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  1. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  2. The most widely used IP addressing scheme is __ _____.
  3.  
  4. Selected Answer: IPv4
  5. Correct Answer: IPv4
  6.  
  7. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  8. The most recent and largest address space IP addressing scheme is ______.
  9.  
  10. Selected Answer: IPv6
  11. Correct Answer: IPv6
  12.  
  13. Question 3 0 out of 5 points
  14. To distribute IP addresses automatically, a network administrator would configure the ______ service.
  15.  
  16. Selected Answer: DHCP
  17. Correct Answer: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
  18.  
  19. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  20. The first attempt at breaking up IP address space used _ _ to provide address ranges of differing sizes.
  21.  
  22. Selected Answer: classful addressing
  23. Correct Answer: classful addressing
  24.  
  25. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  26. Prior to the introduction of the Domain Name System, computers used __ __ to map human-readable named to IP addresses.
  27.  
  28. Selected Answer: HOSTS files
  29. Correct Answer: HOSTS files
  30.  
  31. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  32. A(n) _¬___ is used to separate the host address portion of an IP address from the network address.
  33.  
  34. Selected Answer: Subnet Mask
  35. Correct Answer: subnet mask
  36.  
  37. Question 7 0 out of 5 points
  38. The subnet mask within the TCP/IP configuration is used to distinguish the ____ from the host address.
  39.  
  40. Selected Answer: network
  41. Correct Answer: network address
  42.  
  43. Question 8 0 out of 5 points
  44. In dotted-decimal notation, each IPv4 address is broken up into four ____.
  45.  
  46. Selected Answer: bytes
  47. Correct Answer: octets
  48.  
  49. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  50. Server computers and other systems that need to be accessed reliably by network clients should be configured with a(n) ____.
  51.  
  52. Selected Answer: static IP address
  53. Correct Answer: static IP address
  54.  
  55. Question 10 0 out of 5 points
  56. The method of breaking up IP address space into address ranges of flexible size is called ___.
  57.  
  58. Selected Answer: subnetting
  59. Correct Answer: Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
  60.  
  61. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  62. What must each host on a TCP/IP network be configured with in order to communicate with other hosts?
  63.  
  64. Selected Answer: IP address
  65. Correct Answer: IP address
  66.  
  67. Question 12 5 out of 5 points
  68. What is the process of transmitting TCP/IP traffic from one IP subnet to another?
  69.  
  70. Selected Answer: Routing
  71. Correct Answer: Routing
  72.  
  73. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  74. An IP network that is formatted such as 192.168.1.0/24 is referred to as what type of notation?
  75.  
  76. Selected Answer: CIDR notation
  77. Correct Answer: CIDR notation
  78.  
  79. Question 14 5 out of 5 points
  80. What is the default network protocol of the Internet and most modern corporate networks?
  81.  
  82. Selected Answer: TCP/IP
  83. Correct Answer: TCP/IP
  84.  
  85. Question 15 5 out of 5 points
  86. What was used by TCP/IP networks to perform name resolution prior to the introduction of the Domain Name System (DNS)?
  87.  
  88. Selected Answer: HOSTS files
  89. Correct Answer: HOSTS files
  90.  
  91. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  92. What is the process of dividing a large TCP/IP address space into multiple smaller networks called?
  93.  
  94. Selected Answer: Subnetting
  95. Correct Answer: Subnetting
  96.  
  97. Question 17 5 out of 5 points
  98. What technology is used by private network ranges that has extended the useful life of IPv4 addressing and slowed the adoption rate of IPv6?
  99.  
  100. Selected Answer: NAT
  101. Correct Answer: NAT
  102.  
  103. Question 18 5 out of 5 points
  104. Which TCP/IP configuration item allows client computers to communicate with other computers that are located on remote networks?
  105.  
  106. Selected Answer: Default gateway
  107. Correct Answer: Default gateway
  108.  
  109. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  110. On a TCP/IP network that uses the Domain Name System (DNS) for name resolution, what unique configuration item must each TCP/IP host possess?
  111.  
  112. Selected Answer: Fully qualified domain name
  113. Correct Answer: Fully qualified domain name
  114.  
  115. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  116. In what format are IPv4 IP addresses most commonly written?
  117.  
  118. Selected Answer: Dotted-decimal
  119. Correct Answer: Dotted-decimal
  120.  
  121. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  122. The ability to use the installation process to fix problems with an existing Windows Server system is called ___ _______.
  123.  
  124. Selected Answer: repair mode
  125. Correct Answer: repair mode
  126.  
  127. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  128. Installation of just the necessary components for a particular server role, without the GUI and other software features, is called ____ ______.
  129.  
  130. Selected Answer: server core
  131. Correct Answer: server core
  132.  
  133. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  134. The ____ ______ screen appears by default when the Windows Server 2008 operating system is first installed.
  135.  
  136. Selected Answer: initial configuration tasks
  137. Correct Answer: Initial Configuration Tasks
  138.  
  139. Question 4 0 out of 5 points
  140. A(n) ___ _____ offers the best performance of any multi-disk configuration option within the Disk Management MMC, but does so at the expense of fault tolerance.
  141.  
  142. Selected Answer: spanned volume
  143. Correct Answer: striped volume
  144.  
  145. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  146. The feature that allows users on different computers to access the Internet through a single connection is called___ _______.
  147.  
  148. Selected Answer: internet connection sharing (ICS)
  149. Correct Answer: Internet Connection Sharing
  150.  
  151. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  152. The ___ _______ provides a single point of administration to configure networking and firewall configuration tasks on a Windows Server 2008 computer.
  153.  
