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  1. Second Release - January 29,2010
  2. Element 2 Technician Class Question Pool
  3. To be Effective July 1,2010 for Examinations
  4. (With Errata to first release version dated January 4,2010)
  5.  
  6.  
  7. After the initial release of this question pool January 4,2010, minor changes were made in the wording of questions and answers to correct typos and/or clarify meaning.   The changes incorporated in the text of the pool are reflected in the errata list below.
  8.  
  9. Edits and Corrections made to the version released January 4,2010 of the Technician Class Pool:
  10. T1A05: Capitalized the word “Part” in the question: What is the FCC Part 97….
  11. T1A05: Corrected typo in distractor A: Any multi-stage multi stage satellite
  12. T1A06: Capitalized the word “Part” in the question: What is the FCC Part 97….
  13.  
  14. T1A07: Capitalized the word “Part” in the question: What is the FCC Part 97….
  15.  
  16. T1A08: Changed distractor C: FCC Rregional Field Office
  17.  
  18. T1A09: Changed distractor C: Amateur operators in a local or regional area that whose stations are eligible to be auxiliary or repeater stations.
  19.  
  20. T1A09: Changed distractor D: FCC Regional Field Office
  21.  
  22. T1A10: Capitalized the word “Part” in the question: What is the FCC Part 97….
  23.  
  24. T1B01: Corrected typo in rules reference:  [97.2(a)(28)]
  25.  
  26. T1C03: Struck a word in distractor A: Communications incidental to the purposes of the amateur service and to remarks of a personal character
  27.  
  28. T1C06: Changed distractor D: From any vessel or craft located in international waters and that is documented or registered in the United States
  29.  
  30. T1C10: Changed wording of the question :  How soon may you transmit operate a transmitter on an amateur service frequency after you pass the examination elements required for your first amateur radio license?
  31.  
  32. T1C10: Changed distractor D:  You must wait until you receive your license in the mail from the FCC
  33.  
  34. T1C11: Changed the question: If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit operate a transmitter on amateur service frequencies?
  35.  
  36. T1D04: Changed distractor D: When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
  37.  
  38. T1D08: Changed the question: When may the control operator of an amateur station accept receive compensation for operating the station?
  39.  
  40. T1E01: Changed distractor A: Only when the station is transmitting
  41.  
  42. T1E05: Modified distractor B: The location of the station transmitting apparatus and antenna structure
  43.  
  44.  
  45.  
  46. T1F04: Changed the question and all distractors: Which of the following is an acceptable language for use for station identification when operating in a phone sub-band?
  47. A. By a phone emission in Any language recognized by the United Nations
  48. B. By a phone emission in Any language recognized by the ITU
  49. C. By a phone emission in The English language
  50. D. By a phone emission in English, French, or Spanish
  51.  
  52. T1F06: Changed the question: Which of the following uses formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable…
  53.  
  54. T2B04: Changed the question: What common problem Which of the following common problems might cause you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when transmitting with the proper offset?
  55.  
  56. T2C11: Changed distractor A: The check is a count of the number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
  57.  
  58. T3A01: Corrected typo in question: What should you do if another operator reports that your stations’ station’s…
  59.  
  60. T3A09: Corrected typo in question: Which of the following is a common effect….
  61.  
  62. T3C02: Corrected typo in distractor C: Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your our area
  63.  
  64. T5B03: Capitalized the first letter of each distractor:  Oone etc
  65.  
  66. T5B04: Capitalized the first letter of each distractor:  Oone etc
  67.  
  68. T5C07: Corrected typo in question:  What is a the usual name…..
  69.  
  70. T6A01: Changed distractor D:  Transistor Transformer
  71.  
  72. T6A07: Changed distractor A: Switch
  73.  
  74. T6A08: Changed Distractor A: Zener diode
  75.  
  76. T6D08: Changed first word of question: What Which of the following is used….
  77.  
  78. T6D11: Changed first word of question: What Which of the following is used….
  79.  
  80. T7B04: Inserted a word in the question: What is the most likely cause of interference to a non-cordless telephone from a nearby transmitter?
  81.  
  82. T7B06: Inserted a word in the question: What should you do first if someone tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
  83.  
  84. T7B06: Changed distractor A: Make sure that your station is operating functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own television
  85.  
  86. T7B10: Inserted a word in the question: What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?
  87.  
  88. T8B04: Added words to end of question for clarification:  Which amateur stations may make contact with an amateur station on the International Space Station using 2 meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies?
  89.  
  90. T8B07: Inserted words in the question: With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?
  91.  
  92. T8B07: Changed wording of distractor C: An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station
  93.  
  94. T8C08: Inserted a word in distractor C: A label indicating the licensee’s name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
  95.  
  96. T8D08: Changed question for clarity: Which of the following may be What is included in packet transmissions
  97.  
  98. T8D09: Deleted a word from the question: What digital code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?
  99.  
  100. T8D09: Inserted a word in distractor C: International Morse
  101.  
  102. T9B06: Changed distractor D: A DB-23 Connector
  103.  
  104. T0B01: Changed distractor D: Only At all times when the tower exceeds 30 feet in height
  105.  
  106. T0C03: Inserted a word in the question and deleted three words: What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies above 30 MHz before an RF exposure evaluation is required?
  107.  
  108. T0C11: Changed distractor C: The ratio of "on" on-air time to "off" total operating time of a transmitted signal
  109.  
  110.  
  111. ~ End of Errata
  112.  
  113.  
  114.  
  115.  
  116.  
  117.  
  118. The syllabus, question pool, and associated graphics begin on the next page.
  119. The QPC wishes to acknowledge and thank the many individuals that contributed their suggestions for new questions or changes for this pool.
  120.  
  121. NCVEC Question Pool Committee
  122.  
  123. Roland Anders, K3RA - Laurel VEC (QPC Chairman)
  124. Tom Fuszard, KF9PU – MRAC VEC, Inc.
  125. Perry Green, WY1O - ARRL VEC
  126. Larry Pollock, NB5X - W5YI VEC
  127. Jim Wiley, KL7CC - Anchorage VEC
  128.  
  129.  
  130.  
  131.  
  132.  
  133. 2010 Technician Class Question Pool Syllabus
  134.  
  135.  
  136. 396 questions in 35 sections
  137.  
  138.  
  139. SUBELEMENT T1 – FCC Rules, descriptions and definitions for the amateur radio service, operator and station license responsibilities - [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]
  140.  
  141. T1A - Amateur Radio services; purpose of the amateur service, amateur-satellite service, operator/primary station license grant, where FCC rules are codified, basis and purpose of FCC rules, meanings of basic terms used in FCC rules
  142.  
  143. T1B - Authorized frequencies; frequency allocations, ITU regions, emission type, restricted sub-bands, spectrum sharing, transmissions near band edges
  144.  
  145. T1C - Operator classes and station call signs; operator classes, sequential, special event, and vanity call sign systems, international communications, reciprocal operation, station license licensee, places where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, name and address on ULS, license term, renewal, grace period
  146.  
  147. T1D - Authorized and prohibited transmissions
  148.  
  149. T1E - Control operator and control types; control operator required, eligibility, designation of control operator, privileges and duties, control point, local, automatic and remote control, location of control operator
  150.  
  151. T1F - Station identification and operation standards; special operations for repeaters and auxiliary stations, third party communications, club stations, station security, FCC inspection
  152.  
  153.  
  154. SUBELEMENT T2 - Operating Procedures - [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
  155.  
  156. T2A - Station operation; choosing an operating frequency, calling another station, test transmissions, use of minimum power, frequency use, band plans
  157.  
  158. T2B – VHF/UHF operating practices; SSB phone, FM repeater, simplex, frequency offsets, splits and shifts, CTCSS, DTMF, tone squelch, carrier squelch, phonetics
  159.  
  160. T2C –Public service; emergency and non-emergency operations, message traffic handling
  161.  
  162.  
  163. SUBELEMENT T3 – Radio wave characteristics, radio and electromagnetic properties, propagation modes – [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
  164.  
  165. T3A - Radio wave characteristics; how a radio signal travels; distinctions of HF, VHF and UHF; fading, multipath; wavelength vs. penetration; antenna orientation
  166.  
  167. T3B - Radio and electromagnetic wave properties; the electromagnetic spectrum, wavelength vs. frequency, velocity of electromagnetic waves
  168.  
  169. T3C - Propagation modes; line of sight, sporadic E, meteor, aurora scatter, tropospheric ducting, F layer skip, radio horizon
  170.  
  171.  
  172. SUBELEMENT T4 - Amateur radio practices and station setup – [2 Exam Questions - 2 Groups]
  173.  
  174. T4A – Station setup; microphone, speaker, headphones, filters, power source, connecting a computer, RF grounding
  175.  
  176. T4B - Operating controls; tuning, use of filters, squelch, AGC, repeater offset, memory channels
  177.  
  178.  
  179. SUBELEMENT T5 – Electrical principles, math for electronics, electronic principles, Ohm’s Law – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  180.  
  181. T5A - Electrical principles; current and voltage, conductors and insulators, alternating and direct current
  182.  
  183. T5B - Math for electronics; decibels, electronic units and the metric system
  184.  
  185. T5C - Electronic principles; capacitance, inductance, current flow in circuits, alternating current, definition of RF, power calculations
  186.  
  187. T5D – Ohm’s Law
  188.  
  189.  
  190. SUBELEMENT T6 – Electrical components, semiconductors, circuit diagrams, component functions – [4 Exam Groups - 4 Questions]
  191.  
  192. T6A - Electrical components; fixed and variable resistors, capacitors, and inductors; fuses, switches, batteries
  193.  
  194. T6B – Semiconductors; basic principles of diodes and transistors
  195.  
  196. T6C - Circuit diagrams; schematic symbols
  197.  
  198. T6D - Component functions
  199.  
  200.  
  201. SUBELEMENT T7 – Station equipment, common transmitter and receiver problems, antenna measurements and troubleshooting, basic repair and testing – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  202.  
  203. T7A - Station radios; receivers, transmitters, transceivers
  204.  
  205. T7B – Common transmitter and receiver problems; symptoms of overload and overdrive, distortion, interference, over and under modulation, RF feedback, off frequency signals; fading and noise; problems with digital communications interfaces
  206.  
  207. T7C – Antenna measurements and troubleshooting; measuring SWR, dummy loads, feedline failure modes
  208.  
  209. T7D – Basic repair and testing; soldering, use of a voltmeter, ammeter, and ohmmeter
  210.  
  211.  
  212.  
  213. SUBELEMENT T8 – Modulation modes, amateur satellite operation, operating activities, non-voice communications – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  214.  
  215. T8A – Modulation modes; bandwidth of various signals
  216.  
  217. T8B - Amateur satellite operation; Doppler shift, basic orbits, operating protocols
  218.  
  219. T8C – Operating activities; radio direction finding, radio control, contests, special event stations, basic linking over Internet
  220.  
  221. T8D – Non-voice communications; image data, digital modes, CW, packet, PSK31
  222.  
  223.  
  224. SUBELEMENT T9 – Antennas, feedlines [2 Exam Groups - 2 Questions]
  225.  
  226. T9A – Antennas; vertical and horizontal, concept of gain, common portable and mobile antennas, relationships between antenna length and frequency
  227.  
  228. T9B - Feedlines; types, losses vs. frequency, SWR concepts, matching, weather protection, connectors
  229.  
  230.  
  231. SUBELEMENT T0 – AC power circuits, antenna installation, RF hazards – [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
  232.  
  233. T0A – AC power circuits; hazardous voltages, fuses and circuit breakers, grounding, lightning protection, battery safety, electrical code compliance
  234.  
  235. T0B – Antenna installation; tower safety, overhead power lines
  236.  
  237. T0C - RF hazards; radiation exposure, proximity to antennas, recognized safe power levels, exposure to others
  238.  
  239.  
  240. ~ End of Syllabus
  241. SUBELEMENT T1 – FCC Rules, descriptions and definitions for the amateur radio service, operator and station license responsibilities - [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]
  242.  
  243. T1A - Amateur Radio services; purpose of the amateur service, amateur-satellite service, operator/primary station license grant, where FCC rules are codified, basis and purpose of FCC rules, meanings of basic terms used in FCC rules
  244.  
  245. T1A01 (D) [97.3(a)(4)]
  246. For whom is the Amateur Radio Service intended?
  247. A. Persons who have messages to broadcast to the public
  248. B. Persons who need communications for the activities of their immediate family members, relatives and friends
  249. C. Persons who need two-way communications for personal reasons
  250. D. Persons who are interested in radio technique solely with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest
  251. ~~
  252.  
  253.  
  254. T1A02 (C) [97.1]
  255. What agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?
  256. A. FEMA
  257. B. The ITU
  258. C. The FCC
  259. D. Homeland Security
  260. ~~
  261.  
  262.  
  263. T1A03 (D)
  264. Which part of the FCC rules contains the rules and regulations governing the Amateur Radio Service?
  265. A. Part 73
  266. B. Part 95
  267. C. Part 90
  268. D. Part 97
  269. ~~
  270.  
  271.  
  272. T1A04 (C) [97.3(a)(23)]
  273. Which of the following meets the FCC definition of harmful interference?
  274. A. Radio transmissions that annoy users of a repeater
  275. B. Unwanted radio transmissions that cause costly harm to radio station apparatus
  276. C. That which seriously degrades, obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communication service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations
  277. D. Static from lightning storms
  278. ~~
  279.  
  280.  
  281. T1A05 (D) [97.3(a)(40)]
  282. What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?
  283. A. Any multi-stage satellite
  284. B. An Earth satellite that carries one of more amateur operators
  285. C. An amateur station located less than 25 km above the Earth's surface
  286. D. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
  287. ~~
  288.  
  289.  
  290.  
  291. T1A06 (C) [97.3(a)(43)]
  292. What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telecommand?
  293. A. An instruction bulletin issued by the FCC
  294. B. A one-way radio transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
  295. C. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance
  296. D. An instruction from a VEC
  297. ~~
  298.  
  299.  
  300. T1A07 (C) [97.3(a)(45)]
  301. What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telemetry?
  302. A. An information bulletin issued by the FCC
  303. B. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance
  304. C. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
  305. D. An information bulletin from a VEC
  306. ~~
  307.  
  308.  
  309. T1A08 (B) [97.3(a)(22)]
  310. Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
  311. A. Frequency Spectrum Manager
  312. B. Frequency Coordinator
  313. C. FCC Regional Field Office
  314. D. International Telecommunications Union
  315. ~~
  316.  
  317.  
  318. T1A09 (C) [97.3(a)(22)]
  319. Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?
  320. A. The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy
  321. B. The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators
  322. C. Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be auxiliary or repeater stations
  323. D. FCC Regional Field Office
  324. ~~
  325.  
  326.  
  327. T1A10 (A) [97.3(a)(5)]
  328. What is the FCC Part 97 definition of an amateur station?
  329. A. A station in an Amateur Radio Service consisting of the apparatus necessary for carrying on radio communications
  330. B. A building where Amateur Radio receivers, transmitters, and RF power amplifiers are installed
  331. C. Any radio station operated by a non-professional
  332. D. Any radio station for hobby use
  333. ~~
  334.  
  335.  
