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Chapters 18,19

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Dec 14th, 2017
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  1. Question 1
  2. 0 out of 1 points
  3. The security role which designs, plans and implements z/OS security is _____.
  4. Selected Answer:
  5. Incorrect [None Given]
  6. Correct Answer:
  7. Correct Security administrator
  8. Question 2
  9. 0 out of 1 points
  10. The security role that has been assigned the SPECIAL attribute in their profiles is a _____.
  11. Selected Answer:
  12. Incorrect [None Given]
  13. Correct Answer:
  14. Correct Security administrator
  15. Question 3
  16. 0 out of 1 points
  17. The security role which is responsible for reviewing security policy, violation and exposures is ______.
  18. Selected Answer:
  19. Incorrect [None Given]
  20. Correct Answer:
  21. Correct Security auditor
  22. Question 4
  23. 0 out of 1 points
  24. The security role which is responsible for entering system commands at console to control the operation of z/OS is ______.
  25. Selected Answer:
  26. Incorrect [None Given]
  27. Correct Answer:
  28. Correct System operator
  29. Question 5
  30. 0 out of 1 points
  31. z/OS directly provides all of the following security and integrity controls beyond facilities provided by the IBM Security Server or RACF, except?
  32. Selected Answer:
  33. Incorrect [None Given]
  34. Correct Answer:
  35. Correct z/OS Firewall Technologies
  36. Question 6
  37. 0 out of 1 points
  38. Resource Access Control Facility (RACF) is a part of _______?
  39. Selected Answer:
  40. Incorrect [None Given]
  41. Correct Answer:
  42. Correct IBM Security Server
  43. Question 7
  44. 0 out of 1 points
  45. Which of the following statements BEST describes z/OS's Authorized Program Facility (APF)?
  46. Selected Answer:
  47. Incorrect [None Given]
  48. Correct Answer:
  49. Correct Ability to identify system or user programs that can use sensitive system functions.
  50. Question 8
  51. 0 out of 1 points
  52. Which of the following statements concerning z/OS's Authorized Program Facility (APF) is TRUE?
  53. Selected Answer:
  54. Incorrect [None Given]
  55. Correct Answer:
  56. Correct All of the answers are TRUE.
  57. Question 9
  58. 0 out of 1 points
  59. Which of the following statements BEST describes z/OS's storage protection function?
  60. Selected Answer:
  61. Incorrect [None Given]
  62. Correct Answer:
  63. Correct Prevents unauthorized reading or alteration of real memory.
  64. Question 10
  65. 0 out of 1 points
  66. Which of the following statements concerning z/OS's storage protection is FALSE?
  67. Selected Answer:
  68. Incorrect [None Given]
  69. Correct Answer:
  70. Correct Storage protection keys are used to encrypt the contents real memory to prevent un-authorized system or user programs from reading the contents of the page.
  71. Question 11
  72. 0 out of 1 points
  73. Programs assigned a storage protection key of 0 (the Master key), which is assigned to z/OS BCP programs, can store or alter content anywhere. To provide additional protection to prevent real memory alteration even from master key programs, what additional storage protection may be used?
  74. Selected Answer:
  75. Incorrect [None Given]
  76. Correct Answer:
  77. Correct Page protection bit
  78. Question 12
  79. 0 out of 1 points
  80. Which of the following statements concerning z/OS's cross-memory communication protection is TRUE?
  81. Selected Answer:
  82. Incorrect [None Given]
  83. Correct Answer:
  84. Correct All of the statements are TRUE
  85. Question 13
  86. 0 out of 1 points
  87. In RACF, a _____________ describes the security characteristics of a user, a group, or resource.
  88. Selected Answer:
  89. Incorrect [None Given]
  90. Correct Answer:
  91. Correct profile
  92. Question 14
  93. 0 out of 1 points
  94. A hardcopy document or electronic set of security rules that are used to guide or implement security is called a ________?
