
  1123. E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
  1124. D. 4
  1125. =========================
  1126. E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
  1127. C. 5
  1128. =========================
  1129. E6D01: How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
  1130. D. By varying electromagnetic fields
  1131. =========================
  1132. E6D02: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
  1133. D. The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
  1134. =========================
  1135. E6D03: If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to 35,000 volts?
  1136. A. The image size will decrease
  1137. =========================
  1138. E6D04: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
  1139. B. The anode voltage
  1140. =========================
  1141. E6D05: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
  1142. C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
  1143. =========================
  1144. E6D06: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
  1145. A. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
  1146. =========================
  1147. E6D07: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
  1148. B. A display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light is refracted
  1149. =========================
  1150. E6D08: What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor with a 10-turn winding?
  1151. D. Core permeability
  1152. =========================
  1153. E6D09: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?
  1154. B. From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
  1155. =========================
  1156. E6D10: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
  1157. B. Powdered-iron toroids generally have better temperature stability
  1158. =========================
  1159. E6D11: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?
  1160. C. Ferrite beads
  1161. =========================
  1162. E6D12: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
  1163. A. Toroidal cores contain most of the magnetic field within the core material
  1164. =========================
  1165. E6D13: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
  1166. C. 43 turns
  1167. =========================
  1168. E6D14: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
  1169. A. 35 turns
  1170. =========================
  1171. E6D15: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be displayed on the screen?
  1172. D. Electrostatic
  1173. =========================
  1174. E6D16: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
  1175. C. It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
  1176. =========================
  1177. E6D17: What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?
  1178. A. They consume less power
  1179. =========================
  1180. E6D18: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
  1181. C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
  1182. =========================
  1183. E6E01: Which of these filter bandwidths would be a good choice for use in a SSB radiotelephone transmitter?
  1184. B. 2.4 kHz at -6 dB
  1185. =========================
  1186. E6E02: Which of these filter bandwidths would be a good choice for use with standard double-sideband AM transmissions?
  1187. C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
  1188. =========================
  1189. E6E03: What is a crystal lattice filter?
  1190. D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
  1191. =========================
  1192. E6E04: What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystal ladder filters?
  1193. D. Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units with a frequency variation of less than 10% of the desired filter bandwidth
  1194. =========================
  1195. E6E05: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
  1196. A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
  1197. =========================
  1198. E6E06: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
  1199. A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
  1200. =========================
  1201. E6E07: What is the characteristic impedance of circuits in which almost all MMICs are designed to work?
  1202. A. 50 ohms
  1203. =========================
  1204. E6E08: What is the typical noise figure of a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifier?
  1205. B. Approximately 3.5 to 6 dB
  1206. =========================
  1207. E6E09: What type of amplifier device consists of a small pill-type package with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads?
  1208. D. A monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
  1209. =========================
  1210. E6E10: What typical construction technique is used when building an amplifier for the microwave bands containing a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
  1211. B. Microstrip construction
  1212. =========================
  1213. E6E11: How is the operating bias voltage normally supplied to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
  1214. A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
  1215. =========================
  1216. E6E12: What supply voltage do monolithic microwave integrated circuits (MMIC) amplifiers typically require?
  1217. B. 12 volts DC
  1218. =========================
  1219. E6E13: What is the most common package for inexpensive monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifiers?
  1220. C. Plastic packages
  1221. =========================
  1222. E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
  1223. B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
  1224. =========================
  1225. E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
  1226. A. It increases
  1227. =========================
  1228. E6F03: What is the most common configuration for an optocoupler?
  1229. D. An LED and a phototransistor
  1230. =========================
  1231. E6F04: Which of the following is an optoisolator?
  1232. A. An LED and a phototransistor
  1233. =========================
  1234. E6F05: What is an optical shaft encoder?
  1235. B. An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel
  1236. =========================
  1237. E6F06: What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity change?
  1238. D. The resistance
  1239. =========================
  1240. E6F07: Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when illuminated by visible light?
  1241. C. Cadmium sulfide
  1242. =========================
  1243. E6F08: Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when illuminated by infrared light?
  1244. B. Lead sulfide
  1245. =========================
  1246. E6F09: Which of the following materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
  1247. A. A crystalline semiconductor
  1248. =========================
  1249. E6F10: What characteristic of optoisolators is often used in power supplies?
  1250. B. They have very high impedance between the light source and the phototransistor
  1251. =========================
  1252. E6F11: What characteristic of optoisolators makes them suitable for use with a triac to form the solid-state equivalent of a mechanical relay for a 120 V AC household circuit?