  154. Selected Answer: Network and Sharing Center
  155. Correct Answer: Network and Sharing Center
  156.  
  157. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  158. The setting describing the network environment, such as home or public network, is called the ____ ______.
  159.  
  160. Selected Answer: Network location
  161. Correct Answer: network location
  162.  
  163. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  164. Unsolicited inbound traffic can be blocked through the use of the ____ ___.
  165.  
  166. Selected Answer: firewall
  167. Correct Answer: Windows firewall
  168.  
  169. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  170. The network location setting controls the behavior of ___ _______.
  171.  
  172. Selected Answer: network discovery
  173. Correct Answer: network discovery
  174.  
  175. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  176. Once a disk is converted from a basic disk to a(n) __ _____, it can only be accessed only by operating systems that support dynamic disks: Windows 2000 Professional, Windows XP Professional, Windows Vista Business, Enterprise or Ultimate, Windows 2000 Server, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008.
  177.  
  178. Selected Answer: dynamic disk
  179. Correct Answer: dynamic disk
  180.  
  181. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  182. What type of license key allows you to host an activation service locally within your own network?
  183.  
  184. Selected Answer: Key Management System (KMS)
  185. Correct Answer: Key Management System (KMS)
  186.  
  187. Question 12 0 out of 5 points
  188. What type of volume uses 50% of available drive space to provide fault tolerance for the volume?
  189.  
  190. Selected Answer: RAID-5
  191. Correct Answer: RAID-1
  192.  
  193. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  194. Which disk formatting option will cause a disk to appear as a folder within an existing volume?
  195.  
  196. Selected Answer: Mount point
  197. Correct Answer: Mount point
  198.  
  199. Question 14 5 out of 5 points
  200. Which Windows Server 2008 feature installs and configured wireless connections and wireless LAN profiles?
  201.  
  202. Selected Answer: Wireless Networking
  203. Correct Answer: Wireless Networking
  204.  
  205. Question 15 0 out of 5 points
  206. What was the primary means of name resolution on Windows networks prior to the introduction of Windows 2000 and Active Directory?
  207.  
  208. Selected Answer: HOSTS files
  209. Correct Answer: NetBIOS
  210.  
  211. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  212. Which feature is used to perform backups and restores of Windows volumes?
  213.  
  214. Selected Answer: Windows Server Backup
  215. Correct Answer: Windows Server Backup
  216.  
  217. Question 17 5 out of 5 points
  218. Which networking service is used to automatically associate NetBIOS names with IP addresses?
  219.  
  220. Selected Answer: WINS
  221. Correct Answer: WINS
  222.  
  223. Question 18 5 out of 5 points
  224. Which disk partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or disks that are used in Itanium computers?
  225.  
  226. Selected Answer: GUID Partition Table (GPT)
  227. Correct Answer: GUID Partition Table (GPT)
  228.  
  229. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  230. What is used to manage the licensing process for volume licenses of Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008?
  231.  
  232. Selected Answer: Volume Activation
  233. Correct Answer: Volume Activation
  234.  
  235. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  236. Which volume contains the operating system files on a Windows computer?
  237.  
  238. Selected Answer: Boot volume
  239. Correct Answer: Boot volume
  240.  
  241.  
  242. Question 1 50 out of 50 points
  243. Match the term in Column 1 to its description in Column 2.
  244.  
  245. Question Correct Match Selected Match
  246. This DHCP message type is sent by a DHCP client when it no longer requires the use of an IP address that it has leased from a DHCP server. E. DHCPRELEASE E. DHCPRELEASE
  247. You can configure one of these to ensure that a DHCP client always receives the same IP address from a particular DHCP server. H. reservation H. reservation
  248. This is used to ensure that a particular address or block of addresses within a scope is not assigned to DHCP clients by a DHCP server. F. exclusion range F. exclusion range
  249. You must do this to any DHCP server that needs to function within an Active Directory domain. A. authorize A. authorize
  250. A DHCP client will send this message type if it determines that an IP address offered by a DHCP server is already in use. D. DHCPDECLINE D. DHCPDECLINE
  251. This is performed by a DHCP server when corruption is detected within the DHCP database. B. automatic restore B. automatic restore
  252. The DHCP database is based on this database technology G. Joint Engine Technology (JET) G. Joint Engine Technology (JET)
  253. Authorizing DHCP servers in Active Directory is designed to prevent against these. I. rogue DHCP server
  254. I. rogue DHCP server
  255.  
  256. These provide DHCP parameters to DHCP clients based on vendor or user type. C. class options C. class options
  257. This defaults to 87.5% of the total DHCP lease. J. T2 J. T2
  258.  
  259.  
  260. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  261. Which of the following DHCP message types is sent first in the process of obtaining an address lease?
  262.  
  263. Selected Answer: DHCPDISCOVER
  264. Correct Answer: DHCPDISCOVER
  265.  
  266. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  267. At which layer of the OSI model does DHCP operate?
  268.  
  269. Selected Answer: Application layer
  270. Correct Answer: Application layer
  271.  
  272. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  273. What protocol is used by the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?
  274.  
  275. Selected Answer: User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  276. Correct Answer: User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  277.  
  278. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  279. A DHCP client first attempts to reacquire its lease at half the lease time, which is known as:
  280.  
  281. Selected Answer: T1
  282. Correct Answer: T1
  283.  
  284. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  285. The _______ is composed of the remaining addresses within a DHCP scope once all exclusion ranges have been applied.
  286.  
  287. Selected Answer: available address pool
  288. Correct Answer: available address pool
  289.  