  95. Selected Answer:
  96. Incorrect [None Given]
  97. Correct Answer:
  98. Correct security policy
  99. Question 15
  100. 0 out of 1 points
  101. The security concept which ensures that individuals don't have conflicting responsibilities or are responsible for reporting on themselves or their superior is called ______?
  102. Selected Answer:
  103. Incorrect [None Given]
  104. Correct Answer:
  105. Correct separation of duties
  106. Question 16
  107. 0 out of 1 points
  108. All of the following are typical RACF security services, except?
  109. Selected Answer:
  110. Incorrect [None Given]
  111. Correct Answer:
  112. Correct Prevents connections from outside the network to access sensitive applications.
  113. Question 17
  114. 0 out of 1 points
  115. RACF can be configured to write to a security log when it detects _______?
  116. Selected Answer:
  117. Incorrect [None Given]
  118. Correct Answer:
  119. Correct Any of the listed events.
  120. Question 18
  121. 0 out of 1 points
  122. A security policy should ______.
  123. Selected Answer:
  124. Incorrect [None Given]
  125. Correct Answer:
  126. Correct include all of the presented options
  127. Question 19
  128. 0 out of 1 points
  129. Concerning the security policies recommended for systems programs, which of the following statements is FALSE?
  130. Selected Answer:
  131. Incorrect [None Given]
  132. Correct Answer:
  133. Correct System programs are normally stored in a RACF security database.
  134. Question 20
  135. 0 out of 1 points
  136. Which of the following statements BEST describes the concept of "console security"?
  137. Selected Answer:
  138. Incorrect [None Given]
  139. Correct Answer:
  140. Correct Specifies z/OS commands can execute at a designated console.
  141. Question 21
  142. 0 out of 1 points
  143. Which of the following statements BEST describes the concept of a "Problem State"?
  144. Selected Answer:
  145. Incorrect [None Given]
  146. Correct Answer:
  147. Correct It is normally any user program that is executed with storage protection key of 8.
  148. Question 22
  149. 0 out of 1 points
  150. Concerning the security of application programs, which of the following statements is FALSE?
  151. Selected Answer:
  152. Incorrect [None Given]
  153. Correct Answer:
  154. Correct Application programs normally use a storage protection key between 0 and 7.
  155. Question 23
  156. 0 out of 1 points
  157. While of the following is NOT an example of a RACF protected resource?
  158. Selected Answer:
  159. Incorrect [None Given]
  160. Correct Answer:
  161. Correct Users and groups
  162. Question 24
  163. 0 out of 1 points
  164. In order for a resource to be RACF-protected, it must
  165. Selected Answer:
  166. Incorrect [None Given]
  167. Correct Answer:
  168. Correct have a RACF profile
  169. Question 25
  170. 0 out of 1 points
  171. ALLOC, CONTROL, WRITE, READ, and NONE are examples of which RACF concept?
  172. Selected Answer:
  173. Incorrect [None Given]
  174. Correct Answer:
  175. Correct RACF permissions
  176. Question 26
  177. 0 out of 1 points
  178. INFO, SYS, IO, CONS, MASTER are examples of which RACF concept?
  179. Selected Answer:
  180. Incorrect [None Given]
  181. Correct Answer:
  182. Correct RACF CONSOLE authority or command levels
  183. Question 27
  184. 0 out of 1 points
  185. Concerning SNA (System Network Architecture) which of the following statements is FALSE?
  186. Selected Answer:
  187. Incorrect [None Given]
  188. Correct Answer:
  189. Correct SNA was the first network architecture, but when TCP/IP was introduced many years was replaced by.
  190. Question 28
  191. 0 out of 1 points
  192. TCP/IP identifies remote applications by a ________.
  193. Selected Answer:
  194. Incorrect [None Given]
  195. Correct Answer:
  196. Correct socket
  197. Question 29
  198. 0 out of 1 points
  199. SNA identifies a remote application by a ________.
  200. Selected Answer:
  201. Incorrect [None Given]
  202. Correct Answer:
  203. Correct program interface
  204. Question 30
  205. 0 out of 1 points
  206. SNA identifies a remote host by a ________.
  207. Selected Answer:
  208. Incorrect [None Given]
  209. Correct Answer:
  210. Correct logical unit (LU)
  211. Question 31
  212. 0 out of 1 points
  213. TCP/IP identifies a remote host by a ________.
  214. Selected Answer:
  215. Incorrect [None Given]
  216. Correct Answer:
  217. Correct IP address
  218. Question 32
  219. 0 out of 1 points
  220. Which of the following statements BEST describes the concept of TN3270E?
  221. Selected Answer:
  222. Incorrect [None Given]
  223. Correct Answer:
  224. Correct The TCP/IP application protocol used to transmit IBM 3270 terminal data streams across TCP/IP networks.
  225. Question 33
  226. 0 out of 1 points
  227. Which of the following statements BEST describes Virtual Telecommunications Access Method (VTAM)?
  228. Selected Answer:
  229. Incorrect [None Given]
  230. Correct Answer:
  231. Correct An IBM subsystem that implements Systems Network Architecture (SNA)
  232. Question 34
  233. 0 out of 1 points
  234. The IBM subsystem that permits z/OS to integrate TCP/IP and SNA is _____?
  235. Selected Answer:
  236. Incorrect [None Given]
  237. Correct Answer:
  238. Correct z/OS Communication Server (CS)
  239. Question 35
  240. 0 out of 1 points
  241. A layered network model like OSI, TCP/IP and SNA provides a way to categorize network and communication functions using a hierarchical approach. How many network layers are specified in the SNA architecture?
  242. Selected Answer:
  243. Incorrect [None Given]
  244. Correct Answer:
  245. Correct 7
  246. Question 36
  247. 0 out of 1 points
  248. The Network layer of the TCP/IP and OSI models are used to specification used to uniquely identify network components and techniques (algorithms) to routing data routing between network components. Which of the following SNA layers is the most comparable to the TCP/IP and OSI network layer?
  249. Selected Answer:
  250. Incorrect [None Given]
  251. Correct Answer:
  252. Correct Path Control layer.
  253. Question 37
  254. 0 out of 1 points
  255. SNA identifies three types of Network Addressable Units (NAUs). Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning SNA Network Address Units?
  256. Selected Answer:
  257. Incorrect [None Given]
  258. Correct Answer:
  259. Correct Logical units (LUs) identifies SNA network components by software and physical units (PUs) identifies SNA components by hardware or firmware.
  260. Question 38
  261. 0 out of 1 points
  262. The concept of a TCP/IP socket or port is most similar compared to a ______?
  263. Selected Answer:
  264. Incorrect [None Given]
  265. Correct Answer:
  266. Correct Logical unit (LU)
  267. Question 39
  268. 0 out of 1 points
  269. Concerning the concept of a SNA physical units (PUs), which of the following statements is FALSE?
  270. Selected Answer:
  271. Incorrect [None Given]
  272. Correct Answer:
  273. Correct A PU is a centralized SNA component that controls and routes communication through an SNA domain.
  274. Question 40
  275. 0 out of 1 points
  276. The collection of SNA components that is managed by a system services control point (SSCP) is called a ________?
  277. Selected Answer:
  278. Incorrect [None Given]
  279. Correct Answer:
  280. Correct domain
  281. Question 41
  282. 0 out of 1 points
  283. The Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC) protocol is responsible for controlling the bit-by-bit transmission of frames. SDLC provides services similar to which TCP/IP or OSI layer?