  1253. C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and a power circuit
  1254. =========================
  1255. E6F12: Which of the following types of photovoltaic cell has the highest efficiency?
  1256. D. Gallium arsenide
  1257. =========================
  1258. E6F13: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
  1259. B. Silicon
  1260. =========================
  1261. E6F14: B) Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon� photovoltaic cell?
  1262. B. 0.5 V
  1263. =========================
  1264. E6F15: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
  1265. C. Electrons
  1266. =========================
  1267. E7A01: What is a bistable circuit?
  1268. C. A flip-flop
  1269. =========================
  1270. E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?
  1271. C. Two
  1272. =========================
  1273. E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of pulse train by 2?
  1274. B. A flip-flop
  1275. =========================
  1276. E7A04: How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
  1277. B. 2
  1278. =========================
  1279. E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two unstable states without an external clock?
  1280. D. Astable Multivibrator
  1281. =========================
  1282. E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
  1283. A. It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
  1284. =========================
  1285. E7A07: What logical operation does an AND gate perform?
  1286. B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
  1287. =========================
  1288. E7A08: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
  1289. D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
  1290. =========================
  1291. E7A09: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
  1292. A. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
  1293. =========================
  1294. E7A10: What logical operation does a NOR gate perform?
  1295. C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
  1296. =========================
  1297. E7A11: What is a truth table?
  1298. C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
  1299. =========================
  1300. E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
  1301. D. Positive Logic
  1302. =========================
  1303. E7A13: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
  1304. C. Negative logic
  1305. =========================
  1306. E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
  1307. A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
  1308. =========================
  1309. E7B02: Which class of amplifier, of the types shown, provides the highest efficiency?
  1310. C. Class C
  1311. =========================
  1312. E7B03: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?
  1313. A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
  1314. =========================
  1315. E7B04: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in a power amplifier?
  1316. C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
  1317. =========================
  1318. E7B05: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
  1319. B. Push-pull
  1320. =========================
  1321. E7B06: Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C rather than a class AB amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
  1322. D. The signal may become distorted and occupy excessive bandwidth
  1323. =========================
  1324. E7B07: How can a vacuum-tube power amplifier be neutralized?
  1325. C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the input
  1326. =========================
  1327. E7B08: Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?
  1328. D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
  1329. =========================
  1330. E7B09: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
  1331. B. Fixed bias
  1332. =========================
  1333. E7B10: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
  1334. D. Self bias
  1335. =========================
  1336. E7B11: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
  1337. C. Common emitter amplifier
  1338. =========================
  1339. E7B12: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
  1340. A. Emitter load
  1341. =========================
  1342. E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
  1343. A. Output coupling
  1344. =========================
  1345. E7B14: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a transistor amplifier?
  1346. C. Use degenerative emitter feedback
  1347. =========================
  1348. E7B15: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
  1349. A. Transmission of spurious signals
  1350. =========================
  1351. E7B16: Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?
  1352. A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
  1353. =========================
  1354. E7B17: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
  1355. C. Low input impedance
  1356. =========================
  1357. E7B18: What is a klystron?
  1358. D. A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation
  1359. =========================
  1360. E7B19: What is a parametric amplifier?
  1361. B. A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
  1362. =========================
  1363. E7B20: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?
  1364. A. FET
  1365. =========================
  1366. E7C01: How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
  1367. D. A capacitor is in parallel with the input, another capacitor is in parallel with the output, and an inductor is in series between the two