  290. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  291. The following is a lightweight version of FTP that uses the UDP protocol, which is used by the BOOTP protocol to transmit network configuration information
  292.  
  293. Selected Answer: TFTP
  294. Correct Answer: TFTP
  295.  
  296. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  297. The following process will populate DHCP client lease information from the registry to the DHCP database:
  298.  
  299. Selected Answer: Reconciliation
  300. Correct Answer: Reconciliation
  301.  
  302. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  303. The following is an administrative grouping of scopes that is used to support multiple logical subnets on a single network segment:
  304.  
  305. Selected Answer: superscope
  306. Correct Answer: superscope
  307.  
  308. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  309. This indicates the location of the last information that was successfully written from transaction logs to a database file, such as a DHCP database.
  310.  
  311. Selected Answer: Checkpoint file
  312. Correct Answer: Checkpoint file
  313.  
  314. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  315. The following is a hexadecimal address that is uniquely associated with a specific Network Interface Card (NIC):
  316.  
  317. Selected Answer: MAC
  318. Correct Answer: MAC
  319.  
  320. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  321. A(n) _ _ will transfer all records within a zone from a primary server to a secondary server.
  322.  
  323. Selected Answer: full zon transfer (AXFR)
  324. Correct Answer: full zone transfer (AXFR)
  325.  
  326. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  327. A(n) _ _ creates an alias for an existing A record.
  328.  
  329. Selected Answer: CNAME record
  330. Correct Answer: CNAME Record
  331.  
  332. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  333. A(n) _ _ is used by e-mail systems such as Microsoft Exchange to locate mail servers in different networks.
  334.  
  335. Selected Answer: Mail Exchanger (MX) record
  336. Correct Answer: Mail Exchanger (MX) record
  337.  
  338. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  339. The _ _ allows IPv6 hosts to map host names to IP addresses.
  340.  
  341. Selected Answer: ip6.arpa domain
  342. Correct Answer: ip6.arpa domain
  343.  
  344. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  345. contoso.com is an example of a(n) _ _ within the .com top-level domain.
  346.  
  347. Selected Answer: second-level domain
  348. Correct Answer: second-level domain
  349.  
  350. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  351. The _ _ application scope will replicate DNS data to all DNS servers within a domain.
  352.  
  353. Selected Answer: DomainDNSZones
  354. Correct Answer: DomainDNSZones
  355.  
  356. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  357. A(n) _ _ stores DNS data in a text file on the server hard drive, rather than as part of Active Directory.
  358.  
  359. Selected Answer: file-backed zone
  360. Correct Answer: file-backed zone
  361.  
  362. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  363. Each DNS record has a(n) _ _ that indicates the maximum time that a record will be cached by a DNS server before it is discarded.
  364.  
  365. Selected Answer: (TTL) Time To Live
  366. Correct Answer: Time to Live (TTL)
  367.  
  368. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  369. A DNS server is considered _ _ for each zone that it hosts.
  370.  
  371. Selected Answer: authoritative
  372. Correct Answer: authoritative
  373.  
  374. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  375. A DNS domain name like .uk or .it is an example of a(n) _ _ domain.
  376.  
  377. Selected Answer: country code
  378. Correct Answer: country code
  379.  
  380. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  381. This DNS configuration item will forward DNS queries to different servers based on the domain name of the query.
  382.  
  383. Selected Answer: Conditional forwarder
  384. Correct Answer: Conditional forwarder
  385.  
  386. Question 12 5 out of 5 points
  387. This type of zone takes human-readable FQDNs and translates them into IP addresses.
  388.  
  389. Selected Answer: Forward lookup zone
  390. Correct Answer: Forward lookup zone
  391.  
  392. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  393. This zone is used in combination with IP addresses to resolve queries for IPv4 IP addresses:
  394.  
  395. Selected Answer: in.addr-arpa
  396. Correct Answer: in.addr-arpa
  397.  
  398. Question 14 5 out of 5 points
  399. The IPv6 DNS host record is referred to as a(n):
  400.  
  401. Selected Answer: AAAA record
  402. Correct Answer: AAAA record
  403.  
  404. Question 15 5 out of 5 points
  405. A DNS server that hosts a primary or secondary zone containing a particular record can issue the following response to a query for that record:
  406.  
  407. Selected Answer: Authoritative answer
  408. Correct Answer: Authoritative answer
  409.  
  410. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  411. You can secure an Active Directory-integrated DNS server, zone, or record by applying the following to it:
  412.  
  413. Selected Answer: Discretionary Access Control List
  414. Correct Answer: Discretionary Access Control List
  415.  
  416. Question 17 5 out of 5 points
  417. This zone type contains only SOA, name server, and glue records for the relevant zone.
  418.  
  419. Selected Answer: Stub zone
  420. Correct Answer: Stub zone
  421.  
  422. Question 18 5 out of 5 points
  423. Data from a primary zone is transmitted to secondary zones using the following:
  424.  
  425. Selected Answer: Zone transfer
  426. Correct Answer: Zone transfer
  427.  
  428. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  429. These contain the names and IP addresses of the DNS servers authoritative for the root zone.
  430.  
  431. Selected Answer: Root Hints
  432. Correct Answer: Root Hints
  433.  
  434. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  435. The following feature is available only on Active Directory-integrated DNS zones:
  436.  
  437. Selected Answer: Secure dynamic updates
  438. Correct Answer: Secure dynamic updates
  439.  
  440.  
  441.  
  442.  
  443. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  444. The IP address 255.255.255.255 represents ___________ in the IP Routing table.
  445.  
  446. Selected Answer: Limited broadcast address
  447. Correct Answer: Limited broadcast address
  448.  