  336. T1A11 (C) [97.3(a)(7)]
  337. Which of the following stations transmits signals over the air from a remote receive site to a repeater for retransmission?
  338. A. Beacon station
  339. B. Relay station
  340. C. Auxiliary station
  341. D. Message forwarding station
  342. ~~
  343.  
  344.  
  345. T1B - Authorized frequencies; frequency allocations, ITU regions, emission type, restricted sub-bands, spectrum sharing, transmissions near band edges
  346.  
  347. T1B01 (B) [97.3(a)(28)]
  348. What is the ITU?
  349. A. An agency of the United States Department of Telecommunications Management
  350. B. A United Nations agency for information and communication technology issues
  351. C. An independent frequency coordination agency
  352. D. A department of the FCC
  353. ~~
  354.  
  355.  
  356. T1B02 (B)
  357. North American amateur stations are located in which ITU region?
  358. A. Region 1
  359. B. Region 2
  360. C. Region 3
  361. D. Region 4
  362. ~~
  363.  
  364.  
  365. T1B03 (B) [97.301(a)]
  366. Which frequency is within the 6 meter band?
  367. A. 49.00 MHz
  368. B. 52.525 MHz
  369. C. 28.50 MHz
  370. D. 222.15 MHz
  371. ~~
  372.  
  373.  
  374. T1B04 (A) [97.301(a)]
  375. Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?
  376. A. 2 meter band
  377. B. 20 meter band
  378. C. 14 meter band
  379. D. 6 meter band
  380. ~~
  381.  
  382.  
  383. T1B05 (C) [97.301(a)]
  384. Which 70 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class license holder operating in ITU Region 2?
  385. A. 53.350 MHz
  386. B. 146.520 MHz
  387. C. 443.350 MHz
  388. D. 222.520 MHz
  389. ~~
  390.  
  391.  
  392. T1B06 (B) [97.301(a)]
  393. Which 23 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class operator license?
  394. A. 2315 MHz
  395. B. 1296 MHz
  396. C. 3390 MHz
  397. D. 146.52 MHz
  398. ~~
  399.  
  400.  
  401.  
  402. T1B07 (D) [97.301(a)]
  403. What amateur band are you using if you are transmitting on 223.50 MHz?
  404. A. 15 meter band
  405. B. 10 meter band
  406. C. 2 meter band
  407. D. 1.25 meter band
  408. ~~
  409.  
  410.  
  411. T1B08 (C) [97.303]
  412. What do the FCC rules mean when an amateur frequency band is said to be available on a secondary basis?
  413. A. Secondary users of a frequency have equal rights to operate
  414. B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency at night
  415. C. Amateurs may not cause harmful interference to primary users
  416. D. Secondary users are not allowed on amateur bands
  417. ~~
  418.  
  419.  
  420. T1B09 (D) [97.101(a)]
  421. Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
  422. A. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
  423. B. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
  424. C. To allow for transmitter frequency drift
  425. D. All of these choices are correct
  426. ~~
  427.  
  428.  
  429. T1B10 (C) [97.305(c)]
  430. Which of the bands available to Technician Class operators have mode-restricted sub-bands?
  431. A. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 70 cm bands
  432. B. The 2 meter and 13 cm bands
  433. C. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 1.25 meter bands
  434. D. The 2 meter and 70 cm bands
  435. ~~
  436.  
  437.  
  438. T1B11 (A) [97.305 (a)(c)]
  439. What emission modes are permitted in the mode-restricted sub-bands at 50.0 to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 to 144.1 MHz?
  440. A. CW only
  441. B. CW and RTTY
  442. C. SSB only
  443. D. CW and SSB
  444. ~~
  445.  
  446.  
  447. T1C - Operator classes and station call signs; operator classes, sequential, special event, and vanity call sign systems, international communications, reciprocal operation, station license and licensee, places where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, name and address on ULS, license term, renewal, grace period
  448.  
  449. T1C01 (C) [97.3(a)(11)(iii)]
  450. Which type of call sign has a single letter in both the prefix and suffix?
  451. A. Vanity
  452. B. Sequential
  453. C. Special event
  454. D. In-memoriam
  455. ~~
  456.  
  457.  
  458. T1C02 (B)
  459. Which of the following is a valid US amateur radio station call sign?
  460. A. KMA3505
  461. B. W3ABC
  462. C. KDKA
  463. D. 11Q1176
  464. ~~
  465.  
  466.  
  467. T1C03 (A) [97.117]
  468. What types of international communications are permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station?
  469. A. Communications incidental to the purposes of the amateur service and remarks of a personal character
  470. B. Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
  471. C. Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited
  472. D. Any communications that would be permitted on an international broadcast station
  473. ~~
  474.  
  475.  
  476. T1C04 (A)
  477. When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in a foreign country?
  478. A. When the foreign country authorizes it
  479. B. When there is a mutual agreement allowing third party communications
  480. C. When authorization permits amateur communications in a foreign language
  481. D. When you are communicating with non-licensed individuals in another country
  482. ~~
  483.  
  484.  
  485. T1C05 (A) [97.303(h)]
  486. What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the United States?
  487. A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate the harmful interference
  488. B. Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the amateur service
  489. C. Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them to change frequency
  490. D. Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause interference
  491. ~~
  492.  
  493.  
  494. T1C06 (D) [97.5(a)(2)]
  495. From which of the following may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications?
  496. A. From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunications Union
  497. B. From within any country that is a member of the United Nations
  498. C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3
  499. D. From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States
  500. ~~
  501.  
  502.  
  503. T1C07 (B) [97.23]
  504. What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide the correct mailing address?
  505. A. Fine or imprisonment
  506. B. Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license
  507. C. Require the licensee to be re-examined
  508. D. A reduction of one rank in operator class
  509. ~~
  510.  
  511.  
  512. T1C08 (C) [97.25]
  513. What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator license grant?
  514. A. Five years
  515. B. Life
  516. C. Ten years
  517. D. Twenty years
  518. ~~
  519.  
  520.  
  521. T1C09 (A) [97.21(a)(b)]
  522. What is the grace period following the expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be renewed?
  523. A. Two years
  524. B. Three years
  525. C. Five years
  526. D. Ten years
  527. ~~
  528.  
  529.  
  530. T1C10 (C) [97.5a]
  531. How soon may you operate a transmitter on an amateur service frequency after you pass the examination required for your first amateur radio license?
  532. A. Immediately
  533. B. 30 days after the test date
  534. C. As soon as your name and call sign appear in the FCC’s ULS database
  535. D. You must wait until you receive your license in the mail from the FCC
  536. ~~
  537.  
  538.  
  539. T1C11 (A) [97.21(b)]
  540. If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on amateur service frequencies?
  541. A. No, transmitting is not allowed until the ULS database shows that the license has been renewed
  542. B. Yes, but only if you identify using the suffix "GP"
  543. C. Yes, but only during authorized nets
  544. D. Yes, for up to two years
  545. ~~
  546.  
  547.  
  548. T1D - Authorized and prohibited transmissions
  549.  
  550. T1D01 (A) [97.111(a)(1)]
  551. With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
  552. A. Any country whose administration has notified the ITU that it objects to such communications
  553. B. Any country whose administration has notified the United Nations that it objects to such communications
  554. C. Any country engaged in hostilities with another country
  555. D. Any country in violation of the War Powers Act of 1934
  556. ~~
  557.  
  558.  
  559.  
  560. T1D02 (A) [97.111(a)(5)]
  561. On which of the following occasions may an FCC-licensed amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military station?
  562. A. During an Armed Forces Day Communications Test
  563. B. During a Memorial Day Celebration
  564. C. During an Independence Day celebration
  565. D. During a propagation test
  566. ~~
  567.  
  568.  
  569. T1D03 (C) [97.113(a)(4), 97.211(b), 97.217]
  570. When is the transmission of codes or ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of a message transmitted by an amateur station?
  571. A. Only during contests
  572. B. Only when operating mobile
  573. C. Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft
  574. D. Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are used
  575. ~~
  576.  
  577.  
  578. T1D04 (A) [97.113(a)(4), 97.113(e)]
  579. What is the only time an amateur station is authorized to transmit music?
  580. A. When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications
  581. B. When the music produces no spurious emissions
  582. C. When the purpose is to interfere with an illegal transmission
  583. D. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
  584. ~~
  585.  
  586.  
  587. T1D05 (A) [97.113(a)(3)]
  588. When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?
  589. A. When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis
  590. B. When the asking price is $100.00 or less
  591. C. When the asking price is less than its appraised value
  592. D. When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee or the control operator or their close relatives
  593. ~~
  594.  
  595.  
  596. T1D06 (A) [97.113(a)(4)]
  597. Which of the following types of transmissions are prohibited?
  598. A. Transmissions that contain obscene or indecent words or language
  599. B. Transmissions to establish one-way communications
  600. C. Transmissions to establish model aircraft control
  601. D. Transmissions for third party communications
  602. ~~
  603.  
  604.  
  605. T1D07 (B) [97.113(f)]
  606. When is an amateur station authorized to automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
  607. A. When the signals are from an auxiliary, beacon, or Earth station
  608. B. When the signals are from an auxiliary, repeater, or space station
  609. C. When the signals are from a beacon, repeater, or space station
  610. D. When the signals are from an Earth, repeater, or space station
  611. ~~
  612.  
  613.  
  614. T1D08 (B) [97.113]
  615. When may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating the station?
  616. A. When engaging in communications on behalf of their employer
  617. B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
  618. C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a RACES net
  619. D. When notifying other amateur operators of the availability for sale or trade of apparatus
  620. ~~
  621.  
  622.  
  623. T1D09 (A) [97.113(b)]
  624. Under which of the following circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?
  625. A. Only where such communications directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
  626. B. Only when broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle.
  627. C. Only where noncommercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network
  628. D. Only when using amateur repeaters linked to the Internet
  629. ~~
  630.  
  631.  
  632. T1D10 (D) [97.3(a)(10)]
  633. What is the meaning of the term broadcasting in the FCC rules for the amateur services?
  634. A. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
  635. B. Transmission of music
  636. C. Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
  637. D. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public
  638. ~~
  639.  
  640.  
  641. T1D11 (A) [97.113(a)(5)]
  642. Which of the following types of communications are permitted in the Amateur Radio Service?
  643. A. Brief transmissions to make station adjustments
  644. B. Retransmission of entertainment programming from a commercial radio or TV station
  645. C. Retransmission of entertainment material from a public radio or TV station
  646. D. Communications on a regular basis that could reasonably be furnished alternatively through other radio services
  647. ~~
  648.  
  649.  
  650. T1E - Control operator and control types; control operator required, eligibility, designation of control operator, privileges and duties, control point, local, automatic and remote control, location of control operator
  651.  
  652. T1E01 (A) [97.7(a)]
  653. When must an amateur station have a control operator?
  654. A. Only when the station is transmitting
  655. B. Only when the station is being locally controlled
  656. C. Only when the station is being remotely controlled
  657. D. Only when the station is being automatically controlled
  658. ~~
  659.  
  660.  
  661.  
  662. T1E02 (D) [97.7(a)]
  663. Who is eligible to be the control operator of an amateur station?
  664. A. Only a person holding an amateur service license from any country that belongs to the United Nations
  665. B. Only a citizen of the United States
  666. C. Only a person over the age of 18
  667. D. Only a person for whom an amateur operator/primary station license grant appears in the FCC database or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
  668. ~~
  669.  
  670.  
  671. T1E03 (A) [97.103(b)]
  672. Who must designate the station control operator?
  673. A. The station licensee
  674. B. The FCC
  675. C. The frequency coordinator
  676. D. The ITU
  677. ~~
  678.  
  679.  
  680. T1E04 (D) [97.103(b)]
  681. What determines the transmitting privileges of an amateur station?
  682. A. The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator
  683. B. The class of operator license held by the station licensee
  684. C. The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises
  685. D. The class of operator license held by the control operator
  686. ~~
  687.  
  688.  
  689. T1E05 (C) [97.3(a)(14)]
  690. What is an amateur station control point?
  691. A. The location of the station’s transmitting antenna
  692. B. The location of the station transmitting apparatus
  693. C. The location at which the control operator function is performed
  694. D. The mailing address of the station licensee
  695. ~~
  696.  
  697.  
  698. T1E06 (B) [97.109(d)]
  699. Under which of the following types of control is it permissible for the control operator to be at a location other than the control point?
  700. A. Local control
  701. B. Automatic control
  702. C. Remote control
  703. D. Indirect control
  704. ~~
  705.  
  706.  
  707. T1E07 (D) [97.103(a)]
  708. When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?
  709. A. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
  710. B. Only the station licensee
  711. C. Only the control operator
  712. D. The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible
  713. ~~
  714.  
  715.  
  716.  
  717. T1E08 (C) [97.3(a)]
  718. What type of control is being used for a repeater when the control operator is not present at a control point?
  719. A. Local control
  720. B. Remote control
  721. C. Automatic control
  722. D. Unattended
  723. ~~
  724.  
  725.  
  726. T1E09 (D) [97.109(a)]
  727. What type of control is being used when transmitting using a handheld radio?
  728. A. Radio control
  729. B. Unattended control
  730. C. Automatic control
  731. D. Local control
  732. ~~
  733.  
  734.  
  735. T1E10 (B) [97.3]
  736. What type of control is used when the control operator is not at the station location but can indirectly manipulate the operating adjustments of a station?
  737. A. Local
  738. B. Remote
  739. C. Automatic
  740. D. Unattended
  741. ~~
  742.  
  743.  
  744. T1E11 (D) [97.103(a)]
  745. Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?
  746. A. The station custodian
  747. B. The third party participant
  748. C. The person operating the station equipment
  749. D. The station licensee
  750. ~~
  751.  
  752.  
  753. T1F - Station identification and operation standards; special operations for repeaters and auxiliary stations, third party communications, club stations, station security, FCC inspection
  754.  
  755. T1F01 (A)
  756. What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as “Race Headquarters”?
  757. A. Tactical call
  758. B. Self-assigned designator
  759. C. SSID
  760. D. Broadcast station
  761. ~~
  762.  
  763.  
  764. T1F02 (C) [97.119 (a)]
  765. When using tactical identifiers, how often must your station transmit the station’s FCC-assigned call sign?
  766. A. Never, the tactical call is sufficient
  767. B. Once during every hour
  768. C. Every ten minutes
  769. D. At the end of every communication
  770. ~~
  771.  
  772.  
  773. T1F03 (D) [97.119(a)]
  774. When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign?
  775. A. At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter
  776. B. At least once during each transmission
  777. C. At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a contact
  778. D. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a contact
  779. ~~
  780.  
  781. T1F04 (C) [97.119(b)]
  782. Which of the following is an acceptable language for use for station identification when operating in a phone sub-band?
  783. A. Any language recognized by the United Nations
  784. B. Any language recognized by the ITU
  785. C. The English language
  786. D. English, French, or Spanish
  787. ~~
  788.  
  789. T1F05 (B) [97.119(b)]
  790. What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
  791. A. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
  792. B. Send the call sign using CW or phone emission
  793. C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
  794. D. Send the call sign using only phone emission
  795. ~~
  796.  
  797.  
  798. T1F06 (D) [97.119(c)]
  799. Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission?