  1368. =========================
  1369. E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has which of the following properties?
  1370. C. It transforms impedance and is a high-pass filter
  1371. =========================
  1372. E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type transmitter and an antenna?
  1373. A. Greater harmonic suppression
  1374. =========================
  1375. E7C04: How does a network transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
  1376. C. It cancels the reactive part of an impedance and transforms the resistive part to the desired value
  1377. =========================
  1378. E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
  1379. D. A Chebyshev filter
  1380. =========================
  1381. E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
  1382. C. Extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more infinitely deep notches in the stop band
  1383. =========================
  1384. E7C07: What kind of audio filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
  1385. B. A notch filter
  1386. =========================
  1387. E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
  1388. A. An adaptive filter
  1389. =========================
  1390. E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used in generating an SSB signal?
  1391. C. A Hilbert-transform filter
  1392. =========================
  1393. E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2-meter repeater duplexer?
  1394. B. A cavity filter
  1395. =========================
  1396. E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks back-to-back?
  1397. D. Pi
  1398. =========================
  1399. E7C12: What is a Pi-L network, as used when matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?
  1400. B. A network consisting of two series inductors and two shunt capacitors
  1401. =========================
  1402. E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network?
  1403. A. Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
  1404. =========================
  1405. E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
  1406. C. Digital
  1407. =========================
  1408. E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
  1409. D. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
  1410. =========================
  1411. E7D02: What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?
  1412. C. The control device�s duty cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage
  1413. =========================
  1414. E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
  1415. A. A Zener diode
  1416. =========================
  1417. E7D04: Which of the following types of linear regulator makes the most efficient use of the primary power source?
  1418. B. A series regulator
  1419. =========================
  1420. E7D05: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
  1421. D. A shunt regulator
  1422. =========================
  1423. E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1424. C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
  1425. =========================
  1426. E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1427. A. It bypasses hum around D1
  1428. =========================
  1429. E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
  1430. C. Linear voltage regulator
  1431. =========================
  1432. E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1433. D. It filters the supply voltage
  1434. =========================
  1435. E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1436. A. It prevents self-oscillation
  1437. =========================
  1438. E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1439. C. It supplies current to D1
  1440. =========================
  1441. E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1442. D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
  1443. =========================
  1444. E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
  1445. B. To provide a voltage reference
  1446. =========================
  1447. E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?
  1448. C. To improve output voltage regulation
  1449. =========================
  1450. E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
  1451. D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
  1452. =========================
  1453. E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
  1454. D. All of these answers are correct
  1455. =========================
  1456. E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?
  1457. C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
  1458. =========================
  1459. E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM-phone emissions?
  1460. B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
  1461. =========================
  1462. E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
  1463. D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
  1464. =========================
  1465. E7E03: What is the fundamental principle of a phase modulator?
  1466. C. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
  1467. =========================
  1468. E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
  1469. A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
  1470. =========================
  1471. E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to proportionally attenuate the lower audio frequencies?
  1472. D. A pre-emphasis network
  1473. =========================
  1474. E7E06: What circuit is added to an FM receiver to restore attenuated lower audio frequencies?
  1475. A. A de-emphasis network
  1476. =========================
  1477. E7E07: What is one result of the process of mixing two signals?
  1478. D. The creation of new signals at the sum and difference frequencies
  1479. =========================
  1480. E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
  1481. C. The original frequencies, and the sum and difference frequencies
  1482. =========================
  1483. E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
  1484. A. Spurious mixer products are generated
  1485. =========================
  1486. E7E10: What is the process of detection?
  1487. B. The recovery of information from a modulated RF signal
  1488. =========================
  1489. E7E11: How does a diode detector function?
  1490. A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
  1491. =========================
  1492. E7E12: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?
  1493. C. Product detector
  1494. =========================
  1495. E7E13: What is a frequency discriminator?
  1496. D. A circuit for detecting FM signals
  1497. =========================
  1498. E7E14: Which of the following describes a common means of generating a SSB signal when using digital signal processing?
  1499. D. The phasing or quadrature method
  1500. =========================
  1501. E7E15: What is meant by �direct conversion� when referring to a software defined receiver?
  1502. C. Incoming RF is mixed to �baseband� for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
  1503. =========================
  1504. E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
  1505. D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
  1506. =========================
  1507. E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal�s frequency by a factor of ten?
  1508. B. A prescaler
  1509. =========================
  1510. E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
  1511. A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
  1512. =========================
  1513. E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
  1514. C. Two flip-flops
  1515. =========================
  1516. E7F05: Which of the following circuits can be combined to produce a 100 kHz fundamental signal with harmonics at 100 kHz intervals?