  449. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  450. To allow users to specify a call-back number when they connect to a remote access server via modem, you will enable the following setting:
  451.  
  452. Selected Answer: Set by Caller
  453. Correct Answer: Set by Caller
  454.  
  455. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  456. Routing Information Protocol v2 (RIPv2) is an example of a:
  457.  
  458. Selected Answer: Routing protocol
  459. Correct Answer: Routing protocol
  460.  
  461. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  462. Windows Server 2008 can provide remote access services through a Virtual Private Network (VPN) or through:
  463.  
  464. Selected Answer: Dial-Up Networking (DUN)
  465. Correct Answer: Dial-Up Networking (DUN)
  466.  
  467. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  468. When a workstation ends a session with an 802.1X-secured network port, it sends the following to inform the network access server to set the port back to an Unauthorized status:
  469.  
  470. Selected Answer: EAP-Logoff
  471. Correct Answer: EAP-Logoff
  472.  
  473. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  474. If an IP Routing Table contains two routes to the same destination network, the route with the lowest __________ will be selected first.
  475.  
  476. Selected Answer: Metric
  477. Correct Answer: Metric
  478.  
  479. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  480. Network information at the Network Layer of the OSI model is organized into:
  481.  
  482. Selected Answer: Packets
  483. Correct Answer: Packets
  484.  
  485. Question 9 0 out of 5 points
  486. In an 802.1X infrastructure, an NPS or RADIUS server performs the role of the:
  487.  
  488. Selected Answer: Authenticator
  489. Correct Answer: Authorization Server (AS)
  490.  
  491. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  492. The following RRAS service allows multiple computers on an internal network to share a single public IP address to access the Internet:
  493.  
  494. Selected Answer: Network Address Translation (NAT)
  495. Correct Answer: Network Address Translation (NAT)
  496.  
  497. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  498. The following route is used by a computer s default gateway to send traffic to remote networks:
  499.  
  500. Selected Answer: Default route
  501. Correct Answer: Default route
  502.  
  503. Question 1 40 out of 50 points Match the following definitions with the appropriate term.
  504.  
  505. Question Correct Match Selected Match
  506. This type of router is well-suited for a small organization with low levels of network traffic utilization. I. software-based router
  507. I. software-based router
  508.  
  509. Network data at the Data Link Layer is organized into these.
  510. B. frames
  511. B. frames
  512.  
  513. This is used as the Windows Server 2008 implementation of a RADIUS server.
  514. F. Network Policy Server (NPS)
  515. F. Network Policy Server (NPS)
  516.  
  517. This routing protocol was supported in Windows Server 2003 but is no longer available with the Routing and Remote Access server role in Windows Server 2008.
  518.  
  519. G. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
  520. G. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
  521.  
  522. This address corresponds to the 127.0.0.1 address used for TCP/IP diagnostics and troubleshooting.
  523. D. loopback address
  524. D. loopback address
  525.  
  526.  
  527.  
  528. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  529. The DFS Replication engine uses a form of replication called _ _.
  530.  
  531. Selected Answer: multiple master replication
  532. Correct Answer: multiple master replication
  533.  
  534. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  535. In the Distributed File System, the actual shared folders referred to by the virtual folders in the namespace are known as _ _.
  536.  
  537. Selected Answer: targets
  538. Correct Answer: targets
  539.  
  540. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  541. DFS Replication relies on a protocol called _ _ for file replication.
  542.  
  543. Selected Answer: remote differential compression (RDC)
  544. Correct Answer: Remote Differential Compression (RDC)
  545.  
  546. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  547. A DFS replication topology in which every server replicates with every other server is called a(n) _ Topology.
  548.  
  549. Selected Answer: full mesh
  550. Correct Answer: full mesh
  551.  
  552. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  553. The basic file-sharing capabilities of a Windows server are provided by the _ _ service.
  554.  
  555. Selected Answer: server
  556. Correct Answer: Server
  557.  
  558. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  559. To keep a DFS folder s multiple targets synchronized, you must create a(n) _ _.
  560.  
  561. Selected Answer: replication group
  562. Correct Answer: replication group
  563.  
  564. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  565. The __ __ allows you to simplify the view of file shares located across multiple servers as they appear to your user base.
  566.  
  567. Selected Answer: distributed file service (DFS)
  568. Correct Answer: Distributed File Service (DFS)
  569.  
  570. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  571. A(n) __ __ appears to the operating system as though it is a physically separate disk and can host an operating system
  572.  
  573. Selected Answer: primary partition
  574. Correct Answer: primary partition
  575.  
  576. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  577. A(n) __ __ enables you to limit DFS replication traffic to specific pairs of members.
  578.  
  579. Selected Answer: hub/spoke topology
  580. Correct Answer: hub/spoke topology
  581.  
  582. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  583. A DFS __ __ enables you to create a single directory tree that contains references to shared folders located on multiple separate file servers.
  584.  
  585. Selected Answer: namespace
  586. Correct Answer: namespace
  587.  
  588. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  589. An alternative to the multimaster replication model used in DFS is:
  590.  
  591. Selected Answer: Single master replication
  592. Correct Answer: Single master replication
  593.  
  594. Question 12 5 out of 5 points
  595. A server in a replication group is referred to as a:
  596.  
  597. Selected Answer: Member
  598. Correct Answer: Member
  599.  
  600. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  601. This refers to the ability of DFS clients to revert back to folder targets that have been unavailable due to server or network outages.
  602.  
  603. Selected Answer: Client failback
  604. Correct Answer: Client failback
  605.  
  606. Question 14 5 out of 5 points
  607. A disk partition that can hold data but not an operating system is called a(n):
  608.  