  800. A. KL7CC stroke W3
  801. B. KL7CC slant W3
  802. C. KL7CC slash W3
  803. D. All of these choices are correct
  804. ~~
  805.  
  806.  
  807. T1F07 (D) [97.119(c)]
  808. Which of the following restrictions apply when appending a self-assigned call sign indicator?
  809. A. It must be more than three letters and less than five letters
  810. B. It must be less than five letters
  811. C. It must start with the letters AA through AL, K, N, or W and be not less than two characters or more than five characters in length
  812. D. It must not conflict with any other indicator specified by the FCC rules or with any call sign prefix assigned to another country
  813. ~~
  814.  
  815.  
  816. T1F08 (A) [97.119(e)]
  817. When may a Technician Class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Extra Class operator segment of the amateur bands?
  818. A. Never
  819. B. On Armed Forces Day
  820. C. As part of a multi-operator contest team
  821. D. When using a club station whose trustee is an Extra Class operator licensee
  822. ~~
  823.  
  824.  
  825. T1F09 (C) [97.3(a)(39)]
  826. What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?
  827. A. Beacon station
  828. B. Earth station
  829. C. Repeater station
  830. D. Message forwarding station
  831. ~~
  832.  
  833.  
  834. T1F10 (A) [97.205(g)]
  835. Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?
  836. A. The control operator of the originating station
  837. B. The control operator of the repeater
  838. C. The owner of the repeater
  839. D. Both the originating station and the repeater owner
  840. ~~
  841.  
  842.  
  843. T1F11 (A) [97.115(a)]
  844. To which foreign stations do the FCC rules authorize the transmission of non-emergency third party communications?
  845. A. Any station whose government permits such communications
  846. B. Those in ITU Region 2 only
  847. C. Those in ITU Regions 2 and 3 only
  848. D. Those in ITU Region 3 only
  849. ~~
  850.  
  851.  
  852. T1F12 (B) [97.5(b)(2)]
  853. How many persons are required to be members of a club for a club station license to be issued by the FCC?
  854. A. At least 5
  855. B. At least 4
  856. C. A trustee and 2 officers
  857. D. At least 2
  858. ~~
  859.  
  860.  
  861. T1F13 (B) [97.103(c)]
  862. When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection?
  863. A. Any time upon request by an official observer
  864. B. Any time upon request by an FCC representative
  865. C. 30 days prior to renewal of the station license
  866. D. 10 days before the first transmission
  867. ~~
  868.  
  869.  
  870.  
  871. SUBELEMENT T2 - Operating Procedures [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
  872.  
  873. T2A - Station operation; choosing an operating frequency, calling another station, test transmissions, use of minimum power, frequency use, band plans
  874.  
  875. T2A01 (B)
  876. What is the most common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?
  877. A. plus 500 kHz
  878. B. plus or minus 600 kHz
  879. C. minus 500 kHz
  880. D. Only plus 600 kHz
  881. ~~
  882.  
  883.  
  884. T2A02 (D)
  885. What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 70 cm band?
  886. A. 146.520 MHz
  887. B. 145.000 MHz
  888. C. 432.100 MHz
  889. D. 446.000 MHz
  890. ~~
  891.  
  892.  
  893. T2A03 (A)
  894. What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?
  895. A. Plus or minus 5 MHz
  896. B. Plus or minus 600 kHz
  897. C. Minus 600 kHz
  898. D. Plus 600 kHz
  899. ~~
  900.  
  901.  
  902. T2A04 (B)
  903. What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
  904. A. Say "break, break" then say the station's call sign
  905. B. Say the station's call sign then identify with your call sign
  906. C. Say "CQ" three times then the other station's call sign
  907. D. Wait for the station to call "CQ" then answer it
  908. ~~
  909.  
  910.  
  911. T2A05 (C)
  912. What should you transmit when responding to a call of CQ?
  913. A. CQ followed by the other station’s call sign
  914. B. Your call sign followed by the other station’s call sign
  915. C. The other station’s call sign followed by your call sign
  916. D. A signal report followed by your call sign
  917. ~~
  918.  
  919.  
  920. T2A06 (A)
  921. What must an amateur operator do when making on-air transmissions to test equipment or antennas?
  922. A. Properly identify the transmitting station
  923. B. Make test transmissions only after 10:00 p.m. local time
  924. C. Notify the FCC of the test transmission
  925. D. State the purpose of the test during the test procedure
  926. ~~
  927.  
  928.  
  929. T2A07 (D)
  930. Which of the following is true when making a test transmission?
  931. A. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 15 seconds
  932. B. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 1 watt
  933. C. Station identification is required only if your station can be heard
  934. D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutes during the test and at the end
  935. ~~
  936.  
  937.  
  938. T2A08 (D)
  939. What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?
  940. A. Call on the quarter hour
  941. B. A new antenna is being tested (no station should answer)
  942. C. Only the called station should transmit
  943. D. Calling any station
  944. ~~
  945.  
  946.  
  947. T2A09 (B)
  948. What brief statement is often used in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a repeater?
  949. A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign
  950. B. Say your call sign  
  951. C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your call sign
  952. D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call sign
  953. ~~
  954.  
  955.  
  956. T2A10 (A)
  957. What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
  958. A. A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band
  959. B. A mandated list of operating schedules
  960. C. A list of scheduled net frequencies
  961. D. A plan devised by a club to use a frequency band during a contest
  962. ~~
  963.  
  964.  
  965. T2A11 (D) [97.313(a)]
  966. What are the FCC rules regarding power levels used in the amateur bands?
  967. A. Always use the maximum power allowed to ensure that you complete the contact
  968. B. An amateur may use no more than 200 watts PEP to make an amateur contact
  969. C. An amateur may use up to 1500 watts PEP on any amateur frequency
  970. D. An amateur must use the minimum transmitter power necessary to carry out the desired communication
  971. ~~
  972.  
  973.  
  974. T2B – VHF/UHF operating practices; SSB phone, FM repeater, simplex, frequency offsets, splits and shifts, CTCSS, DTMF, tone squelch, carrier squelch, phonetics
  975.  
  976. T2B01 (C)
  977. What is the term used to describe an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?
  978. A. Full duplex communication
  979. B. Diplex communication
  980. C. Simplex communication
  981. D. Half duplex communication
  982. ~~
  983.  
  984.  
  985. T2B02 (D)
  986. What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
  987. A. Carrier squelch
  988. B. Tone burst
  989. C. DTMF
  990. D. CTCSS
  991. ~~
  992.  
  993.  
  994. T2B03 (B)
  995. Which of the following describes the muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal?
  996. A. Tone squelch
  997. B. Carrier squelch
  998. C. CTCSS
  999. D. Modulated carrier
  1000. ~~
  1001.  
  1002.  
  1003. T2B04 (D)
  1004. Which of the following common problems might cause you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when transmitting with the proper offset?
  1005. A. The repeater receiver requires audio tone burst for access
  1006. B. The repeater receiver requires a CTCSS tone for access
  1007. C. The repeater receiver may require a DCS tone sequence for access
  1008. D. All of these choices are correct
  1009. ~~
  1010.  
  1011.  
  1012. T2B05 (C)
  1013. What determines the amount of deviation of an FM signal?
  1014. A. Both the frequency and amplitude of the modulating signal
  1015. B. The frequency of the modulating signal
  1016. C. The amplitude of the modulating signal
  1017. D. The relative phase of the modulating signal and the carrier
  1018. ~~
  1019.  
  1020.  
  1021. T2B06 (A)
  1022. What happens when the deviation of an FM transmitter is increased?
  1023. A. Its signal occupies more bandwidth
  1024. B. Its output power increases
  1025. C. Its output power and bandwidth increases
  1026. D. Asymmetric modulation occurs
  1027. ~~
  1028.  
  1029.  
  1030. T2B07 (D)
  1031. What should you do if you receive a report that your station’s transmissions are causing splatter or interference on nearby frequencies?
  1032. A. Increase transmit power
  1033. B. Change mode of transmission
  1034. C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer
  1035. D. Check your transmitter for off-frequency operation or spurious emissions
  1036. ~~
  1037.  
  1038.  
  1039.  
  1040. T2B08 (B)
  1041. What is the proper course of action if your station’s transmission unintentionally interferes with another station?
  1042. A. Rotate your antenna slightly
  1043. B. Properly identify your transmission and move to a different frequency
  1044. C. Increase power
  1045. D. Change antenna polarization
  1046. ~~
  1047.  
  1048.  
  1049. T2B09 (A) [97.119(b)(2)]
  1050. Which of the following methods is encouraged by the FCC when identifying your station when using phone?
  1051. A. Use of a phonetic alphabet
  1052. B. Send your call sign in CW as well as voice
  1053. C. Repeat your call sign three times
  1054. D. Increase your signal to full power when identifying
  1055. ~~
  1056.  
  1057.  
  1058. T2B10 (A)
  1059. What is the "Q" signal used to indicate that you are receiving interference from other stations?
  1060. A. QRM
  1061. B. QRN
  1062. C. QTH
  1063. D. QSB
  1064. ~~
  1065.  
  1066.  
  1067. T2B11 (B)
  1068. What is the "Q" signal used to indicate that you are changing frequency?
  1069. A. QRU
  1070. B. QSY
  1071. C. QSL
  1072. D. QRZ
  1073. ~~
  1074.  
  1075.  
  1076. T2C – Public service; emergency and non-emergency operations, message traffic handling
  1077.  
  1078. T2C01 (C) [97.103(a)]
  1079. What set of rules applies to proper operation of your station when using amateur radio at the request of public service officials?
  1080. A. RACES Rules
  1081. B. ARES Rules
  1082. C. FCC Rules
  1083. D. FEMA Rules
  1084. ~~
  1085.  
  1086.  
  1087. Deleted T2C02 (D) [97.113 and FCC Public Notice DA 09-2259]
  1088. Who must submit the request for a temporary waiver of Part 97.113 to allow amateur radio operators to provide communications on behalf of their employers during a government sponsored disaster drill?
  1089. A. Each amateur participating in the drill
  1090. B. Any employer participating in the drill
  1091. C. The local American Red Cross Chapter
  1092. D. The government agency sponsoring the event
  1093. ~~
  1094.  
  1095.  
  1096. Deleted T2C03 (C) [97.113]
  1097. When is it legal for an amateur licensee to provide communications on behalf of their employer during a government sponsored disaster drill or exercise?
  1098. A. Whenever the employer is a not-for-profit organization
  1099. B. Whenever there is a temporary need for the employer’s business continuity plan
  1100. C. Only when the FCC has granted a government-requested waiver
  1101. D. Only when the amateur is not receiving compensation from his employer for the activity
  1102. ~~
  1103.  
  1104.  
  1105. T2C04 (D)
  1106. What do RACES and ARES have in common?
  1107. A. They represent the two largest ham clubs in the United States
  1108. B. Both organizations broadcast road and weather traffic information
  1109. C. Neither may handle emergency traffic supporting public service agencies
  1110. D. Both organizations may provide communications during emergencies
  1111. ~~
  1112.  
  1113.  
  1114. T2C05 (B) [97.3(a)(37), 97.407 ]
  1115. What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service?
  1116. A. An emergency radio service organized by amateur operators
  1117. B. A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
  1118. C. A radio service organized to provide communications at civic events
  1119. D. A radio service organized by amateur operators to assist non-military persons
  1120. ~~
  1121.  
  1122.  
  1123. T2C06 (C)
  1124. Which of the following is common practice during net operations to get the immediate attention of the net control station when reporting an emergency?
  1125. A. Repeat the words SOS three times followed by the call sign of the reporting station
  1126. B. Press the push-to-talk button three times
  1127. C. Begin your transmission with “Priority” or “Emergency” followed by your call sign
  1128. D. Play a pre-recorded emergency alert tone followed by your call sign
  1129. ~~
  1130.  
  1131.  
  1132. T2C07 (C)
  1133. What should you do to minimize disruptions to an emergency traffic net once you have checked in?
  1134. A. Whenever the net frequency is quiet, announce your call sign and location
  1135. B. Move 5 kHz away from the net's frequency and use high power to ask other hams to keep clear of the net frequency
  1136. C. Do not transmit on the net frequency until asked to do so by the net control station
  1137. D. Wait until the net frequency is quiet, then ask for any emergency traffic for your area
  1138. ~~
  1139.  
  1140.  
  1141.  
  1142. T2C08 (A)
  1143. What is usually considered to be the most important job of an amateur operator when handling emergency traffic messages?
  1144. A. Passing messages exactly as written, spoken or as received
  1145. B. Estimating the number of people affected by the disaster
  1146. C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area
  1147. D. Broadcasting emergency information to the general public
  1148. ~~
  1149.  
  1150.  
  1151. T2C09 (B) [97.403]
  1152. When may an amateur station use any means of radio communications at its disposal for essential communications in connection with immediate safety of human life and protection of property?
  1153. A. Only when FEMA authorizes it by declaring an emergency
  1154. B. When normal communications systems are not available
  1155. C. Only when RACES authorizes it by declaring an emergency
  1156. D. Only when authorized by the local MARS program director
  1157. ~~
  1158.  
  1159.  
  1160. T2C10 (D)
  1161. What is the preamble in a formal traffic message?
  1162. A. The first paragraph of the message text
  1163. B. The message number
  1164. C. The priority handling indicator for the message
  1165. D. The information needed to track the message as it passes through the amateur radio traffic handling system
  1166. ~~
  1167.  
  1168.  
  1169. T2C11 (A)
  1170. What is meant by the term "check" in reference to a formal traffic message?
  1171. A. The check is a count of the number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
  1172. B. The check is the value of a money order attached to the message
  1173. C. The check is a list of stations that have relayed the message
  1174. D. The check is a box on the message form that tells you the message was received
  1175. ~~
  1176.  
  1177.  
  1178. SUBELEMENT T3 – Radio wave characteristics, radio and electromagnetic properties, propagation modes – [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
  1179.  
  1180. T3A - Radio wave characteristics; how a radio signal travels; distinctions of HF, VHF and UHF; fading, multipath; wavelength vs. penetration; antenna orientation
  1181.  
  1182. T3A01 (D)
  1183. What should you do if another operator reports that your station’s 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?
  1184. A. Change the batteries in your radio to a different type
  1185. B. Turn on the CTCSS tone
  1186. C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch control
  1187. D. Try moving a few feet, as random reflections may be causing multi-path distortion
  1188. ~~
  1189.  
  1190.  
  1191.  
  1192. T3A02 (B)
  1193. Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals?
  1194. A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance
  1195. B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings
  1196. C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside buildings
  1197. D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas
  1198. ~~
  1199.  
  1200.  
  1201. T3A03 (C)
  1202. What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?
  1203. A. Right-hand circular
  1204. B. Left-hand circular
  1205. C. Horizontal
  1206. D. Vertical
  1207. ~~
  1208.  
  1209.  
  1210. T3A04 (B)
  1211. What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?
  1212. A. The modulation sidebands might become inverted
  1213. B. Signals could be significantly weaker
  1214. C. Signals have an echo effect on voices
  1215. D. Nothing significant will happen
  1216. ~~
  1217.  
  1218.  