  1517. B. A 1 MHz oscillator and a decade counter
  1518. =========================
  1519. E7F06: Which of these choices best describes a crystal marker generator?
  1520. D. A crystal-controlled oscillator that generates a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
  1521. =========================
  1522. E7F07: Which type of circuit would be a good choice for generating a series of harmonically related receiver calibration signals?
  1523. D. A crystal oscillator followed by a frequency divider
  1524. =========================
  1525. E7F08: What is one purpose of a marker generator?
  1526. C. To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
  1527. =========================
  1528. E7F09: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
  1529. A. The accuracy of the time base
  1530. =========================
  1531. E7F10: How does a conventional frequency counter determine the frequency of a signal?
  1532. C. It counts the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
  1533. =========================
  1534. E7F11: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
  1535. A. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
  1536. =========================
  1537. E7F12: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some frequency counters?
  1538. B. Period measurement
  1539. =========================
  1540. E7F13: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?
  1541. C. It provides improved resolution of signals within a comparable time period
  1542. =========================
  1543. E7G01: What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?
  1544. B. The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
  1545. =========================
  1546. E7G02: What causes ringing in a filter?
  1547. C. The frequency and phase response of the filter
  1548. =========================
  1549. E7G03: What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
  1550. D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
  1551. =========================
  1552. E7G04: Which of the following capacitor types is best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?
  1553. C. Polystyrene
  1554. =========================
  1555. E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
  1556. A. Restrict both gain and Q
  1557. =========================
  1558. E7G06: What steps are typically followed when selecting the external components for an op-amp RC active filter?
  1559. A. Standard capacitor values are chosen first, the resistances are calculated, and resistors of the nearest standard value are used
  1560. =========================
  1561. E7G07: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp RC active filter?
  1562. D. As an audio receiving filter
  1563. =========================
  1564. E7G08: (D) Which of the following is a type of active op-amp filter circuit?
  1565. D. Sallen-Key
  1566. =========================
  1567. E7G09: What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
  1568. C. 47
  1569. =========================
  1570. E7G10: How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
  1571. D. It does not vary with frequency
  1572. =========================
  1573. E7G11: What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts is applied to the input?
  1574. D. -2.3 volts
  1575. =========================
  1576. E7G12: What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
  1577. C. 38
  1578. =========================
  1579. E7G13: What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
  1580. B. 14
  1581. =========================
  1582. E7G14: What is an operational amplifier?
  1583. A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
  1584. =========================
  1585. E7G15: What is meant by the term "op-amp input-offset voltage"?
  1586. C. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in a closed-loop condition
  1587. =========================
  1588. E7G16: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
  1589. D. Very high
  1590. =========================
  1591. E7G17: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
  1592. A. Very low
  1593. =========================
  1594. E7H01: What are three major oscillator circuits often used in Amateur Radio equipment?
  1595. D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
  1596. =========================
  1597. E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
  1598. C. It must have a positive feedback loop with a gain greater than 1
  1599. =========================
  1600. E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
  1601. A. Through a tapped coil
  1602. =========================
  1603. E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
  1604. C. Through a capacitive divider
  1605. =========================
  1606. E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
  1607. D. Through a quartz crystal
  1608. =========================
  1609. E7H06: Which type of oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
  1610. B. Colpitts and Hartley
  1611. =========================
  1612. E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
  1613. A. An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
  1614. =========================
  1615. E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop filter and a reference frequency source?
  1616. C. A phase locked loop synthesizer
  1617. =========================
  1618. E7H10: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
  1619. A. A direct digital synthesizer
  1620. =========================
  1621. E7H11: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
  1622. B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
  1623. =========================
  1624. E7H12: What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?
  1625. C. Spurs at discrete frequencies
  1626. =========================
  1627. E7H13: Which of these circuits would be classified as a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
  1628. D. Phase accumulator
  1629. =========================
  1630. E7H14: What circuit is often used in conjunction with a direct digital synthesizer (DDS) to expand the available tuning range?