  609. Selected Answer: Extended partition
  610. Correct Answer: Extended partition
  611.  
  612. Question 15 5 out of 5 points
  613. This DFS component is responsible for maintaining a list of DFS shared folders and responding to user requests for those folders.
  614.  
  615. Selected Answer: Namespace server
  616. Correct Answer: Namespace server
  617.  
  618. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  619. A DFS __________ contains a virtual representation of the shared folders on all DFS target servers.
  620.  
  621. Selected Answer: Namespace
  622. Correct Answer: Namespace
  623.  
  624. Question 17 5 out of 5 points
  625. The Distributed File System uses the following replication model to keep servers in a replication group up to date:
  626.  
  627. Selected Answer: Multiple Master Replication
  628. Correct Answer: Multiple Master Replication
  629.  
  630. Question 18 5 out of 5 points
  631. In this topology, every member of a DFS replication group replicates with every other member, for full replication connectivity.
  632.  
  633. Selected Answer: Full mesh replication
  634. Correct Answer: Full mesh replication
  635.  
  636. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  637. The following service is required on a Windows Server 2008 server in order to enable file sharing:
  638.  
  639. Selected Answer: Server Service
  640. Correct Answer: Server Service
  641.  
  642. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  643. To enable replication for a DFS folder with multiple folder targets, you must create the following:
  644.  
  645. Selected Answer: Replication group
  646. Correct Answer: Replication group
  647.  
  648. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  649. A(n) __ is the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device.
  650.  
  651. Selected Answer: printer
  652. Correct Answer: printer
  653.  
  654. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  655. When you connect a single print server to multiple print devices, you create what is called a(n) __.
  656.  
  657. Selected Answer: printer pool
  658. Correct Answer: printer pool
  659.  
  660. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  661. By default, all printers assign the Allow Print permission to the __ special identity, which enables all users to access the printer and manage their own documents.
  662.  
  663. Selected Answer: everyone
  664. Correct Answer: Everyone
  665.  
  666. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  667. Users with the __ permission can go beyond just manipulating queued documents; they can reconfigure the printer itself.
  668.  
  669. Selected Answer: manage
  670. Correct Answer: Manage Printers
  671.  
  672. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  673. The ____ is the default print format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 operating systems.
  674.  
  675. Selected Answer: EMF interim
  676. Correct Answer: Enhanced Metafile Format (EMF)
  677.  
  678. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  679. A(n) ____ is a device driver that converts the print jobs generated by applications into an appropriate string of commands for a specific print device.
  680.  
  681. Selected Answer: printer driver
  682. Correct Answer: printer driver
  683.  
  684. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  685. The ____ allows clients to print documents using HTTP traffic over an intranet or the World Wide Web.
  686.  
  687. Selected Answer: Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)
  688. Correct Answer: Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)
  689.  
  690. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  691. Users with the ____ permission to a printer have the ability to pause, resume, restart, and cancel their own documents, but not documents created by any other user.
  692.  
  693. Selected Answer: print
  694. Correct Answer: Print
  695.  
  696. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  697. A(n) ____ print architecture consists of one print device connected to one computer.
  698.  
  699. Selected Answer: locally-attached print device
  700. Correct Answer: locally attached print device
  701.  
  702. Question 10 0 out of 5 points
  703. ____ such as Printer Not Ready are a useful way for administrators to determine what printers need attention throughout a Windows Server 2008 network.
  704.  
  705. Selected Answer: Default Filters
  706. Correct Answer: Custom filters
  707.  
  708. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  709. Which printer permission allows users to pause, resume, restart and cancel all users' documents, and to control job settings for all documents?
  710.  
  711. Selected Answer: Manage Documents
  712. Correct Answer: Manage Documents
  713.  
  714. Question 12 5 out of 5 points
  715. What document format is a new, platform-independent format included with Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008?
  716.  
  717. Selected Answer: XML Paper Specification (XPS)
  718. Correct Answer: XML Paper Specification (XPS)
  719.  
  720. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  721. What kind of device receives print jobs from clients and sends them to either locally-attached or network-attached printer devices?
  722.  
  723. Selected Answer: Print server
  724. Correct Answer: Print server
  725.  
  726. Question 14 3 out of 5 points
  727. What kind of print device is connected to a TCP/IP network, either directly or through another computer?
  728.  
  729. Selected Answer: Network-attached print device
  730. Correct Answer: Print server
  731.  
  732. Question 15 5 out of 5 points
  733. What can you create to connect a single print server to multiple print devices?
  734.  
  735. Selected Answer: Printer pool
  736. Correct Answer: Printer pool
  737.  
  738. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  739. What permission allows a user to share a printer, delete a printer, and change a printer's properties?
  740.  
  741. Selected Answer: Manage Printers
  742. Correct Answer: Manage Printers
  743.  
  744. Question 17 0 out of 5 points
  745. What kind of printer is directly attached to a single computer, regardless of the interface it uses to connect?
  746.  
  747. Selected Answer: Network-attached printer
  748. Correct Answer: Local printer
  749.  
  750. Question 18 5 out of 5 points
  751. What protocol allows users to print documents through an IIS server?
  752.  
  753. Selected Answer: IPP
  754. Correct Answer: IPP
  755.  
  756. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  757. What describes the actual hardware that produces hard copy documents on paper or other print media?
  758.  
  759. Selected Answer: Print device
  760. Correct Answer: Print device
  761.  
  762. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  763. What permission allows users to pause, manage and cancel only those printer documents that they have created?
  764.  
  765. Selected Answer: Print
  766. Correct Answer: Print
  767.  