  284. Selected Answer:
  285. Incorrect [None Given]
  286. Correct Answer:
  287. Correct Data Link Layer
  288. Question 42
  289. 0 out of 1 points
  290. SDLC is most similar to which network component or service?
  291. Selected Answer:
  292. Incorrect [None Given]
  293. Correct Answer:
  294. Correct Ethernet
  295. Question 43
  296. 0 out of 1 points
  297. Data is routed between SNA physical units within a SNA domain by a _______.
  298. Selected Answer:
  299. Incorrect [None Given]
  300. Correct Answer:
  301. Correct System Services Control Point (SSCP)
  302. Question 44
  303. 0 out of 1 points
  304. System Services Control Point (SSCP) services are provided by __________.
  305. Selected Answer:
  306. Incorrect [None Given]
  307. Correct Answer:
  308. Correct z/OS Communication Server
  309. Question 45
  310. 0 out of 1 points
  311. Historically, a mainframe used only one VTAM domain. As the complexity of VTAM networks expanded there was a need to connect multiple VTAM domains. Each VTAM domain connected to a VTAM network is called a _____.
  312. Selected Answer:
  313. Incorrect [None Given]
  314. Correct Answer:
  315. Correct subarea
  316. Question 46
  317. 0 out of 1 points
  318. Which type of SNA node is used to interconnect subareas?
  319. Selected Answer:
  320. Incorrect [None Given]
  321. Correct Answer:
  322. Correct Type 4 (T4)
  323. Question 47
  324. 0 out of 1 points
  325. Subarea VTAM network designs Advanced Program-to-Program Communications (APPC) and Advanced Peer-to-Peer Networks (APPN). The advantages of APPC and APPN include
  326. Selected Answer:
  327. Incorrect [None Given]
  328. Correct Answer:
  329. Correct All of the statements describe advantages of APPC and APPN
  330. Question 48
  331. 0 out of 1 points
  332. VTAM commands can be entered using SDSF and used to monitor and gather information of VTAM nodes, APPN topologies, subarea sessions (SSCP-SSCP, LU-LU, CP-CP) and VTAM exit routines begin with _______.
  333. Selected Answer:
  334. Incorrect [None Given]
  335. Correct Answer:
  336. Correct /D NET,
  337. Question 49
  338. 0 out of 1 points
  339. VTAM commands can be entered using SDSF and used to activate or deactivate VTAM resources begin with _______.
  340. Selected Answer:
  341. Incorrect [None Given]
  342. Correct Answer:
  343. Correct /V NET,
  344. Question 50
  345. 0 out of 1 points
  346. VTAM commands can be entered using SDSF and used to change VTAM options, tables, storage and traces begin with _______.
  347. Selected Answer:
  348. Incorrect [None Given]
  349. Correct Answer:
  350. Correct /V NET,
  351. Question 51
  352. 0 out of 1 points
  353. The traditional TCP/IP commands, i.e., netstat, ping and tracert, can be entered using _______.
  354. Selected Answer:
  355. Incorrect [None Given]
  356. Correct Answer:
  357. Correct TSO and OMVS
  358. Question 52
  359. 0 out of 1 points
  360. In order to start a UNIX command shell one would enter the ______ command.
  361. Selected Answer:
  362. Incorrect [None Given]
  363. Correct Answer:
  364. Correct TSO OMVS
  365. Question 53
  366. 0 out of 1 points
  367. TSO commands that can report TCP/IP utilization information, port information and status, routes, etc. begin with _______.
  368. Selected Answer:
  369. Incorrect [None Given]
  370. Correct Answer:
  371. Correct DISPLAY TCPIP
  372. Question 54
  373. 0 out of 1 points
  374. TSO commands that modify TCP/IP parameters or start and stop sockets and communication TCP/IP devices begin with _______.
  375. Selected Answer:
  376. Incorrect [None Given]
  377. Correct Answer:
  378. Correct VARY TCPIP
  379. Question 55
  380. 0 out of 1 points
  381. IP addresses that are not dependent to a physical network device and can provide flexibility in load balancing and recovery services when a physical network device fails are called ______.
  382. Selected Answer:
  383. Incorrect [None Given]
  384. Correct Answer:
  385. Correct Dynamic IP addresses
  386. Thursday, December 14, 2017 5:49:26 PM EST
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