  1631. C. Phase locked loop
  1632. =========================
  1633. E7H15: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
  1634. A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
  1635. =========================
  1636. E7H16: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
  1637. C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator
  1638. =========================
  1639. E7H17: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
  1640. D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
  1641. =========================
  1642. E7H18: Why is a stable reference oscillator normally used as part of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
  1643. B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
  1644. =========================
  1645. E7H19: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?
  1646. C. It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of stability as a crystal oscillator
  1647. =========================
  1648. E7H20: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?
  1649. A. Broadband noise
  1650. =========================
  1651. E8A01: What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?
  1652. A. A square wave
  1653. =========================
  1654. E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?
  1655. C. A sawtooth wave
  1656. =========================
  1657. E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
  1658. A. A sawtooth wave
  1659. =========================
  1660. E8A04: What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
  1661. C. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
  1662. =========================
  1663. E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
  1664. D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
  1665. =========================
  1666. E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical voice-modulated single-sideband phone signal?
  1667. A. 2.5 to 1
  1668. =========================
  1669. E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
  1670. B. The characteristics of the modulating signal
  1671. =========================
  1672. E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
  1673. A. The time required to complete one cycle
  1674. =========================
  1675. E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?
  1676. C. Irregular
  1677. =========================
  1678. E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
  1679. B. Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
  1680. =========================
  1681. E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
  1682. D. Digital data transmission
  1683. =========================
  1684. E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
  1685. D. All of these answers are correct
  1686. =========================
  1687. E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?
  1688. C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
  1689. =========================
  1690. E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
  1691. A. Sequential sampling
  1692. =========================
  1693. E8A15: What would the waveform of a digital data stream signal look like on a conventional oscilloscope?
  1694. B. A series of pulses with varying patterns
  1695. =========================
  1696. E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
  1697. D. Modulation index
  1698. =========================
  1699. E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
  1700. D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
  1701. =========================
  1702. E8B03: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
  1703. A. 3
  1704. =========================
  1705. E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?
  1706. B. 3
  1707. =========================
  1708. E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?
  1709. D. 1.67
  1710. =========================
  1711. E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation frequency of 3.5 kHz?
  1712. A. 2.14
  1713. =========================
  1714. E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
  1715. A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
  1716. =========================
  1717. E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
  1718. D. The time at which each pulse occurs
  1719. =========================
  1720. E8B09: How are the pulses of a pulse-modulated signal usually transmitted?
  1721. A. A pulse of relatively short duration is sent; a relatively long period of time separates each pulse
  1722. =========================
  1723. E8B10: What is meant by deviation ratio?
  1724. B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
  1725. =========================
  1726. E8B11: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?
  1727. C. Frequency division multiplexing
  1728. =========================
  1729. E8B12: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
  1730. B. Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
  1731. =========================
  1732. E8B13: What is time division multiplexing?
  1733. B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a digital data transmission
  1734. =========================
  1735. E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
  1736. D. Morse code
  1737. =========================
  1738. E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
  1739. B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
  1740. =========================
  1741. E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
  1742. C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
  1743. =========================
  1744. E8C05: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK-31 signal?
  1745. C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
  1746. =========================
  1747. E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?
  1748. C. Approximately 52 Hz
  1749. =========================
  1750. E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
  1751. C. 0.5 kHz
  1752. =========================
  1753. E8C08: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
  1754. A. 15.36 kHz
  1755. =========================
  1756. E8C09: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
  1757. D. Spread-spectrum communication
  1758. =========================
  1759. E8C10: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
  1760. A. Spread-spectrum
  1761. =========================
  1762. E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
  1763. A. Frequency hopping
  1764. =========================
  1765. E8C12: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
  1766. B. Direct sequence
  1767. =========================
  1768. E8C13: What makes spread-spectrum communications resistant to interference?
  1769. D. Only signals using the correct spreading sequence are received
  1770. =========================
  1771. E8C14: What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?
  1772. D. Some types of errors can be detected
  1773. =========================
  1774. E8C15: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?
  1775. B. Virtually perfect decoding of signals well below the noise
  1776. =========================
  1777. E8D01: What is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
  1778. A. Peak-to-peak voltage
  1779. =========================
  1780. E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?
  1781. B. 2:1
  1782. =========================
  1783. E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
  1784. A. Peak voltage
  1785. =========================
  1786. E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30 volts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope?