  1219. T3A05 (B)
  1220. When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
  1221. A. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
  1222. B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater
  1223. C. Try the long path
  1224. D. Increase the antenna SWR
  1225. ~~
  1226.  
  1227.  
  1228. T3A06 (B)
  1229. What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?
  1230. A. Flip-flopping
  1231. B. Picket fencing
  1232. C. Frequency shifting
  1233. D. Pulsing
  1234. ~~
  1235.  
  1236.  
  1237. T3A07 (A)
  1238. What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?
  1239. A. Electromagnetic
  1240. B. Electrostatic
  1241. C. Surface acoustic
  1242. D. Magnetostrictive
  1243. ~~
  1244.  
  1245.  
  1246.  
  1247. T3A08 (C)
  1248. What is the cause of irregular fading of signals from distant stations during times of generally good reception?
  1249. A. Absorption of signals by the "D" layer of the ionosphere
  1250. B. Absorption of signals by the "E" layer of the ionosphere
  1251. C. Random combining of signals arriving via different path lengths
  1252. D. Intermodulation distortion in the local receiver
  1253. ~~
  1254.  
  1255.  
  1256. T3A09 (B)
  1257. Which of the following is a common effect of "skip" reflections between the Earth and the ionosphere?
  1258. A. The sidebands become reversed at each reflection
  1259. B. The polarization of the original signal is randomized
  1260. C. The apparent frequency of the received signal is shifted by a random amount
  1261. D. Signals at frequencies above 30 MHz become stronger with each reflection
  1262. ~~
  1263.  
  1264.  
  1265. T3A10 (D)
  1266. What may occur if VHF or UHF data signals propagate over multiple paths?
  1267. A. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
  1268. B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
  1269. C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitting using FM
  1270. D. Error rates are likely to increase
  1271. ~~
  1272.  
  1273.  
  1274. T3A11 (C)
  1275. Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
  1276. A. The stratosphere
  1277. B. The troposphere
  1278. C. The ionosphere
  1279. D. The magnetosphere
  1280. ~~
  1281.  
  1282.  
  1283. T3B - Radio and electromagnetic wave properties; the electromagnetic spectrum, wavelength vs. frequency, velocity of electromagnetic waves
  1284.  
  1285. T3B01 (C)
  1286. What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?
  1287. A. Wave speed
  1288. B. Waveform
  1289. C. Wavelength
  1290. D. Wave spread
  1291. ~~
  1292.  
  1293.  
  1294. T3B02 (D)
  1295. What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction?
  1296. A. Pulse rate
  1297. B. Speed
  1298. C. Wavelength
  1299. D. Frequency
  1300. ~~
  1301.  
  1302.  
  1303. T3B03 (C)
  1304. What are the two components of a radio wave?
  1305. A. AC and DC
  1306. B. Voltage and current
  1307. C. Electric and magnetic fields
  1308. D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation
  1309. ~~
  1310.  
  1311.  
  1312. T3B04 (A)
  1313. How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?
  1314. A. At the speed of light
  1315. B. At the speed of sound
  1316. C. Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength
  1317. D. Its speed increases as the frequency increases
  1318. ~~
  1319.  
  1320.  
  1321. T3B05 (B)
  1322. How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?
  1323. A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases
  1324. B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases
  1325. C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency
  1326. D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal
  1327. ~~
  1328.  
  1329.  
  1330. T3B06 (D)
  1331. What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength in meters?
  1332. A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300
  1333. B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
  1334. C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300
  1335. D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz
  1336. ~~
  1337.  
  1338.  
  1339. T3B07 (A)
  1340. What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?
  1341. A. The approximate wavelength
  1342. B. The magnetic intensity of waves
  1343. C. The time it takes for waves to travel one mile
  1344. D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves
  1345. ~~
  1346.  
  1347.  
  1348. T3B08 (B)
  1349. What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?
  1350. A. 30 to 300 kHz
  1351. B. 30 to 300 MHz
  1352. C. 300 to 3000 kHz
  1353. D. 300 to 3000 MHz
  1354. ~~
  1355.  
  1356.  
  1357.  
  1358. T3B09 (D)
  1359. What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum?
  1360. A. 30 to 300 kHz
  1361. B. 30 to 300 MHz
  1362. C. 300 to 3000 kHz
  1363. D. 300 to 3000 MHz
  1364. ~~
  1365.  
  1366.  
  1367. T3B10 (C)
  1368. What frequency range is referred to as HF?
  1369. A. 300 to 3000 MHz
  1370. B. 30 to 300 MHz
  1371. C. 3 to 30 MHz
  1372. D. 300 to 3000 kHz
  1373. ~~
  1374.  
  1375.  
  1376. T3B11 (B)
  1377. What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?
  1378. A. 3000 kilometers per second
  1379. B. 300,000,000 meters per second
  1380. C. 300,000 miles per hour
  1381. D. 186,000 miles per hour
  1382. ~~
  1383.  
  1384.  
  1385. T3C - Propagation modes; line of sight, sporadic E, meteor, aurora scatter, tropospheric ducting, F layer skip, radio horizon
  1386.  
  1387. T3C01 (C)
  1388. Why are "direct" (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area?
  1389. A. They are too weak to go very far
  1390. B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles
  1391. C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere
  1392. D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out
  1393. ~~
  1394.  
  1395.  
  1396. T3C02 (D)
  1397. Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances?
  1398. A. Signals are being reflected from outer space
  1399. B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting
  1400. C. Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your area
  1401. D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer
  1402. ~~
  1403.  
  1404.  
  1405. T3C03 (B)
  1406. What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?
  1407. A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common
  1408. B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted
  1409. C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours
  1410. D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed to the south (for stations in the Northern Hemisphere)
  1411. ~~
  1412.  
  1413.  
  1414.  
  1415. T3C04 (B)
  1416. Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?
  1417. A. Backscatter
  1418. B. Sporadic E
  1419. C. D layer absorption
  1420. D. Gray-line propagation
  1421. ~~
  1422.  
  1423.  
  1424. T3C05 (C)
  1425. What is meant by the term "knife-edge" propagation?
  1426. A. Signals are reflected back toward the originating station at acute angles
  1427. B. Signals are sliced into several discrete beams and arrive via different paths
  1428. C. Signals are partially refracted around solid objects exhibiting sharp edges
  1429. D. Signals propagated close to the band edge exhibiting a sharp cutoff
  1430. ~~
  1431.  
  1432.  
  1433. T3C06 (A)
  1434. What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
  1435. A. Tropospheric scatter
  1436. B. D layer refraction
  1437. C. F2 layer refraction
  1438. D. Faraday rotation
  1439. ~~
  1440.  
  1441.  
  1442. T3C07 (B)
  1443. What band is best suited to communicating via meteor scatter?
  1444. A. 10 meters
  1445. B. 6 meters
  1446. C. 2 meters
  1447. D. 70 cm
  1448. ~~
  1449.  
  1450.  
  1451. T3C08 (D)
  1452. What causes "tropospheric ducting"?
  1453. A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
  1454. B. Sunspots and solar flares
  1455. C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
  1456. D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere
  1457. ~~
  1458.  
  1459.  
  1460. T3C09 (A)
  1461. What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation?
  1462. A. During daylight hours
  1463. B. During nighttime hours
  1464. C. When there are coronal mass ejections
  1465. D. Whenever the solar flux is low
  1466. ~~
  1467.  
  1468.  
  1469.  
  1470. T3C10 (A)
  1471. What is the radio horizon?
  1472. A. The distance at which radio signals between two points are effectively blocked by the curvature of the Earth
  1473. B. The distance from the ground to a horizontally mounted antenna
  1474. C. The farthest point you can see when standing at the base of your antenna tower
  1475. D. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface
  1476. ~~
  1477.  
  1478.  
  1479. T3C11 (C)
  1480. Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations?
  1481. A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light
  1482. B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles
  1483. C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light
  1484. D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles
  1485. ~~
  1486.  
  1487.  
  1488. SUBELEMENT T4 - Amateur radio practices and station set up – [2 Exam Questions - 2 Groups]
  1489.  
  1490. T4A – Station setup; microphone, speaker, headphones, filters, power source, connecting a computer, RF grounding
  1491.  
  1492. T4A01 (B)
  1493. Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers?
  1494. A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type
  1495. B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone
  1496. C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically
  1497. D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected
  1498. ~~
  1499.  
  1500.  
  1501. T4A02 (C)
  1502. What could be used in place of a regular speaker to help you copy signals in a noisy area?
  1503. A. A video display
  1504. B. A low pass filter
  1505. C. A set of headphones
  1506. D. A boom microphone
  1507. ~~
  1508.  
  1509.  
  1510. T4A03 (A)
  1511. Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications equipment?
  1512. A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits
  1513. B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval
  1514. C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the power
  1515. D. Power consumption is independent of load
  1516. ~~
  1517.  
  1518.  
  1519.  
  1520. T4A04 (A)
  1521. Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions?
  1522. A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
  1523. B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
  1524. C. At the station power supply
  1525. D. At the microphone
  1526. ~~
  1527.  
  1528.  
  1529. T4A05 (D)
  1530. What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from a nearby 2 meter transmitter?
  1531. A. Low-pass filter
  1532. B. High-pass filter
  1533. C. Band-pass filter
  1534. D. Band-reject filter
  1535. ~~
  1536.  
  1537.  
  1538. T4A06 (C)
  1539. Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
  1540. A. Transmatch
  1541. B. Mixer
  1542. C. Terminal node controller
  1543. D. Antenna
  1544. ~~
  1545.  
  1546.  
  1547. T4A07 (C)
  1548. How is the computer’s sound card used when conducting digital communications using a computer?
  1549. A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display
  1550. B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display
  1551. C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form
  1552. D. All of these choices are correct
  1553. ~~
  1554.  
  1555.  
  1556. T4A08 (D)
  1557. Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
  1558. A. Round stranded wire
  1559. B. Round copper-clad steel wire
  1560. C. Twisted-pair cable
  1561. D. Flat strap
  1562. ~~
  1563.  
  1564.  
  1565. T4A09 (D)
  1566. Which would you use to reduce RF current flowing on the shield of an audio cable?
  1567. A. Band-pass filter
  1568. B. Low-pass filter
  1569. C. Preamplifier
  1570. D. Ferrite choke
  1571. ~~
  1572.  
  1573.  
  1574.  
  1575. T4A10 (B)
  1576. What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver’s receive audio?
  1577. A. The ignition system
  1578. B. The alternator
  1579. C. The electric fuel pump
  1580. D. Anti-lock braking system controllers
  1581. ~~
  1582.  
  1583.  
  1584. T4A11 (A)
  1585. Where should a mobile transceiver’s power negative connection be made?
  1586. A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
  1587. B. At the antenna mount
  1588. C. To any metal part of the vehicle
  1589. D. Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket
  1590. ~~
  1591.  
  1592.  
  1593. T4B - Operating controls; tuning, use of filters, squelch, AGC, repeater offset, memory channels
  1594.  
  1595. T4B01 (B)
  1596. What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
  1597. A. The output power might be too high
  1598. B. The output signal might become distorted
  1599. C. The frequency might vary
  1600. D. The SWR might increase
  1601. ~~
  1602.  
  1603.  
  1604. T4B02 (A)
  1605. Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
  1606. A. The keypad or VFO knob
  1607. B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
  1608. C. The Automatic Frequency Control
  1609. D. All of these choices are correct
  1610. ~~
  1611.  
  1612.  
  1613. T4B03 (D)
  1614. What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
  1615. A. To set the highest level of volume desired
  1616. B. To set the transmitter power level
  1617. C. To adjust the automatic gain control
  1618. D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received
  1619. ~~
  1620.  
  1621.  
  1622. T4B04 (B)
  1623. What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver?
  1624. A. Enable the CTCSS tones
  1625. B. Store the frequency in a memory channel
  1626. C. Disable the CTCSS tones
  1627. D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency
  1628. ~~
  1629.  
  1630.  
  1631.  
  1632. T4B05 (C)
  1633. Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
  1634. A. Change frequency slightly
  1635. B. Decrease the squelch setting
  1636. C. Turn on the noise blanker
  1637. D. Use the RIT control
  1638. ~~
  1639.  
  1640.  
  1641. T4B06 (D)
  1642. Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?
  1643. A. The AGC or limiter
  1644. B. The bandwidth selection
  1645. C. The tone squelch
  1646. D. The receiver RIT or clarifier
  1647. ~~
  1648.  
  1649.  
  1650. T4B07 (B)
  1651. What does the term "RIT" mean?
  1652. A. Receiver Input Tone
  1653. B. Receiver Incremental Tuning
  1654. C. Rectifier Inverter Test
  1655. D. Remote Input Transmitter
  1656. ~~
  1657.  
  1658.  
  1659. T4B08 (B)
  1660. What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
  1661. A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
  1662. B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
  1663. C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
  1664. D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies
  1665. ~~
  1666.  
  1667.  
  1668. T4B09 (C)
  1669. Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception?
  1670. A. 500 Hz
  1671. B. 1000 Hz
  1672. C. 2400 Hz
  1673. D. 5000 Hz
  1674. ~~
  1675.  
  1676.  
  1677. T4B10 (A)
  1678. Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception?
  1679. A. 500 Hz
  1680. B. 1000 Hz
  1681. C. 2400 Hz
  1682. D. 5000 Hz
  1683. ~~
  1684.  
  1685.  
  1686.  
  1687. T4B11 (C)
  1688. Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term “repeater offset”?
  1689. A. The distance between the repeater’s transmit and receive antennas
  1690. B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets
  1691. C. The difference between the repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies
  1692. D. The maximum frequency deviation permitted on the repeater’s input signal
  1693. ~~
  1694.  
  1695.  
  1696. SUBELEMENT T5 – Electrical principles, math for electronics, electronic principles, Ohm’s Law – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  1697.  
  1698. T5A - Electrical principles; current and voltage, conductors and insulators, alternating and direct current
  1699.  
  1700. T5A01 (D)
  1701. Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
  1702. A. Volts
  1703. B. Watts
  1704. C. Ohms
  1705. D. Amperes
  1706. ~~
  1707.  
  1708.  
  1709. T5A02 (B)
  1710. Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
  1711. A. Volts
  1712. B. Watts
  1713. C. Ohms
  1714. D. Amperes
  1715. ~~
  1716.  
  1717. T5A03 (D)
  1718. What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
  1719. A. Voltage
  1720. B. Resistance
  1721. C. Capacitance
  1722. D. Current
  1723. ~~
  1724.  
  1725.  
  1726. T5A04 (B)
  1727. What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?
  1728. A. Alternating current
  1729. B. Direct current
  1730. C. Normal current
  1731. D. Smooth current
  1732. ~~
  1733.  
  1734.  
  1735. T5A05 (A)
  1736. What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
  1737. A. Voltage
  1738. B. Ampere-hours
  1739. C. Capacitance
  1740. D. Inductance
  1741. ~~
  1742.  
  1743.  
  1744.  
  1745. T5A06 (A)
  1746. How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?
  1747. A. About 12 volts
  1748. B. About 30 volts
  1749. C. About 120 volts
  1750. D. About 240 volts
  1751. ~~
  1752.  
  1753.  
  1754. T5A07 (C)
  1755. Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
  1756. A. Glass
  1757. B. Wood
  1758. C. Copper
  1759. D. Rubber
  1760. ~~
  1761.  