  768.  
  769. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  770. This feature will automatically check for software updates that are published on a WSUS server.
  771.  
  772. Selected Answer: Automatic Updates
  773. Correct Answer: Automatic Updates
  774.  
  775. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  776. This view of the Windows Event Viewer allows you to configure a Windows Server 2008 computer to act as a repository for Event Viewer entries from one or more remote computers.
  777.  
  778. Selected Answer: Forwarded Events
  779. Correct Answer: Forwarded Events
  780.  
  781. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  782. The following user group can view both real-time and historical data within the Performance Monitor console, but cannot create or modify Data Collector Sets:
  783.  
  784. Selected Answer: Performance Monitor Users
  785. Correct Answer: Performance Monitor Users
  786.  
  787. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  788. In order to collect events from remote computers that match the criteria of one or more event filters that you define, you will create one or more of the following:
  789.  
  790. Selected Answer: Subscription
  791. Correct Answer: Subscription
  792.  
  793. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  794. What protocol does the Windows Event Viewer use to configure event forwarding?
  795.  
  796. Selected Answer: WS-Management
  797. Correct Answer: WS-Management
  798.  
  799. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  800. This is a new Event Log in Windows Server 2008, used to capture information regarding operating system and application installations and un-installations.
  801.  
  802. Selected Answer: Setup Log
  803. Correct Answer: Setup Log
  804.  
  805. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  806. The following service allows you to configure a single server as a repository of Event Viewer information for multiple computers:
  807.  
  808. Selected Answer: Windows Event Collector Service
  809. Correct Answer: Windows Event Collector Service
  810.  
  811. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  812. The following allows you to display only those packets matching a particular set of criterion among a larger set of packets that have been captured by Network Monitor:
  813.  
  814. Selected Answer: Display Filter
  815. Correct Answer: Display Filter
  816.  
  817. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  818. The following user group can view both real-time and historical data within the Performance Monitor console, and can also create and modify Data Collector Sets:
  819.  
  820. Selected Answer: Performance Log Users
  821. Correct Answer: Performance Log Users
  822.  
  823. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  824. The following is a server-side component within WSUS that retrieves the latest critical updates from the Windows Update Web site:
  825.  
  826. Selected Answer: Content Synchronization Service
  827. Correct Answer: Content Synchronization Service
  828.  
  829. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  830. The __ __ was configured in Windows 2000, Windows Server 2003, and Windows XP IPSec policies to ensure that the computer responds to requests for secure communication.
  831.  
  832. Selected Answer: default response rule
  833. Correct Answer: default response rule
  834.  
  835. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  836. A(n) __ __ attack is one in which a malicious user masquerades as the legitimate sender or recipient of network traffic.
  837.  
  838. Selected Answer: identity spoofing
  839. Correct Answer: identity spoofing
  840.  
  841. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  842. The strongest form of NT LAN Manager authentication is __ __.
  843.  
  844. Selected Answer: NTVMv2
  845. Correct Answer: NTLMv2 authentication
  846.  
  847. Question 4 0 out of 5 points
  848. IPSec __ __ is used to provide end-to-end security, in which both hosts support IPSec using the same authentication protocols.
  849.  
  850. Selected Answer: policy
  851. Correct Answer: transport mode
  852.  
  853. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  854. A(n) __ __ connection security rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria, such as membership in a particular Active Directory domain.
  855.  
  856. Selected Answer: Isolation
  857. Correct Answer: Isolation
  858.  
  859. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  860. Microsoft Network Monitor is an example of a real-world __ __.
  861.  
  862. Selected Answer: packet sniffing
  863. Correct Answer: packet sniffer
  864.  
  865. Question 7 0 out of 5 points
  866. The Windows Firewall with Advanced Security MMC snap-in allows you to integrate IPSec into the Windows Firewall by configuring one or more __ __.
  867.  
  868. Selected Answer: features
  869. Correct Answer: Connection Security Rules
  870.  
  871. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  872. The default __ __ for IPSec connections in an Active Directory environment is the Kerberos v5 protocol.
  873.  
  874. Selected Answer: authentication method
  875. Correct Answer: authentication method
  876.  
  877. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  878. Each Windows Firewall exception can be configured with a specific __ __ to control which computers the local computer will accept connections from.
  879.  
  880. Selected Answer: range of IP addresses
  881. Correct Answer: scope
  882.  
  883. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  884. A(n) __ __ must occur before secure traffic can be sent, in order to determine the type of traffic to be secured and how it will be secured
  885.  
  886. Selected Answer: negotiation
  887. Correct Answer: quick mode negotiation
  888.  
  889. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  890. This is used to provide gateway-to-gateway protection for site-to-site communications that cross the Internet (or other public networks).
  891.  
  892. Selected Answer: Tunnel mode
  893. Correct Answer: Tunnel mode
  894.  
  895. Question 12 5 out of 5 points
  896. Windows Server 2003 supports the following feature, which is used to determine new keying material through a new Diffie-Hellman exchange on a regular basis:
  897.  
  898. Selected Answer: Dynamic rekeying
  899. Correct Answer: Dynamic rekeying
  900.  
  901. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  902. The following protocol provides confidentiality (in addition to authentication, integrity, and anti-replay) for the IP payload:
  903.  
  904. Selected Answer: Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
  905. Correct Answer: Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
  906.  
  907. Question 14 5 out of 5 points
  908. This suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or receiving data.
  909.  
  910. Selected Answer: IPSec
  911. Correct Answer: IPSec
  912.  
  913. Question 15 5 out of 5 points
  914. The following is a value contained in a received IKE message that is used to help identify the corresponding main mode SA:
  915.  