  1787. B. 9 watts
  1788. =========================
  1789. E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
  1790. D. 184 volts
  1791. =========================
  1792. E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?
  1793. B. It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
  1794. =========================
  1795. E8D07: What is an electromagnetic wave?
  1796. C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
  1797. =========================
  1798. E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
  1799. D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
  1800. =========================
  1801. E8D09: What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
  1802. B. Waves with a rotating electric field
  1803. =========================
  1804. E8D10: What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
  1805. D. Vertical
  1806. =========================
  1807. E8D11: What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?
  1808. A. Horizontal
  1809. =========================
  1810. E8D12: At approximately what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?
  1811. A. 300 million meters per second
  1812. =========================
  1813. E8D13: What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power?
  1814. D. A peak-reading wattmeter
  1815. =========================
  1816. E8D14: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
  1817. A. 12.2 watts
  1818. =========================
  1819. E8D15: If an RMS reading voltmeter reads 34 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak voltage?
  1820. D. 48 volts
  1821. =========================
  1822. E8D16: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
  1823. B. 170 volts
  1824. =========================
  1825. E8D17: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
  1826. C. 340 volts
  1827. =========================
  1828. E8D18: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
  1829. A. 120-V AC
  1830. =========================
  1831. E8D19: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
  1832. A. 120-V AC
  1833. =========================
  1834. E9A01: Which of the following describes an isotropic Antenna?
  1835. C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
  1836. =========================
  1837. E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have compared to an isotropic antenna?
  1838. B. 2.15 dB
  1839. =========================
  1840. E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
  1841. D. Isotropic antenna
  1842. =========================
  1843. E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
  1844. A. To match impedances for maximum power transfer from a feed line
  1845. =========================
  1846. E9A05: Which of the following factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?
  1847. B. Antenna height and conductor length/diameter ratio, and location of nearby conductive objects
  1848. =========================
  1849. E9A06: What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system?
  1850. C. Antenna efficiency
  1851. =========================
  1852. E9A07: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
  1853. D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
  1854. =========================
  1855. E9A08: What is a folded dipole antenna?
  1856. C. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
  1857. =========================
  1858. E9A09: What is meant by antenna gain?
  1859. A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
  1860. =========================
  1861. E9A10: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
  1862. B. The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
  1863. =========================
  1864. E9A11: How is antenna efficiency calculated?
  1865. B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
  1866. =========================
  1867. E9A12: How can the efficiency of an HF quarter-wave grounded vertical antenna be improved?
  1868. A. By installing a good radial system
  1869. =========================
  1870. E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
  1871. A. 3.85 dB
  1872. =========================
  1873. E9A15: How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
  1874. B. 9.85 dB
  1875. =========================
  1876. E9A16: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
  1877. C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
  1878. =========================
  1879. E9B01: What determines the free-space polarization of an antenna?
  1880. C. The orientation of its electric field (E Field)
  1881. =========================
  1882. E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?
  1883. B. 50 degrees
  1884. =========================
  1885. E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
  1886. B. 18 dB
  1887. =========================
  1888. E9B04: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
  1889. B. 14 dB
  1890. =========================
  1891. E9B05: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?
  1892. D. The gain may exhibit significant variations
  1893. =========================
  1894. E9B06: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
  1895. B. The front-to-back ratio decreases
  1896. =========================
  1897. E9B07: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?
  1898. A. The gain increases
  1899. =========================
  1900. E9B08: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional (gain) antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?