  1762.  
  1763. T5A08 (B)
  1764. Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
  1765. A. Copper
  1766. B. Glass
  1767. C. Aluminum
  1768. D. Mercury
  1769. ~~
  1770.  
  1771.  
  1772. T5A09 (A)
  1773. What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
  1774. A. Alternating current
  1775. B. Direct current
  1776. C. Circular current
  1777. D. Vertical current
  1778. ~~
  1779.  
  1780. T5A10 (C)
  1781. Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
  1782. A. Resistance
  1783. B. Current
  1784. C. Power
  1785. D. Voltage
  1786. ~~
  1787.  
  1788.  
  1789. T5A11 (A)
  1790. What is the basic unit of electromotive force?
  1791. A. The volt
  1792. B. The watt
  1793. C. The ampere
  1794. D. The ohm
  1795. ~~
  1796.  
  1797.  
  1798.  
  1799. T5B - Math for electronics; decibels, electrical units and the metric system
  1800.  
  1801. T5B01 (C)
  1802. How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
  1803. A. 15 milliamperes
  1804. B. 150 milliamperes
  1805. C. 1,500 milliamperes
  1806. D. 15,000 milliamperes
  1807. ~~
  1808.  
  1809.  
  1810. T5B02 (A)
  1811. What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?
  1812. A. 1500 kHz
  1813. B. 1500 MHz
  1814. C. 15 GHz
  1815. D. 150 kHz
  1816. ~~
  1817.  
  1818.  
  1819. T5B03 (C)
  1820. How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?
  1821. A. One one-thousandth of a volt
  1822. B. One hundred volts
  1823. C. One thousand volts
  1824. D. One million volts
  1825. ~~
  1826.  
  1827.  
  1828. T5B04 (A)
  1829. How many volts are equal to one microvolt?
  1830. A. One one-millionth of a volt
  1831. B. One million volts
  1832. C. One thousand kilovolts
  1833. D. One one-thousandth of a volt
  1834. ~~
  1835.  
  1836.  
  1837. T5B05 (B)
  1838. Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
  1839. A. 0.02 watts
  1840. B. 0.5 watts
  1841. C. 5 watts
  1842. D. 50 watts
  1843. ~~
  1844.  
  1845.  
  1846. T5B06 (C)
  1847. If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?
  1848. A. 0.003 amperes
  1849. B. 0.3 amperes
  1850. C. 3 amperes
  1851. D. 3,000,000 amperes
  1852. ~~
  1853.  
  1854.  
  1855.  
  1856. T5B07 (C)
  1857. If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?
  1858. A. 0.003525 kHz
  1859. B. 35.25 kHz
  1860. C. 3525 kHz
  1861. D. 3,525,000 kHz
  1862. ~~
  1863.  
  1864.  
  1865. T5B08 (B)
  1866. How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads?
  1867. A. 0.001 microfarads
  1868. B. 1 microfarad
  1869. C. 1000 microfarads
  1870. D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads
  1871. ~~
  1872.  
  1873.  
  1874. T5B09 (B)
  1875. What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
  1876. A. 2 dB
  1877. B. 3 dB
  1878. C. 5 dB
  1879. D. 10 dB
  1880. ~~
  1881.  
  1882.  
  1883. T5B10 (C)
  1884. What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
  1885. A. 1 dB
  1886. B. 3 dB
  1887. C. 6 dB
  1888. D. 9 dB
  1889. ~~
  1890.  
  1891.  
  1892. T5B11 (A)
  1893. What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
  1894. A. 10 dB
  1895. B. 12 dB
  1896. C. 18 dB
  1897. D. 28 dB
  1898. ~~
  1899.  
  1900.  
  1901.  
  1902. T5C - Electronic principles; capacitance, inductance, current flow in circuits, alternating current, definition of RF, power calculations
  1903.  
  1904. T5C01 (D)
  1905. What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
  1906. A. Inductance
  1907. B. Resistance
  1908. C. Tolerance
  1909. D. Capacitance
  1910. ~~
  1911.  
  1912.  
  1913. T5C02 (A)
  1914. What is the basic unit of capacitance?
  1915. A. The farad
  1916. B. The ohm
  1917. C. The volt
  1918. D. The henry
  1919. ~~
  1920.  
  1921.  
  1922. T5C03 (D)
  1923. What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
  1924. A. Admittance
  1925. B. Capacitance
  1926. C. Resistance
  1927. D. Inductance
  1928. ~~
  1929.  
  1930.  
  1931. T5C04 (C)
  1932. What is the basic unit of inductance?
  1933. A. The coulomb
  1934. B. The farad
  1935. C. The henry
  1936. D. The ohm
  1937. ~~
  1938.  
  1939.  
  1940. T5C05 (A)
  1941. What is the unit of frequency?
  1942. A. Hertz
  1943. B. Henry
  1944. C. Farad
  1945. D. Tesla
  1946. ~~
  1947.  
  1948.  
  1949. T5C06 (C)
  1950. What is the abbreviation that refers to radio frequency signals of all types?
  1951. A. AF
  1952. B. HF
  1953. C. RF
  1954. D. VHF
  1955. ~~
  1956.  
  1957.  
  1958.  
  1959. T5C07 (C)
  1960. What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?
  1961. A. Gravity waves
  1962. B. Sound waves
  1963. C. Radio waves
  1964. D. Pressure waves
  1965. ~~
  1966.  
  1967.  
  1968. T5C08 (A)
  1969. What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?
  1970. A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
  1971. B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
  1972. C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
  1973. D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I)
  1974. ~~
  1975.  
  1976.  
  1977. T5C09 (A)
  1978. How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?
  1979. A. 138 watts
  1980. B. 0.7 watts
  1981. C. 23.8 watts
  1982. D. 3.8 watts
  1983. ~~
  1984.  
  1985.  
  1986. T5C10 (B)
  1987. How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
  1988. A. 4.8 watts
  1989. B. 30 watts
  1990. C. 14.5 watts
  1991. D. 0.208 watts
  1992. ~~
  1993.  
  1994.  
  1995. T5C11 (B)
  1996. How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts?
  1997. A. 0.1 amperes
  1998. B. 10 amperes
  1999. C. 12 amperes
  2000. D. 132 amperes
  2001. ~~
  2002.  
  2003.  
  2004. T5D – Ohm’s Law
  2005.  
  2006. T5D01 (B)
  2007. What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
  2008. A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R)
  2009. B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)
  2010. C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R)
  2011. D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R)
  2012. ~~
  2013.  
  2014.  
  2015.  
  2016. T5D02 (A)
  2017. What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
  2018. A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R)
  2019. B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by resistance (R)
  2020. C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to resistance (R)
  2021. D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus resistance (R)
  2022. ~~
  2023.  
  2024.  
  2025. T5D03 (B)
  2026. What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
  2027. A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)
  2028. B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)
  2029. C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I)
  2030. D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I)
  2031. ~~
  2032.  
  2033.  
  2034. T5D04 (B)
  2035. What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts?
  2036. A. 3 ohms
  2037. B. 30 ohms
  2038. C. 93 ohms
  2039. D. 270 ohms
  2040. ~~
  2041.  
  2042.  
  2043. T5D05 (C)
  2044. What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
  2045. A. 18 ohms
  2046. B. 0.125 ohms
  2047. C. 8 ohms
  2048. D. 13.5 ohms
  2049. ~~
  2050.  
  2051.  
  2052. T5D06 (A)
  2053. What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
  2054. A. 3 ohms
  2055. B. 16 ohms
  2056. C. 48 ohms
  2057. D. 8 Ohms
  2058. ~~
  2059.  
  2060.  
  2061. T5D07 (D)
  2062. What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?
  2063. A. 9600 amperes
  2064. B. 200 amperes
  2065. C. 0.667 amperes
  2066. D. 1.5 amperes
  2067. ~~
  2068.  
  2069.  
  2070.  
  2071. T5D08 (C)
  2072. What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
  2073. A. 20,000 amperes
  2074. B. 0.5 amperes
  2075. C. 2 amperes
  2076. D. 100 amperes
  2077. ~~
  2078.  
  2079.  
  2080. T5D09 (C)
  2081. What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?
  2082. A. 24,000 amperes
  2083. B. 0.1 amperes
  2084. C. 10 amperes
  2085. D. 216 amperes
  2086. ~~
  2087.  
  2088.  
  2089. T5D10 (A)
  2090. What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
  2091. A. 1 volt
  2092. B. 0.25 volts
  2093. C. 2.5 volts
  2094. D. 1.5 volts
  2095. ~~
  2096.  
  2097.  
  2098. T5D11 (B)
  2099. What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?
  2100. A. 1 volt
  2101. B. 10 volts
  2102. C. 11 volts
  2103. D. 9 volts
  2104. ~~
  2105.  
  2106.  
  2107. T5D12 (D)
  2108. What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
  2109. A. 8 volts
  2110. B. 0.2 volts
  2111. C. 12 volts
  2112. D. 20 volts
  2113. ~~
  2114.  
  2115.  
  2116. SUBELEMENT T6 – Electrical components, semiconductors, circuit diagrams, component functions – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  2117.  
  2118. T6A - Electrical components; fixed and variable resistors, capacitors, and inductors; fuses, switches, batteries
  2119.  
  2120. T6A01 (B)
  2121. What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?
  2122. A. Inductor
  2123. B. Resistor
  2124. C. Voltmeter
  2125. D. Transformer
  2126. ~~
  2127.  
  2128.  
  2129. T6A02 (C)
  2130. What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?
  2131. A. Fixed resistor
  2132. B. Power resistor
  2133. C. Potentiometer
  2134. D. Transformer
  2135. ~~
  2136.  
  2137.  
  2138. T6A03 (B)
  2139. What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?
  2140. A. Inductance
  2141. B. Resistance
  2142. C. Capacitance
  2143. D. Field strength
  2144. ~~
  2145.  
  2146.  
  2147. T6A04 (B)
  2148. What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?
  2149. A. Resistor
  2150. B. Capacitor
  2151. C. Inductor
  2152. D. Diode
  2153. ~~
  2154.  
  2155.  
  2156. T6A05 (D)
  2157. What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
  2158. A. Resistor
  2159. B. Potentiometer
  2160. C. Oscillator
  2161. D. Capacitor
  2162. ~~
  2163.  
  2164.  
  2165. T6A06 (C)
  2166. What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
  2167. A. Resistor
  2168. B. Capacitor
  2169. C. Inductor
  2170. D. Diode
  2171. ~~
  2172.  
  2173.  
  2174. T6A07 (D)
  2175. What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?
  2176. A. Switch
  2177. B. Capacitor
  2178. C. Diode
  2179. D. Inductor
  2180. ~~
  2181.  
  2182.  
  2183.  
  2184. T6A08 (B)
  2185. What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?
  2186. A. Zener Diode
  2187. B. Switch
  2188. C. Inductor
  2189. D. Variable resistor
  2190. ~~
  2191.  
  2192.  
  2193. T6A09 (A)
  2194. What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?
  2195. A. Fuse
  2196. B. Capacitor
  2197. C. Shield
  2198. D. Inductor
  2199. ~~
  2200.  
  2201.  
  2202. T6A10 (B)
  2203. What is the nominal voltage of a fully charged nickel-cadmium cell?
  2204. A. 1.0 volts
  2205. B. 1.2 volts
  2206. C. 1.5 volts
  2207. D. 2.2 volts
  2208. ~~
  2209.  
  2210.  
  2211. T6A11 (B)
  2212. Which battery type is not rechargeable?
  2213. A. Nickel-cadmium
  2214. B. Carbon-zinc
  2215. C. Lead-acid
  2216. D. Lithium-ion
  2217. ~~
  2218.  
  2219.  
  2220. T6B – Semiconductors; basic principles of diodes and transistors
  2221.  
  2222. T6B01 (D)
  2223. What class of electronic components is capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current flow?
  2224. A. Capacitors
  2225. B. Inductors
  2226. C. Resistors
  2227. D. Transistors
  2228. ~~
  2229.  
  2230.  
  2231. T6B02 (C)
  2232. What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?
  2233. A. Resistor
  2234. B. Fuse
  2235. C. Diode
  2236. D. Driven Element
  2237. ~~
  2238.  
  2239.  
  2240.  
  2241. T6B03 (C)
  2242. Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier?
  2243. A. Oscillator
  2244. B. Potentiometer
  2245. C. Transistor
  2246. D. Voltmeter
  2247. ~~
  2248.  
  2249.  
  2250. T6B04 (B)
  2251. Which of these components is made of three layers of semiconductor material?
  2252. A. Alternator
  2253. B. Bipolar junction transistor
  2254. C. Triode
  2255. D. Pentagrid converter
  2256. ~~
  2257.  
  2258.  
  2259. T6B05 (A)
  2260. Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals?
  2261. A. Transistor
  2262. B. Variable resistor
  2263. C. Electrolytic capacitor
  2264. D. Multi-cell battery
  2265. ~~
  2266.  
  2267.  
  2268. T6B06 (B)
  2269. How is a semiconductor diode’s cathode lead usually identified?
  2270. A. With the word "cathode"
  2271. B. With a stripe
  2272. C. With the letter "C"
  2273. D. All of these choices are correct
  2274. ~~
  2275.  
  2276.  
  2277. T6B07 (B)
  2278. What does the abbreviation "LED" stand for?
  2279. A. Low Emission Diode
  2280. B. Light Emitting Diode
  2281. C. Liquid Emission Detector
  2282. D. Long Echo Delay
  2283. ~~
  2284.  
  2285.  
  2286. T6B08 (A)
  2287. What does the abbreviation "FET" stand for?
  2288. A. Field Effect Transistor
  2289. B. Fast Electron Transistor
  2290. C. Free Electron Transition
  2291. D. Field Emission Thickness
  2292. ~~
  2293.  
  2294.  
  2295. T6B09 (C)
  2296. What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?
  2297. A. Plus and minus
  2298. B. Source and drain
  2299. C. Anode and cathode
  2300. D. Gate and base
  2301. ~~
  2302.  
  2303.  
  2304. T6B10 (A)
  2305. Which semiconductor component has an emitter electrode?
  2306. A. Bipolar transistor
  2307. B. Field effect transistor
  2308. C. Silicon diode
  2309. D. Bridge rectifier
  2310. ~~
  2311.  
  2312.  
  2313. T6B11 (B)
  2314. Which semiconductor component has a gate electrode?
  2315. A. Bipolar transistor
  2316. B. Field effect transistor
  2317. C. Silicon diode
  2318. D. Bridge rectifier
  2319. ~~
  2320.  
  2321.  
  2322. T6B12 (A)
  2323. What is the term that describes a transistor's ability to amplify a signal?
  2324. A. Gain
  2325. B. Forward resistance
  2326. C. Forward voltage drop
  2327. D. On resistance
  2328. ~~
  2329.  
  2330.  
  2331. T6C - Circuit diagrams; schematic symbols
  2332.  
  2333. T6C01 (C)
  2334. What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram?
  2335. A. Electrical depictions
  2336. B. Grey sketch
  2337. C. Schematic symbols
  2338. D. Component callouts
  2339. ~~
  2340.  
  2341.  
