SHARE

TWEET

# Untitled

a guest
Jan 12th, 2019
52
Never

**Not a member of Pastebin yet?**

**, it unlocks many cool features!**

__Sign Up__- Yes, 1 divided by g(x). g(x) on its own is, well, g(x).
- Let's just carry on and see how this plays out. lolz. I confirmed with a TA in the area that I'm studying that I don't have to treat it as a 1/3 if I'm only working with g(x). Let's carry on!
- From the first derivative,
- f(x) = 2x
- f'(x) = 2
- g(x) = 3(x^2-1)^(2/3)
- g' = (2/3)(2x)(x^2-1)^(-1/3)
- So now, we use the quotient rule:
- (f'g - fg')
- -------
- g^2
- (2*3(x^2-1)^(2/3)) - ((2x)((2/3)(2x)(x^2-1)^(-1/3)))
- ---------------------------------------------
- ( 3(x^2-1)^(2/3))^2
- That's what I believe it should be (not fully simplified, but screw it. :P)

RAW Paste Data

We use cookies for various purposes including analytics. By continuing to use Pastebin, you agree to our use of cookies as described in the Cookies Policy.