  1901. C. There is no difference between the two antennas
  1902. =========================
  1903. E9B09: How can the approximate beamwidth of a directional antenna be determined?
  1904. A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
  1905. =========================
  1906. E9B10: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?
  1907. B. Method of Moments
  1908. =========================
  1909. E9B11: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
  1910. A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of current
  1911. =========================
  1912. E9B12: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
  1913. C. The computed feed-point impedance may be incorrect
  1914. =========================
  1915. E9B13: Which of the following is a disadvantage of NEC-based antenna modeling programs?
  1916. C. Computing time increases as the number of wire segments is increased
  1917. =========================
  1918. E9B14: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
  1919. B. Numerical Electromagnetics Code
  1920. =========================
  1921. E9B15: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
  1922. D. All of these answers are correct
  1923. =========================
  1924. E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
  1925. D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
  1926. =========================
  1927. E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
  1928. A. A cardioid
  1929. =========================
  1930. E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
  1931. C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
  1932. =========================
  1933. E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic rhombic antenna?
  1934. B. Bidirectional; four-sided, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
  1935. =========================
  1936. E9C05: What are the main advantages of a terminated rhombic antenna?
  1937. A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
  1938. =========================
  1939. E9C06: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
  1940. C. The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
  1941. =========================
  1942. E9C07: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
  1943. B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
  1944. =========================
  1945. E9C08: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
  1946. A. Elevation
  1947. =========================
  1948. E9C09: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
  1949. C. 7.5 degrees
  1950. =========================
  1951. E9C10: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
  1952. B. 28 dB
  1953. =========================
  1954. E9C11: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
  1955. A. 4
  1956. =========================
  1957. E9C12: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
  1958. D. The low-angle radiation increases
  1959. =========================
  1960. E9C13: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
  1961. D. It should be one or more wavelengths long
  1962. =========================
  1963. E9C14: How would the electric field be oriented for a Yagi with three elements mounted parallel to the ground?
  1964. B. Horizontally
  1965. =========================
  1966. E9C15: What strongly affects the shape of the far-field, low-angle elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna?
  1967. A. The conductivity and dielectric constant of the soil in the area of the antenna
  1968. =========================
  1969. E9C17: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
  1970. C. It reduces low-angle radiation
  1971. =========================
  1972. E9D01: How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
  1973. C. Gain increases 6 dB
  1974. =========================
  1975. E9D02: What is one way to produce circular polarization when using linearly polarized antennas?
  1976. C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
  1977. =========================
  1978. E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
  1979. D. It decreases
  1980. =========================
  1981. E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
  1982. A. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
  1983. =========================
  1984. E9D05: For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?
  1985. A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
  1986. =========================
  1987. E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
  1988. C. To minimize losses
  1989. =========================
  1990. E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
  1991. A. It might radiate harmonics
  1992. =========================
  1993. E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
  1994. B. It is decreased
  1995. =========================
  1996. E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
  1997. D. Improved radiation efficiency
  1998. =========================
  1999. E9D10: What is the approximate feed-point impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna?
  2000. A. 300 ohms
  2001. =========================
  2002. E9D11: Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna?
  2003. D. To cancel capacitive reactance
  2004. =========================
  2005. E9D12: What is an advantage of using a trapped antenna?
  2006. D. It may be used for multi-band operation
  2007. =========================
  2008. E9D13: What happens at the base feed-point of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
  2009. B. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
  2010. =========================
  2011. E9D15: Which of these choices would provide the best RF ground for your station?
  2012. C. A connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
  2013. =========================
  2014. E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
  2015. B. The delta matching system
  2016. =========================
  2017. E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
  2018. A. The gamma match
  2019. =========================
  2020. E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a short perpendicular section of transmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna?
  2021. D. The stub match
  2022. =========================
  2023. E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?
  2024. B. To compensate for the inductive reactance of the matching network
  2025. =========================
  2026. E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
  2027. A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive
  2028. =========================
  2029. E9E06: What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a 3-element Yagi?
  2030. C. L network
  2031. =========================
  2032. E9E07: What parameter best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
  2033. B. Reflection coefficient
  2034. =========================
  2035. E9E08: Which of the following measurements describes a mismatched transmission line?
  2036. D. An SWR greater than 1:1
  2037. =========================
  2038. E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed-line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
  2039. C. Gamma match
  2040. =========================
  2041. E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm terminal impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed-line?
  2042. C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
  2043. =========================
  2044. E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed-line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed-line are unknown?
  2045. B. Use the "universal stub" matching technique
  2046. =========================
  2047. E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a "phasing line" when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
  2048. A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
  2049. =========================
  2050. E9E13: What is the purpose of a "Wilkinson divider"?
  2051. C. It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
  2052. =========================
  2053. E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
  2054. D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
  2055. =========================
  2056. E9F02: What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?
  2057. C. Dielectric materials used in the line
  2058. =========================
  2059. E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?
  2060. D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
  2061. =========================
  2062. E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
  2063. B. 0.66
  2064. =========================
  2065. E9F05: What is the physical length of a coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)
  2066. C. 3.5 meters
  2067. =========================
  2068. E9F06: What is the physical length of a parallel conductor feed line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.95.)