  2342. T6C02 (A)
  2343. What is component 1 in figure T1?
  2344. A. Resistor
  2345. B. Transistor
  2346. C. Battery
  2347. D. Connector
  2348. ~~
  2349.  
  2350.  
  2351. T6C03 (B)
  2352. What is component 2 in figure T1?
  2353. A. Resistor
  2354. B. Transistor
  2355. C. Indicator lamp
  2356. D. Connector
  2357. ~~
  2358.  
  2359.  
  2360.  
  2361. T6C04 (C)
  2362. What is component 3 in figure T1?
  2363. A. Resistor
  2364. B. Transistor
  2365. C. Lamp
  2366. D. Ground symbol
  2367. ~~
  2368.  
  2369.  
  2370. T6C05 (C)
  2371. What is component 4 in figure T1?
  2372. A. Resistor
  2373. B. Transistor
  2374. C. Battery
  2375. D. Ground symbol
  2376. ~~
  2377.  
  2378.  
  2379. T6C06 (B)
  2380. What is component 6 in figure T2?
  2381. A. Resistor
  2382. B. Capacitor
  2383. C. Regulator IC
  2384. D. Transistor
  2385. ~~
  2386.  
  2387.  
  2388. T6C07 (D)
  2389. What is component 8 in figure T2?
  2390. A. Resistor
  2391. B. Inductor
  2392. C. Regulator IC
  2393. D. Light emitting diode
  2394. ~~
  2395.  
  2396.  
  2397. T6C08 (C)
  2398. What is component 9 in figure T2?
  2399. A. Variable capacitor
  2400. B. Variable inductor
  2401. C. Variable resistor
  2402. D. Variable transformer
  2403. ~~
  2404.  
  2405.  
  2406. T6C09 (D)
  2407. What is component 4 in figure T2?
  2408. A. Variable inductor
  2409. B. Double-pole switch
  2410. C. Potentiometer
  2411. D. Transformer
  2412. ~~
  2413.  
  2414.  
  2415.  
  2416. T6C10 (D)
  2417. What is component 3 in figure T3?
  2418. A. Connector
  2419. B. Meter
  2420. C. Variable capacitor
  2421. D. Variable inductor
  2422. ~~
  2423.  
  2424.  
  2425. T6C11 (A)
  2426. What is component 4 in figure T3?
  2427. A. Antenna
  2428. B. Transmitter
  2429. C. Dummy load
  2430. D. Ground
  2431. ~~
  2432.  
  2433.  
  2434. T6C12 (A)
  2435. What do the symbols on an electrical circuit schematic diagram represent?
  2436. A. Electrical components
  2437. B. Logic states
  2438. C. Digital codes
  2439. D. Traffic nodes
  2440. ~~
  2441.  
  2442.  
  2443. T6C13 (C)
  2444. Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams?
  2445. A. Wire lengths
  2446. B. Physical appearance of components
  2447. C. The way components are interconnected
  2448. D. All of these choices are correct
  2449. ~~
  2450.  
  2451. T6D - Component functions
  2452.  
  2453. T6D01 (B)
  2454. Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
  2455. A. Transformer
  2456. B. Rectifier
  2457. C. Amplifier
  2458. D. Reflector
  2459. ~~
  2460.  
  2461.  
  2462. T6D02 (A)
  2463. What best describes a relay?
  2464. A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet
  2465. B. A current controlled amplifier
  2466. C. An optical sensor
  2467. D. A pass transistor
  2468. ~~
  2469.  
  2470.  
  2471.  
  2472. T6D03 (A)
  2473. What type of switch is represented by item 3 in figure T2?
  2474. A. Single-pole single-throw
  2475. B. Single-pole double-throw
  2476. C. Double-pole single-throw
  2477. D. Double-pole double-throw
  2478. ~~
  2479.  
  2480.  
  2481. T6D04 (C)
  2482. Which of the following can be used to display signal strength on a numeric scale?
  2483. A. Potentiometer
  2484. B. Transistor
  2485. C. Meter
  2486. D. Relay
  2487. ~~
  2488.  
  2489.  
  2490. T6D05 (A)
  2491. What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?
  2492. A. Regulator
  2493. B. Oscillator
  2494. C. Filter
  2495. D. Phase inverter
  2496. ~~
  2497.  
  2498.  
  2499. T6D06 (B)
  2500. What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
  2501. A. Variable capacitor
  2502. B. Transformer
  2503. C. Transistor
  2504. D. Diode
  2505. ~~
  2506.  
  2507.  
  2508. T6D07 (A)
  2509. Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?
  2510. A. LED
  2511. B. FET
  2512. C. Zener diode
  2513. D. Bipolar transistor
  2514. ~~
  2515.  
  2516.  
  2517. T6D08 (D)
  2518. Which of the following is used together with an inductor to make a tuned circuit?
  2519. A. Resistor
  2520. B. Zener diode
  2521. C. Potentiometer
  2522. D. Capacitor
  2523. ~~
  2524.  
  2525.  
  2526.  
  2527. T6D09 (C)
  2528. What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
  2529. A. Transducer
  2530. B. Multi-pole relay
  2531. C. Integrated circuit
  2532. D. Transformer
  2533. ~~
  2534.  
  2535.  
  2536. T6D10 (C)
  2537. What is the function of component 2 in Figure T1?
  2538. A. Give off light when current flows through it
  2539. B. Supply electrical energy
  2540. C. Control the flow of current
  2541. D. Convert electrical energy into radio waves
  2542. ~~
  2543.  
  2544.  
  2545. T6D11 (B)
  2546. Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable?
  2547. A. Carry dc power from a vehicle battery to a mobile radio
  2548. B. Carry RF signals between a radio and antenna
  2549. C. Secure masts, tubing, and other cylindrical objects on towers
  2550. D. Connect data signals from a TNC to a computer
  2551. ~~
  2552.  
  2553.  
  2554. SUBELEMENT T7 – Station equipment; common transmitter and receiver problems, antenna measurements and troubleshooting, basic repair and testing – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  2555.  
  2556. T7A - Station radios; receivers, transmitters, transceivers
  2557.  
  2558. T7A01 (C)
  2559. What is the function of a product detector?
  2560. A. Detect phase modulated signals
  2561. B. Demodulate FM signals
  2562. C. Detect CW and SSB signals
  2563. D. Combine speech and RF signals
  2564. ~~
  2565.  
  2566.  
  2567. T7A02 (C)
  2568. What type of receiver is shown in Figure T6?
  2569. A. Direct conversion
  2570. B. Super-regenerative
  2571. C. Single-conversion superheterodyne
  2572. D. Dual-conversion superheterodyne
  2573. ~~
  2574.  
  2575.  
  2576. T7A03 (C)
  2577. What is the function of a mixer in a superheterodyne receiver?
  2578. A. To reject signals outside of the desired passband
  2579. B. To combine signals from several stations together
  2580. C. To shift the incoming signal to an intermediate frequency
  2581. D. To connect the receiver with an auxiliary device, such as a TNC
  2582. ~~
  2583.  
  2584.  
  2585. T7A04 (D)
  2586. What circuit is pictured in Figure T7, if block 1 is a frequency discriminator?
  2587. A. A double-conversion receiver
  2588. B. A regenerative receiver
  2589. C. A superheterodyne receiver
  2590. D. An FM receiver
  2591. ~~
  2592.  
  2593.  
  2594. T7A05 (D)
  2595. What is the function of block 1 if figure T4 is a simple CW transmitter?
  2596. A. Reactance modulator
  2597. B. Product detector
  2598. C. Low-pass filter
  2599. D. Oscillator
  2600. ~~
  2601.  
  2602.  
  2603. T7A06 (C)
  2604. What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
  2605. A. High-pass filter
  2606. B. Low-pass filter
  2607. C. Transverter
  2608. D. Phase converter
  2609. ~~
  2610.  
  2611.  
  2612. T7A07 (B)
  2613. If figure T5 represents a transceiver in which block 1 is the transmitter portion and block 3 is the receiver portion, what is the function of block 2?
  2614. A. A balanced modulator
  2615. B. A transmit-receive switch
  2616. C. A power amplifier
  2617. D. A high-pass filter
  2618. ~~
  2619.  
  2620.  
  2621. T7A08 (C)
  2622. Which of the following circuits combines a speech signal and an RF carrier?
  2623. A. Beat frequency oscillator
  2624. B. Discriminator
  2625. C. Modulator
  2626. D. Noise blanker
  2627. ~~
  2628.  
  2629.  
  2630. T7A09 (B)
  2631. Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF weak-signal communication?
  2632. A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
  2633. B. A multi-mode VHF transceiver
  2634. C. An omni-directional antenna
  2635. D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver
  2636. ~~
  2637.  
  2638.  
  2639.  
  2640. T7A10 (B)
  2641. What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?
  2642. A. A voltage divider
  2643. B. An RF power amplifier
  2644. C. An impedance network
  2645. D. A voltage regulator
  2646. ~~
  2647.  
  2648.  
  2649. T7A11 (B)
  2650. Which of the following circuits demodulates FM signals?
  2651. A. Limiter
  2652. B. Discriminator
  2653. C. Product detector
  2654. D. Phase inverter
  2655. ~~
  2656.  
  2657.  
  2658. T7A12 (C)
  2659. Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?
  2660. A. Tuning rate
  2661. B. Sensitivity
  2662. C. Selectivity
  2663. D. Noise floor
  2664. ~~
  2665.  
  2666.  
  2667. T7A13 (A)
  2668. Where is an RF preamplifier installed?
  2669. A. Between the antenna and receiver
  2670. B. At the output of the transmitter's power amplifier
  2671. C. Between a transmitter and antenna tuner
  2672. D. At the receiver's audio output
  2673. ~~
  2674.  
  2675.  
  2676. T7B – Common transmitter and receiver problems; symptoms of overload and overdrive, distortion, interference, over and under modulation, RF feedback, off frequency signals; fading and noise; problems with digital communications interfaces
  2677.  
  2678. T7B01 (D)
  2679. What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over deviating?
  2680. A. Talk louder into the microphone
  2681. B. Let the transceiver cool off
  2682. C. Change to a higher power level
  2683. D. Talk farther away from the microphone
  2684. ~~
  2685.  
  2686.  
  2687. T7B02 (C)
  2688. What is meant by fundamental overload in reference to a receiver?
  2689. A. Too much voltage from the power supply
  2690. B. Too much current from the power supply
  2691. C. Interference caused by very strong signals
  2692. D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high
  2693. ~~
  2694.  
  2695.  
  2696.  
  2697. T7B03 (D)
  2698. Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference?
  2699. A. Fundamental overload
  2700. B. Harmonics
  2701. C. Spurious emissions
  2702. D. All of these choices are correct
  2703. ~~
  2704.  
  2705.  
  2706. T7B04 (B)
  2707. What is the most likely cause of interference to a non-cordless telephone from a nearby transmitter?
  2708. A. Harmonics from the transmitter
  2709. B. The telephone is inadvertently acting as a radio receiver
  2710. C. Poor station grounding
  2711. D. Improper transmitter adjustment
  2712. ~~
  2713.  
  2714.  
  2715. T7B05 (C)
  2716. What is a logical first step when attempting to cure a radio frequency interference problem in a nearby telephone?
  2717. A. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter
  2718. B. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter
  2719. C. Install an RF filter at the telephone
  2720. D. Improve station grounding
  2721. ~~
  2722.  
  2723.  
  2724. T7B06 (A)
  2725. What should you do first if someone tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
  2726. A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own television
  2727. B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance
  2728. C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference
  2729. D. Continue operating normally because your equipment cannot possibly cause any interference
  2730. ~~
  2731.  
  2732.  
  2733. T7B07 (D)
  2734. Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem?
  2735. A. Snap-on ferrite chokes
  2736. B. Low-pass and high-pass filters
  2737. C. Band-reject and band-pass filters
  2738. D. All of these choices are correct
  2739. ~~
  2740.  
  2741.  
  2742.  
  2743. T7B08 (D)
  2744. What should you do if a "Part 15" device in your neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
  2745. A. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
  2746. B. Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that require him to stop using the device if it causes interference
  2747. C. Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice
  2748. D. All of these choices are correct
  2749. ~~
  2750.  
  2751.  
  2752. T7B09 (D)
  2753. What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter?
  2754. A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
  2755. B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
  2756. C. You need to adjust your squelch control
  2757. D. Noise on the vehicle’s electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio
  2758. ~~
  2759.  
  2760.  
  2761. T7B10 (D)
  2762. What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?
  2763. A. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency
  2764. B. Your batteries may be running low
  2765. C. You could be in a bad location
  2766. D. All of these choices are correct
  2767. ~~
  2768.  
  2769.  
  2770. T7B11 (C)
  2771. What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?
  2772. A. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection
  2773. B. The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency
  2774. C. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible transmissions
  2775. D. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses
  2776. ~~
  2777.  
  2778.  
  2779. T7B12 (C)
  2780. What does the acronym "BER" mean when applied to digital communications systems?
  2781. A. Baud Enhancement Recovery
  2782. B. Baud Error Removal
  2783. C. Bit Error Rate
  2784. D. Bit Exponent Resource
  2785. ~~
  2786.  
  2787.  
  2788. T7C – Antenna measurements and troubleshooting; measuring SWR, dummy loads, feedline failure modes
  2789.  
  2790. T7C01 (A)
  2791. What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
  2792. A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests
  2793. B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter
  2794. C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
  2795. D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver
  2796. ~~
  2797.  
  2798.  
  2799. T7C02 (B)
  2800. Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
  2801. A. A VTVM
  2802. B. An antenna analyzer
  2803. C. A "Q" meter
  2804. D. A frequency counter
  2805. ~~
  2806.  
  2807.  
  2808. T7C03 (A)
  2809. What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
  2810. A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line
  2811. B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a feedline
  2812. C. The transmitter efficiency ratio
  2813. D. An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection
  2814. ~~
  2815.  
  2816.  
  2817. T7C04 (C)
  2818. What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feedline?
  2819. A. 2 to 1
  2820. B. 1 to 3
  2821. C. 1 to 1
  2822. D. 10 to 1
  2823. ~~
  2824.  
  2825.  
  2826. T7C05 (A)
  2827. What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
  2828. A. 2 to 1
  2829. B. 1 to 2
  2830. C. 6 to 1
  2831. D. 10 to 1
  2832. ~~
  2833.  
  2834.  
  2835. T7C06 (D)
  2836. What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean?
  2837. A. An antenna loss of 4 dB
  2838. B. A good impedance match
  2839. C. An antenna gain of 4
  2840. D. An impedance mismatch
  2841. ~~
  2842.  
  2843.  
  2844. T7C07 (C)
  2845. What happens to power lost in a feedline?
  2846. A. It increases the SWR
  2847. B. It comes back into your transmitter and could cause damage
  2848. C. It is converted into heat
  2849. D. It can cause distortion of your signal
  2850. ~~
  2851.  
  2852.  
  2853.  
  2854. T7C08 (D)
  2855. What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feedline and antenna are properly matched?
  2856. A. Voltmeter
  2857. B. Ohmmeter
  2858. C. Iambic pentameter
  2859. D. Directional wattmeter
  2860. ~~
  2861.  
  2862.  