  916. Selected Answer: Cookie
  917. Correct Answer: Cookie
  918.  
  919. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  920. This Connection Security Rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated in order to pass traffic.
  921.  
  922. Selected Answer: Authentication exemption
  923. Correct Answer: Authentication exemption
  924.  
  925. Question 17 5 out of 5 points
  926. You can configure the Windows Firewall to allow one or more inbound connections based on any of the following that you configure:
  927.  
  928. Selected Answer: Exception
  929. Correct Answer: Exception
  930.  
  931. Question 18 5 out of 5 points
  932. An IP Filter in which traffic that is defined in one direction will also be defined in the opposite direction is said to be:
  933.  
  934. Selected Answer: Mirrored
  935. Correct Answer: Mirrored
  936.  
  937. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  938. The following NTLM Authentication type is disabled by default in Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 servers; it should not be used in a production environment as it is weak and can be easily hacked by malicious users:
  939.  
  940. Selected Answer: LM authentication
  941. Correct Answer: LM authentication
  942.  
  943. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  944. This is a mathematical value that is used to provide an integrity check for a TCP or UDP packet.
  945.  
  946. Selected Answer: Checksum
  947. Correct Answer: Checksum
  948.  
  949.  
  950. Question 1 5 out of 5 points
  951. A(n) _ _ is a CA that integrates with Active Directory and allows for auto-enrollment of user and computer certificates through the use of Group Policy and certificate templates.
  952.  
  953. Selected Answer: enterprise CA
  954. Correct Answer: enterprise CA
  955.  
  956. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  957. The top-level CA in any PKI hierarchy is the _ _.
  958.  
  959. Selected Answer: root CA
  960. Correct Answer: root CA
  961.  
  962. Question 3 0 out of 5 points
  963. One alternative to using public key cryptography is by using a(n) _ _.
  964.  
  965. Selected Answer: certificate authority
  966. Correct Answer: shared secret key
  967.  
  968. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  969. Each PKI certificate consists of a public key that is widely known, and a(n) _ _ that is known only to the user or computer who holds the certificate.
  970.  
  971. Selected Answer: private key
  972. Correct Answer: private key
  973.  
  974. Question 5 0 out of 5 points
  975. Users can request certificates via the web using the _ _ service.
  976.  
  977. Selected Answer: online responder
  978. Correct Answer: Certification Authority Web Enrollment
  979.  
  980. Question 6 0 out of 5 points
  981. A __ __ obtains PKI health certificates from client computers when the IPSec NAP enforcement method is used.
  982.  
  983. Selected Answer: internet protocol security (IPSe) enforcement
  984. Correct Answer: Health Registration Authority (HRA)
  985.  
  986. Question 7 0 out of 5 points
  987. The __ __ method is the only NAP enforcement agent that can be deployed in the absence of an Active Directory domain.
  988.  
  989. Selected Answer: DHCP
  990. Correct Answer: DHCP enforcement
  991.  
  992. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  993. __ __ provide continuous monitoring of system compliance on all NAP clients.
  994.  
  995. Selected Answer: System Health Agents (SHAs)
  996. Correct Answer: System Health Agents (SHAs)
  997.  
  998. Question 9 0 out of 5 points
  999. The __ __ distributes Statement of Health information to the appropriate System Health Validators.
  1000.  
  1001. Selected Answer: NAP agent
  1002. Correct Answer: NAP administration server
  1003.  
  1004. Question 10 0 out of 5 points
  1005. Each System Health Agent provides a __ __ regarding its health status.
  1006.  
  1007. Selected Answer: System Statement of Health (SSCH)
  1008. Correct Answer: Statement of Health (SOH)
  1009.  
  1010. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  1011. Each server that functions as a CA must be configured with a(n):
  1012.  
  1013. Selected Answer: Revocation configuration
  1014. Correct Answer: Revocation configuration
  1015.  
  1016. Question 12 5 out of 5 points
  1017. An organization can have one or more of these to distribute the load of issuing certificates in a geographically dispersed organization:
  1018.  
  1019. Selected Answer: Intermediate CA
  1020. Correct Answer: Intermediate CA
  1021.  
  1022. Question 13 5 out of 5 points
  1023. In order to authenticate using a smart card that has been configured for their use, a user must have the following installed at their workstation:
  1024.  
  1025. Selected Answer: smart card reader
  1026. Correct Answer: smart card reader
  1027.  
  1028. Question 14 5 out of 5 points
  1029. Which component of Active Directory Certificate Services uses the Online Certificate Status Protocol to respond to client requests?
  1030.  
  1031. Selected Answer: Online Responder
  1032. Correct Answer: Online Responder
  1033.  
  1034. Question 15 5 out of 5 points
  1035. The IPSec NAP Enforcement method relies on this type of PKI certificate to perform its enforcements:
  1036.  
  1037. Selected Answer: health certificate
  1038. Correct Answer: health certificate
  1039.  
  1040. Question 16 5 out of 5 points
  1041. A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a(n):
  1042.  
  1043. Selected Answer: enforcement point
  1044. Correct Answer: enforcement point
  1045.  
  1046. Question 17 5 out of 5 points
  1047. The Network Device Enrollment Service (NDES) uses the following protocol to enroll network devices for PKI certificates:
  1048.  
  1049. Selected Answer: Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol
  1050. Correct Answer: Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol
  1051.  
  1052. Question 18 0 out of 5 points
  1053. Statements of Health from each SHA are combined to create a:
  1054.  
  1055. Selected Answer: System Statement of Health Response
  1056. Correct Answer: System Statement of Health
  1057.  