  2069. C. 10 meters
  2070. =========================
  2071. E9F07: What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)?
  2072. A. Lower loss
  2073. =========================
  2074. E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
  2075. A. Velocity factor
  2076. =========================
  2077. E9F09: What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.66)
  2078. B. 6.9 meters
  2079. =========================
  2080. E9F10: What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
  2081. C. An inductive reactance
  2082. =========================
  2083. E9F11: What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
  2084. C. A capacitive reactance
  2085. =========================
  2086. E9F12: What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
  2087. B. A very low impedance
  2088. =========================
  2089. E9F13: What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
  2090. A. A very high impedance
  2091. =========================
  2092. E9F14: What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
  2093. B. A very low impedance
  2094. =========================
  2095. E9F15: What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
  2096. A. A very high impedance
  2097. =========================
  2098. E9F16: What is the primary difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable as opposed to solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
  2099. D. All of these answers are correct
  2100. =========================
  2101. E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
  2102. A. Impedance along transmission lines
  2103. =========================
  2104. E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
  2105. B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
  2106. =========================
  2107. E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
  2108. C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
  2109. =========================
  2110. E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
  2111. C. Resistance and reactance
  2112. =========================
  2113. E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
  2114. A. Smith chart
  2115. =========================
  2116. E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
  2117. B. Reactance axis
  2118. =========================
  2119. E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
  2120. D. The resistance axis
  2121. =========================
  2122. E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
  2123. C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
  2124. =========================
  2125. E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
  2126. A. Standing-wave ratio circles
  2127. =========================
  2128. E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
  2129. D. Points with constant reactance
  2130. =========================
  2131. E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
  2132. B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
  2133. =========================
  2134. E9H01: What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
  2135. D. 286 watts
  2136. =========================
  2137. E9H02: What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
  2138. A. 317 watts
  2139. =========================
  2140. E9H03: What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
  2141. B. 252 watts
  2142. =========================
  2143. E9H04: What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between), when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
  2144. C. Effective radiated power
  2145. =========================
  2146. E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
  2147. A. It has a bidirectional pattern
  2148. =========================
  2149. E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
  2150. C. Antenna headings from several different receiving stations are used to locate the signal source
  2151. =========================
  2152. E9H07: Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding?
  2153. D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals
  2154. =========================
  2155. E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?
  2156. A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
  2157. =========================
  2158. E9H09: What is a receiving loop antenna?
  2159. C. One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
  2160. =========================
  2161. E9H10: How can the output voltage of a receiving loop antenna be increased?
  2162. D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure
  2163. =========================
  2164. E9H11: Why is an antenna with a cardioid pattern desirable for a direction-finding system?
  2165. B. The response characteristics of the cardioid pattern can assist in determining the direction of the desired station
  2166. =========================
  2167. E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
  2168. B. It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
  2169. =========================
  2170. E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?
  2171. C. RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to break apart atoms and molecules; radiation from radioactive sources does
  2172. =========================
  2173. E0A02: When evaluating exposure levels from your station at a neighbor�s home, what must you do?
  2174. B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
  2175. =========================
  2176. E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
  2177. D. Use a computer-based antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
  2178. =========================
  2179. E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
  2180. C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its maximum permissible exposure limit at accessible locations
  2181. =========================
  2182. E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
  2183. B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
  2184. =========================
  2185. E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
  2186. D. All of these answers are correct
  2187. =========================
  2188. E0A07: What is the "far-field" zone of an antenna?
  2189. D. The area where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
  2190. =========================
  2191. E0A08: What does SAR measure?
  2192. C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
  2193. =========================
  2194. E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
  2195. C. Beryllium Oxide
  2196. =========================
  2197. E0A10: What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?
  2198. A. Polychlorinated biphenyls
  2199. =========================
  2200. E0A11: Which of these items might be a significant hazard when operating a klystron or cavity magnetron transmitter?
  2201. C. Injury from radiation leaks that exceed the MPE limits
  2202. =========================
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