  2863. T7C09 (A)
  2864. Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?
  2865. A. Moisture contamination
  2866. B. Gamma rays
  2867. C. The velocity factor exceeds 1.0
  2868. D. Overloading
  2869. ~~
  2870.  
  2871.  
  2872. T7C10 (D)
  2873. Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
  2874. A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
  2875. B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket
  2876. C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference
  2877. D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable
  2878. ~~
  2879.  
  2880.  
  2881. T7C11 (C)
  2882. What is a disadvantage of "air core" coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
  2883. A. It has more loss per foot
  2884. B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
  2885. C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption
  2886. D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures
  2887. ~~
  2888.  
  2889.  
  2890. T7D – Basic repair and testing; soldering, use of a voltmeter, ammeter, and ohmmeter
  2891.  
  2892. T7D01 (B)
  2893. Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?
  2894. A. An ammeter
  2895. B. A voltmeter
  2896. C. A wavemeter
  2897. D. An ohmmeter
  2898. ~~
  2899.  
  2900.  
  2901. T7D02 (B)
  2902. What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit?
  2903. A. In series with the circuit
  2904. B. In parallel with the circuit
  2905. C. In quadrature with the circuit
  2906. D. In phase with the circuit
  2907. ~~
  2908.  
  2909.  
  2910.  
  2911. T7D03 (A)
  2912. How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit?
  2913. A. In series with the circuit
  2914. B. In parallel with the circuit
  2915. C. In quadrature with the circuit
  2916. D. In phase with the circuit
  2917. ~~
  2918.  
  2919.  
  2920. T7D04 (D)
  2921. Which instrument is used to measure electric current?
  2922. A. An ohmmeter
  2923. B. A wavemeter
  2924. C. A voltmeter
  2925. D. An ammeter
  2926. ~~
  2927.  
  2928.  
  2929. T7D05 (D)
  2930. What instrument is used to measure resistance?
  2931. A. An oscilloscope
  2932. B. A spectrum analyzer
  2933. C. A noise bridge
  2934. D. An ohmmeter
  2935. ~~
  2936.  
  2937.  
  2938. T7D06 (C)
  2939. Which of the following might damage a multimeter?
  2940. A. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale
  2941. B. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight
  2942. C. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting
  2943. D. Not allowing it to warm up properly
  2944. ~~
  2945.  
  2946.  
  2947. T7D07 (D)
  2948. Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter?
  2949. A. SWR and RF power
  2950. B. Signal strength and noise
  2951. C. Impedance and reactance
  2952. D. Voltage and resistance
  2953. ~~
  2954.  
  2955.  
  2956. T7D08 (C)
  2957. Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?
  2958. A. Acid-core solder
  2959. B. Silver solder
  2960. C. Rosin-core solder
  2961. D. Aluminum solder
  2962. ~~
  2963.  
  2964.  
  2965. T7D09 (C)
  2966. What is the characteristic appearance of a "cold" solder joint?
  2967. A. Dark black spots
  2968. B. A bright or shiny surface
  2969. C. A grainy or dull surface
  2970. D. A greenish tint
  2971. ~~
  2972.  
  2973.  
  2974. T7D10 (B)
  2975. What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across a circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
  2976. A. The ohmmeter is defective
  2977. B. The circuit contains a large capacitor
  2978. C. The circuit contains a large inductor
  2979. D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator
  2980. ~~
  2981.  
  2982.  
  2983. T7D11 (B)
  2984. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
  2985. A. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
  2986. B. Ensure that the circuit is not powered
  2987. C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded
  2988. D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency
  2989. ~~
  2990.  
  2991.  
  2992. SUBELEMENT T8 – Modulation modes; amateur satellite operation, operating activities, non-voice communications – [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups]
  2993.  
  2994. T8A – Modulation modes; bandwidth of various signals
  2995.  
  2996. T8A01 (C)
  2997. Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?
  2998. A. Spread-spectrum
  2999. B. Packet radio
  3000. C. Single sideband
  3001. D. Phase shift keying
  3002. ~~
  3003.  
  3004.  
  3005. T8A02 (A)
  3006. What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
  3007. A. FM
  3008. B. SSB
  3009. C. AM
  3010. D. Spread Spectrum
  3011. ~~
  3012.  
  3013.  
  3014. T8A03 (C)
  3015. Which type of voice modulation is most often used for long-distance or weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
  3016. A. FM
  3017. B. AM
  3018. C. SSB
  3019. D. PM
  3020. ~~
  3021.  
  3022.  
  3023.  
  3024. T8A04 (D)
  3025. Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?
  3026. A. AM
  3027. B. SSB
  3028. C. PSK
  3029. D. FM
  3030. ~~
  3031.  
  3032.  
  3033. T8A05 (C)
  3034. Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?
  3035. A. FM voice
  3036. B. SSB voice
  3037. C. CW
  3038. D. Slow-scan TV
  3039. ~~
  3040.  
  3041.  
  3042. T8A06 (A)
  3043. Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications?
  3044. A. Upper sideband
  3045. B. Lower sideband
  3046. C. Suppressed sideband
  3047. D. Inverted sideband
  3048. ~~
  3049.  
  3050.  
  3051. T8A07 (C)
  3052. What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions?
  3053. A. SSB signals are easier to tune
  3054. B. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
  3055. C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
  3056. D. All of these choices are correct
  3057. ~~
  3058.  
  3059.  
  3060. T8A08 (B)
  3061. What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal?
  3062. A. 1 kHz
  3063. B. 3 kHz
  3064. C. 6 kHz
  3065. D. 15 kHz
  3066. ~~
  3067.  
  3068.  
  3069. T8A09 (C)
  3070. What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?
  3071. A. Less than 500 Hz
  3072. B. About 150 kHz
  3073. C. Between 5 and 15 kHz
  3074. D. Between 50 and 125 kHz
  3075. ~~
  3076.  
  3077.  
  3078.  
  3079. T8A10 (B)
  3080. What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?
  3081. A. More than 10 MHz
  3082. B. About 6 MHz
  3083. C. About 3 MHz
  3084. D. About 1 MHz
  3085. ~~
  3086.  
  3087.  
  3088. T8A11 (B)
  3089. What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?
  3090. A. 2.4 kHz
  3091. B. 150 Hz
  3092. C. 1000 Hz
  3093. D. 15 kHz
  3094. ~~
  3095.  
  3096.  
  3097. T8B - Amateur satellite operation; Doppler shift, basic orbits, operating protocols
  3098.  
  3099. T8B01 (D)
  3100. Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
  3101. A. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
  3102. B. A General Class licensee or higher licensee who has a satellite operator certification
  3103. C. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member
  3104. D. Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency
  3105. ~~
  3106.  
  3107.  
  3108. T8B02 (B) [97.313(a)]
  3109. How much transmitter power should be used on the uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space station?
  3110. A. The maximum power of your transmitter
  3111. B. The minimum amount of power needed to complete the contact
  3112. C. No more than half the rating of your linear amplifier
  3113. D. Never more than 1 watt
  3114. ~~
  3115.  
  3116.  
  3117. T8B03 (A)
  3118. Which of the following can be done using an amateur radio satellite?
  3119. A. Talk to amateur radio operators in other countries
  3120. B. Get global positioning information
  3121. C. Make telephone calls
  3122. D. All of these choices are correct
  3123. ~~
  3124.  
  3125.  
  3126. T8B04 (B)
  3127. Which amateur stations may make contact with an amateur station on the International Space Station using 2 meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies?
  3128. A. Only members of amateur radio clubs at NASA facilities
  3129. B. Any amateur holding a Technician or higher class license
  3130. C. Only the astronaut's family members who are hams
  3131. D. You cannot talk to the ISS on amateur radio frequencies
  3132. ~~
  3133.  
  3134.  
  3135. T8B05 (D)
  3136. What is a satellite beacon?
  3137. A. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite
  3138. B. An indicator light that that shows where to point your antenna
  3139. C. A reflective surface on the satellite
  3140. D. A transmission from a space station that contains information about a satellite
  3141. ~~
  3142.  
  3143.  
  3144. T8B06 (D)
  3145. What can be used to determine the time period during which an amateur satellite or space station can be accessed?
  3146. A. A GPS receiver
  3147. B. A field strength meter
  3148. C. A telescope
  3149. D. A satellite tracking program
  3150. ~~
  3151.  
  3152.  
  3153. T8B07 (C)
  3154. With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?
  3155. A. A change in the satellite orbit
  3156. B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another
  3157. C. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station
  3158. D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites
  3159. ~~
  3160.  
  3161.  
  3162. T8B08 (B)
  3163. What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in "mode U/V"?
  3164. A. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band
  3165. B. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band
  3166. C. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
  3167. D. The satellite frequencies are usually variable
  3168. ~~
  3169.  
  3170.  
  3171. T8B09 (B)
  3172. What causes "spin fading" when referring to satellite signals?
  3173. A. Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun
  3174. B. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas
  3175. C. Doppler shift of the received signal
  3176. D. Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band
  3177. ~~
  3178.  
  3179.  
  3180. T8B10 (C)
  3181. What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?
  3182. A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode
  3183. B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit maneuver
  3184. C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit
  3185. D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics
  3186. ~~
  3187.  
  3188.  
  3189.  
  3190. T8B11 (C)
  3191. What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?
  3192. A. USB AFSK
  3193. B. PSK31
  3194. C. FM Packet
  3195. D. WSJT
  3196. ~~
  3197.  
  3198.  
  3199. T8C – Operating activities; radio direction finding, radio control, contests, special event stations, basic linking over Internet
  3200.  
  3201. T8C01 (C)
  3202. Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?
  3203. A. Echolocation
  3204. B. Doppler radar
  3205. C. Radio direction finding
  3206. D. Phase locking
  3207. ~~
  3208.  
  3209.  
  3210. T8C02 (B)
  3211. Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?
  3212. A. Calibrated SWR meter
  3213. B. A directional antenna
  3214. C. A calibrated noise bridge
  3215. D. All of these choices are correct
  3216. ~~
  3217.  
  3218.  
  3219. T8C03 (A)
  3220. What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of time?
  3221. A. Contesting
  3222. B. Net operations
  3223. C. Public service events
  3224. D. Simulated emergency exercises
  3225. ~~
  3226.  
  3227.  
  3228. T8C04 (C)
  3229. Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest?
  3230. A. Be sure to sign only the last two letters of your call if there is a pileup calling the station
  3231. B. Work the station twice to be sure that you are in his log
  3232. C. Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange
  3233. D. All of these choices are correct
  3234. ~~
  3235.  
  3236.  
  3237. T8C05 (A)
  3238. What is a grid locator?
  3239. A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location
  3240. B. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation
  3241. C. An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier
  3242. D. An instrument for radio direction finding
  3243. ~~
  3244.  
  3245.  
  3246. T8C06 (C)
  3247. For what purpose is a temporary "1 by 1" format (letter-number-letter) call sign assigned?
  3248. A. To designate an experimental station
  3249. B. To honor a deceased relative who was a radio amateur
  3250. C. For operations in conjunction with an activity of special significance to the amateur community
  3251. D. All of these choices are correct
  3252. ~~
  3253.  
  3254.  
  3255. T8C07 (B) [97.215(c)]
  3256. What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
  3257. A. 500 milliwatts
  3258. B. 1 watt
  3259. C. 25 watts
  3260. D. 1500 watts
  3261. ~~
  3262.  
  3263.  
  3264. T8C08 (C) [97.215(a)]
  3265. What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
  3266. A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes
  3267. B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
  3268. C. A label indicating the licensee’s name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
  3269. D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger
  3270. ~~
  3271.  
  3272.  
  3273. T8C09 (C)
  3274. How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP?
  3275. A. From the FCC Rulebook
  3276. B. From your local emergency coordinator
  3277. C. From a repeater directory
  3278. D. From the local repeater frequency coordinator
  3279. ~~
  3280.  
  3281.  
  3282. T8C10 (D)
  3283. How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver?
  3284. A. Choose a specific CTCSS tone
  3285. B. Choose the correct DSC tone
  3286. C. Access the repeater autopatch
  3287. D. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID
  3288. ~~
  3289.  
  3290.  
  3291. T8C11 (A)
  3292. What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the Internet?
  3293. A. A gateway
  3294. B. A repeater
  3295. C. A digipeater
  3296. D. A beacon
  3297. ~~
  3298.  
  3299.  
  3300. T8D – Non-voice communications; image data, digital modes, CW, packet, PSK31
  3301.  
  3302. T8D01 (D)
  3303. Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?
  3304. A. Packet
  3305. B. PSK31
  3306. C. MFSK
  3307. D. All of these choices are correct
  3308. ~~
  3309.  
  3310.  
  3311. T8D02 (A)
  3312. What does the term APRS mean?
  3313. A. Automatic Position Reporting System
  3314. B. Associated Public Radio Station
  3315. C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up
  3316. D. Advanced Polar Radio System
  3317. ~~
  3318.  
  3319.  
  3320. T8D03 (D)
  3321. Which of the following is normally used when sending automatic location reports via amateur radio?
  3322. A. A connection to the vehicle speedometer
  3323. B. A WWV receiver
  3324. C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
  3325. D. A Global Positioning System receiver
  3326. ~~
  3327.  
  3328.  
  3329. T8D04 (C)
  3330. What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?
  3331. A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
  3332. B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink
  3333. C. An analog fast scan color TV signal
  3334. D. A frame compression scheme for TV signals
  3335. ~~
  3336.  
  3337.  
  3338. T8D05 (B)
  3339. Which of the following emission modes may be used by a Technician Class operator between 219 and 220 MHz?
  3340. A. Spread spectrum
  3341. B. Data
  3342. C. SSB voice
  3343. D. Fast-scan television
  3344. ~~
  3345.  
  3346.  
  3347. T8D06 (B)
  3348. What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
  3349. A. Pulse Shift Keying
  3350. B. Phase Shift Keying
  3351. C. Packet Short Keying
  3352. D. Phased Slide Keying
  3353. ~~
  3354.  
  3355.  
  3356.  
  3357. T8D07 (D)
  3358. What is PSK31?
  3359. A. A high-rate data transmission mode
  3360. B. A method of reducing noise interference to FM signals
  3361. C. A method of compressing digital television signal
  3362. D. A low-rate data transmission mode
  3363. ~~
  3364.  
  3365.  
  3366. T8D08 (D)
  3367. Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?
  3368. A. A check sum which permits error detection
  3369. B. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
  3370. C. Automatic repeat request in case of error
  3371. D. All of these choices are correct
  3372. ~~
  3373.  
  3374.  
  3375. T8D09 (C)
  3376. What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?
  3377. A. Baudot
  3378. B. Hamming
  3379. C. International Morse
  3380. D. Gray
  3381. ~~
  3382.  
  3383.  
  3384. T8D10 (D)
  3385. Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands?
  3386. A. Straight Key
  3387. B. Electronic Keyer
  3388. C. Computer Keyboard
  3389. D. All of these choices are correct
  3390. ~~
  3391.  
  3392.  
  3393. T8D11 (C)
  3394. What is a "parity" bit?
  3395. A. A control code required for automatic position reporting
  3396. B. A timing bit used to ensure equal sharing of a frequency
  3397. C. An extra code element used to detect errors in received data
  3398. D. A "triple width" bit used to signal the end of a character
  3399. ~~
  3400.  