  1058. Question 19 5 out of 5 points
  1059. The following NAP component transmits information between the NAP Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents:
  1060.  
  1061. Selected Answer: NAP Agent
  1062. Correct Answer: NAP Agent
  1063.  
  1064. Question 20 5 out of 5 points
  1065. This provides a detailed explanation of how a particular Certification Authority manages certificates and keys
  1066.  
  1067. Selected Answer: Certificate Practice Statement
  1068. Correct Answer: Certificate Practice Statement
  1069.  
  1070. Question 2 5 out of 5 points
  1071. This type of backup will completely reformat the target drive that hosts the backup files.
  1072.  
  1073. Selected Answer: Scheduled backup
  1074. Correct Answer: Scheduled backup
  1075.  
  1076. Question 3 5 out of 5 points
  1077. This type of disk quota allows the user to access storage space beyond the allotted amount and simply sends an email notification when the quota has been exceeded.
  1078.  
  1079. Selected Answer: soft quota
  1080. Correct Answer: soft quota
  1081.  
  1082. Question 4 5 out of 5 points
  1083. This type of restore can be used to recover an entire server after it has experienced a hardware failure or other disaster recovery scenario.
  1084.  
  1085. Selected Answer: bare-metal restore
  1086. Correct Answer: bare-metal restore
  1087.  
  1088. Question 5 5 out of 5 points
  1089. This backup type will retain the Application log files on the local server after the backup is completed.
  1090.  
  1091. Selected Answer: Copy backup
  1092. Correct Answer: Copy backup
  1093.  
  1094. Question 6 5 out of 5 points
  1095. This quota type prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond what has been defined within the quota.
  1096.  
  1097. Selected Answer: hard quota
  1098. Correct Answer: hard quota
  1099.  
  1100. Question 7 5 out of 5 points
  1101. This is the only type of quota available on servers that do not have the File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
  1102.  
  1103. Selected Answer: NTFS quota
  1104. Correct Answer: NTFS quota
  1105.  
  1106. Question 8 5 out of 5 points
  1107. All Windows disk quotas are based on the following to determine the amount of space being used by a particular user.
  1108.  
  1109. Selected Answer: file ownership
  1110. Correct Answer: file ownership
  1111.  
  1112. Question 9 5 out of 5 points
  1113. This backup type will update the server s backup history and will clear the Application Log files on the server.
  1114.  
  1115. Selected Answer: VSS full backup
  1116. Correct Answer: VSS full backup
  1117.  
  1118. Question 10 5 out of 5 points
  1119. This collection of disk quota settings can be used to create numerous quota assignments all containing consistent configuration settings.
  1120.  
  1121. Selected Answer: quota template
  1122. Correct Answer: quota template
  1123.  
  1124. Question 11 5 out of 5 points
  1125. This backup technology was introduced by Windows Server 2008 and relies on the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).
  1126.  
  1127. Selected Answer: Windows Server Backup
  1128. Correct Answer: Windows Server Backup
  1129.  
  1130.  
  1131. Administrators can specify these to dictate the percentage of available disk space at which actions associated with disk quotas will take effect.
  1132.  
  1133. F. threshold
  1134.  
  1135. F. threshold
  1136.  
  1137. This is a new command-line and task-based scripting technology that is included with Windows Server 2008.
  1138.  
  1139. I. Windows Powershell
  1140.  
  1141. I. Windows Powershell
  1142.  
  1143. This is a limit that is placed on the disk space a user is permitted to consume in a particular volume or folder.
  1144.  
  1145. A. disk quota
  1146. disk quota
  1147. This controls what types of traffic will be recorded by Network Monitor when you press F10.
  1148. D.
  1149. Capture Filter
  1150.  
  1151. D.
  1152. Capture Filter
  1153.  
  1154.  
  1155. This right must be granted to Performance Log Users to allow them to create and manage Data Collector Sets.
  1156.  
  1157. H.
  1158. Log on as a batch user
  1159.  
  1160. H.
  1161. Log on as a batch user
  1162.  
  1163.  
  1164. This custom view in the Event Viewer collects Critical, Error, and Warning events from all logs on a particular server.
  1165.  
  1166. A. Administrative Events
  1167.  
  1168. A. Administrative Events
  1169.  
  1170. This capture mode enables Network Monitor to listen to all traffic that is being passed on a particular network segment.
  1171.  
  1172. J. promiscuous mode J. promiscuous mode
  1173. This service is used by WSUS to optimize network traffic while downloading updates.
  1174.  
  1175. C.
  1176. Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)
  1177.  
  1178. C.
  1179. Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)
  1180.  
  1181.  
  1182. This type of forwarded event is initiated by the server acting as the event repository.
  1183.  
  1184. E.
  1185. collector initiated
  1186.  
  1187. E.
  1188. collector initiated
  1189.  
  1190.  
  1191. This is the command-line method of launching the Performance Monitor MMC snap-in.
  1192.  
  1193. I.
  1194. perfmon
  1195. I.
  1196. perfmon
  1197. This log provides a view of events related to software that has been installed on a Windows server computer.
  1198.  
  1199. B.
  1200. Application Log
  1201.  
  1202. B.
  1203. Application Log
  1204.  
  1205.  
  1206. This is collected to provide a real-time view into the behavior and performance of a server and its applications.
  1207.  
  1208. G.
  1209. event trace data
  1210.  
  1211. G.
  1212. event trace data
  1213.  
  1214. This allows you to organize a set of performance counters, event traces, and system configuration data into a single reusable configuration item. F.
  1215. Data Collector Set
  1216.  
  1217. F.
  1218. Data Collector Set
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