  3401.  
  3402. SUBELEMENT T9 – Antennas, feedlines - [2 Exam Questions - 2 Groups]
  3403.  
  3404. T9A – Antennas; vertical and horizontal, concept of gain, common portable and mobile antennas, relationships between antenna length and frequency
  3405.  
  3406. T9A01 (C)
  3407. What is a beam antenna?
  3408. A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
  3409. B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
  3410. C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
  3411. D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals
  3412. ~~
  3413.  
  3414.  
  3415.  
  3416. T9A02 (B)
  3417. Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?
  3418. A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the Earth
  3419. B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth
  3420. C. The phase is inverted
  3421. D. The phase is reversed
  3422. ~~
  3423.  
  3424.  
  3425. T9A03 (B)
  3426. Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
  3427. A. A ground wave antenna
  3428. B. A horizontally polarized antenna
  3429. C. A rhombic antenna
  3430. D. A vertically polarized antenna
  3431. ~~
  3432.  
  3433.  
  3434. T9A04 (A)
  3435. What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
  3436. A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna
  3437. B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal
  3438. C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly
  3439. D. All of these choices are correct
  3440. ~~
  3441.  
  3442.  
  3443. T9A05 (C)
  3444. How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?
  3445. A. Lengthen it
  3446. B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
  3447. C. Shorten it
  3448. D. Add capacity hats to the ends of the radiating wires
  3449. ~~
  3450.  
  3451.  
  3452. T9A06 (C)
  3453. What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?
  3454. A. Non-resonant antennas
  3455. B. Loop antennas
  3456. C. Directional antennas
  3457. D. Isotropic antennas
  3458. ~~
  3459.  
  3460.  
  3461. T9A07 (A)
  3462. What is a good reason not to use a "rubber duck" antenna inside your car?
  3463. A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle
  3464. B. It might cause your radio to overheat
  3465. C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength
  3466. D. All of these choices are correct
  3467. ~~
  3468.  
  3469.  
  3470.  
  3471. T9A08 (C)
  3472. What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
  3473. A. 112
  3474. B. 50
  3475. C. 19
  3476. D. 12
  3477. ~~
  3478.  
  3479.  
  3480. T9A09 (C)
  3481. What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna?
  3482. A. 6
  3483. B. 50
  3484. C. 112
  3485. D. 236
  3486. ~~
  3487.  
  3488.  
  3489. T9A10 (C)
  3490. In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?
  3491. A. Equally in all directions
  3492. B. Off the ends of the antenna
  3493. C. Broadside to the antenna
  3494. D. In the direction of the feedline
  3495. ~~
  3496.  
  3497.  
  3498. T9A11 (C)
  3499. What is meant by the gain of an antenna?
  3500. A. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power
  3501. B. The additional power that is lost in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
  3502. C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction when compared to a reference antenna
  3503. D. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna
  3504. ~~
  3505.  
  3506.  
  3507. T9B - Feedlines; types, losses vs. frequency, SWR concepts, matching weather protection, connectors
  3508.  
  3509. T9B01 (B)
  3510. Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feedline?
  3511. A. To reduce television interference
  3512. B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
  3513. C. To prolong antenna life
  3514. D. All of these choices are correct
  3515. ~~
  3516.  
  3517.  
  3518.  
  3519. T9B02 (B)
  3520. What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations?
  3521. A. 8 ohms
  3522. B. 50 ohms
  3523. C. 600 ohms
  3524. D. 12 ohms
  3525. ~~
  3526.  
  3527.  
  3528. T9B03 (A)
  3529. Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feedline for amateur radio antenna systems?
  3530. A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations
  3531. B. It has less loss than any other type of feedline
  3532. C. It can handle more power than any other type of feedline
  3533. D. It is less expensive than any other types of feedline
  3534. ~~
  3535.  
  3536.  
  3537. T9B04 (A)
  3538. What does an antenna tuner do?
  3539. A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
  3540. B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
  3541. C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
  3542. D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used
  3543. ~~
  3544.  
  3545.  
  3546. T9B05 (D)
  3547. What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
  3548. A. The apparent SWR increases
  3549. B. The reflected power increases
  3550. C. The characteristic impedance increases
  3551. D. The loss increases
  3552. ~~
  3553.  
  3554.  
  3555. T9B06 (B)
  3556. Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?
  3557. A. A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector
  3558. B. A Type N connector
  3559. C. An RS-213 connector
  3560. D. A DB-23 connector
  3561. ~~
  3562.  
  3563.  
  3564. T9B07 (C)
  3565. Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?
  3566. A. They are good for UHF frequencies
  3567. B. They are water tight
  3568. C. The are commonly used at HF frequencies
  3569. D. They are a bayonet type connector
  3570. ~~
  3571.  
  3572.  
  3573.  
  3574. T9B08 (A)
  3575. Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?
  3576. A. To prevent an increase in feedline loss
  3577. B. To prevent interference to telephones
  3578. C. To keep the jacket from becoming loose
  3579. D. All of these choices are correct
  3580. ~~
  3581.  
  3582.  
  3583. T9B09 (B)
  3584. What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings?
  3585. A. The transmitter is being modulated
  3586. B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feedline
  3587. C. The transmitter is being over-modulated
  3588. D. Interference from other stations is distorting your signal
  3589. ~~
  3590.  
  3591.  
  3592. T9B10 (C)
  3593. What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
  3594. A. There is no significant difference between the two types
  3595. B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency
  3596. C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency
  3597. D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels
  3598. ~~
  3599.  
  3600.  
  3601. T9B11 (C)
  3602. Which of the following types of feedline has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
  3603. A. 50-ohm flexible coax
  3604. B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
  3605. C. Air-insulated hard line
  3606. D. 75-ohm flexible coax
  3607. ~~
  3608.  
  3609.  
  3610. SUBELEMENT T0 – AC power circuits, antenna installation, RF hazards – [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
  3611.  
  3612. T0A – AC power circuits; hazardous voltages, fuses and circuit breakers, grounding, lightning protection, battery safety, electrical code compliance
  3613.  
  3614. T0A01 (B)
  3615. Which is a commonly accepted value for the lowest voltage that can cause a dangerous electric shock?
  3616. A. 12 volts
  3617. B. 30 volts
  3618. C. 120 volts
  3619. D. 300 volts
  3620. ~~
  3621.  
  3622.  
  3623. T0A02 (D)
  3624. How does current flowing through the body cause a health hazard?
  3625. A. By heating tissue
  3626. B. It disrupts the electrical functions of cells
  3627. C. It causes involuntary muscle contractions
  3628. D. All of these choices are correct
  3629. ~~
  3630.  
  3631.  
  3632. T0A03 (C)
  3633. What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug?
  3634. A. Neutral
  3635. B. Hot
  3636. C. Safety ground
  3637. D. The white wire
  3638. ~~
  3639.  
  3640.  
  3641. T0A04 (B)
  3642. What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
  3643. A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit
  3644. B. To interrupt power in case of overload
  3645. C. To limit current to prevent shocks
  3646. D. All of these choices are correct
  3647. ~~
  3648.  
  3649.  
  3650. T0A05 (C)
  3651. Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
  3652. A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
  3653. B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
  3654. C. Excessive current could cause a fire
  3655. D. All of these choices are correct
  3656. ~~
  3657.  
  3658.  
  3659. T0A06 (D)
  3660. What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?
  3661. A. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
  3662. B. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground
  3663. C. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter
  3664. D. All of these choices are correct
  3665. ~~
  3666.  
  3667.  
  3668. T0A07 (D)
  3669. Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feedline?
  3670. A. Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power
  3671. B. Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector
  3672. C. Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground
  3673. D. Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground
  3674. ~~
  3675.  
  3676.  
  3677. T0A08 (C)
  3678. What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out?
  3679. A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours
  3680. B. Add acid to the battery
  3681. C. Connect the battery to a car's battery and run the engine
  3682. D. All of these choices are correct
  3683. ~~
  3684.  
  3685.  
  3686.  
  3687. T0A09 (C)
  3688. What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?
  3689. A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere
  3690. B. Shock hazard due to high voltage
  3691. C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented
  3692. D. All of these choices are correct
  3693. ~~
  3694.  
  3695.  
  3696. T0A10 (A)
  3697. What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?
  3698. A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode
  3699. B. The voltage can become reversed
  3700. C. The “memory effect” will reduce the capacity of the battery
  3701. D. All of these choices are correct
  3702. ~~
  3703.  
  3704.  
  3705. T0A11 (C)
  3706. Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?
  3707. A. Put a loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system
  3708. B. Make sure that all bends in the ground wires are clean, right angle bends
  3709. C. Ensure that connections are short and direct
  3710. D. All of these choices are correct
  3711. ~~
  3712.  
  3713.  
  3714. T0A12 (D)
  3715. What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?
  3716. A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
  3717. B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
  3718. C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
  3719. D. You might receive an electric shock from stored charge in large capacitors
  3720. ~~
  3721.  
  3722.  
  3723. T0A13 (A)
  3724. What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?
  3725. A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC "hot" conductor
  3726. B. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source
  3727. C. An inductor in series with the AC power source
  3728. D. A capacitor across the AC power source
  3729. ~~
  3730.  
  3731.  
  3732. T0B – Antenna installation; tower safety, overhead power lines
  3733.  
  3734. T0B01 (C)
  3735. When should members of a tower work team wear a hard hat and safety glasses?
  3736. A. At all times except when climbing the tower
  3737. B. At all times except when belted firmly to the tower
  3738. C. At all times when any work is being done on the tower
  3739. D. Only when the tower exceeds 30 feet in height
  3740. ~~
  3741.  
  3742.  
  3743.  
  3744. T0B02 (C)
  3745. What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?
  3746. A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap
  3747. B. Remove all tower grounding connections
  3748. C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses
  3749. D. All of the these choices are correct
  3750. ~~
  3751.  
  3752.  
  3753. T0B03 (D)
  3754. Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?
  3755. A. When no electrical work is being performed
  3756. B. When no mechanical work is being performed
  3757. C. When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground
  3758. D. Never
  3759. ~~
  3760.  
  3761.  
  3762. T0B04 (C)
  3763. Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?
  3764. A. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times
  3765. B. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
  3766. C. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires
  3767. D. All of these choices are correct
  3768. ~~
  3769.  
  3770.  
  3771. T0B05 (C)
  3772. What is the purpose of a gin pole?
  3773. A. To temporarily replace guy wires
  3774. B. To be used in place of a safety harness
  3775. C. To lift tower sections or antennas
  3776. D. To provide a temporary ground
  3777. ~~
  3778.  
  3779.  
  3780. T0B06 (D)
  3781. What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?
  3782. A. Half the width of your property
  3783. B. The height of the power line above ground
  3784. C. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
  3785. D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires
  3786. ~~
  3787.  
  3788.  
  3789. T0B07 (C)
  3790. Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?
  3791. A. This type of tower must never be painted
  3792. B. This type of tower must never be grounded
  3793. C. This type of tower must never be climbed unless it is in the fully retracted position
  3794. D. All of these choices are correct
  3795. ~~
  3796.  
  3797.  
  3798.  
  3799. T0B08 (C)
  3800. What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?
  3801. A. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
  3802. B. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground
  3803. C. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other
  3804. D. A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe
  3805. ~~
  3806.  
  3807.  
  3808. T0B09 (C)
  3809. Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
  3810. A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
  3811. B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee
  3812. C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires
  3813. D. All of these choices are correct
  3814. ~~
  3815.  
  3816.  
  3817. T0B10 (C)
  3818. Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
  3819. A. Only non-insulated wire must be used
  3820. B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
  3821. C. Sharp bends must be avoided
  3822. D. Common grounds must be avoided
  3823. ~~
  3824.  
  3825.  
  3826. T0B11 (B)
  3827. Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
  3828. A. FCC Part 97 Rules
  3829. B. Local electrical codes
  3830. C. FAA tower lighting regulations
  3831. D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended practices
  3832. ~~
  3833.  
  3834.  
  3835. T0C - RF hazards; radiation exposure, proximity to antennas, recognized safe power levels, exposure to others
  3836.  
  3837. T0C01 (D)
  3838. What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?
  3839. A. Gamma radiation
  3840. B. Ionizing radiation
  3841. C. Alpha radiation
  3842. D. Non-ionizing radiation
  3843. ~~
  3844.  
  3845.  
  3846. T0C02 (B)
  3847. Which of the following frequencies has the lowest Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?
  3848. A. 3.5 MHz
  3849. B. 50 MHz
  3850. C. 440 MHz
  3851. D. 1296 MHz
  3852. ~~
  3853.  
  3854.  
  3855. T0C03 (C)
  3856. What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required?
  3857. A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output
  3858. B. 1 watt forward power
  3859. C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna
  3860. D. 50 watts PEP reflected power
  3861. ~~
  3862.  
  3863.  
  3864. T0C04 (D)
  3865. What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?
  3866. A. Frequency and power level of the RF field
  3867. B. Distance from the antenna to a person
  3868. C. Radiation pattern of the antenna
  3869. D. All of these choices are correct
  3870. ~~
  3871.  
  3872.  
  3873. T0C05 (D)
  3874. Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
  3875. A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
  3876. B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
  3877. C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
  3878. D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others
  3879. ~~
  3880.  
  3881.  
  3882. T0C06 (D)
  3883. Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
  3884. A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
  3885. B. By calculation based on computer modeling
  3886. C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
  3887. D. All of these choices are correct
  3888. ~~
  3889.  
  3890.  
  3891. T0C07 (B)
  3892. What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?
  3893. A. Touching the antenna could cause television interference
  3894. B. They might receive a painful RF burn
  3895. C. They might develop radiation poisoning
  3896. D. All of these choices are correct
  3897. ~~
  3898.  
  3899.  
  3900. T0C08 (A)
  3901. Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCC-supplied limits?
  3902. A. Relocate antennas
  3903. B. Relocate the transmitter
  3904. C. Increase the duty cycle
  3905. D. All of these choices are correct
  3906. ~~
  3907.  
  3908.  
  3909.  
  3910. T0C09 (B)
  3911. How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
  3912. A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
  3913. B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed
  3914. C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
  3915. D. All of these choices are correct
  3916. ~~
  3917.  
  3918.  
  3919. T0C10 (A)
  3920. Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?
  3921. A. It affects the average exposure of people to radiation
  3922. B. It affects the peak exposure of people to radiation
  3923. C. It takes into account the antenna feedline loss
  3924. D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier
  3925. ~~
  3926.  
  3927.  
  3928. T0C11 (C)
  3929. What is meant by "duty cycle" when referring to RF exposure?
  3930. A. The difference between lowest usable output and maximum rated output power of a transmitter
  3931. B. The difference between PEP and average power of an SSB signal
  3932. C. The ratio of on-air time to total operating time of a transmitted signal
  3933. D. The amount of time the operator spends transmitting
  3934. ~~
  3935.  
  3936.  
  3937. [End of Technician Class pool. Graphics included below.]
  3938.  
  3939. Graphics for 2010 Technician exam - Element 2
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  3987. ~~ End of document
  3988.  
  3989.  
  3990.  
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